CUSAT CAT 2017 Question Paper Economics

ECONOMICS
(FINAL)

1. Who introduced and popularized the terms Macro Economics and Micro Economics?

(A) Boulding (B) Ragnar Frisch
(C) J.M. Keynes (D) Adam Smith

2. The numerical value of the price elasticity of demand at the midpoint of the demand
line is

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) >1 (D) <1

3. If the demand curve is negatively sloped, the relationship among Price elasticity of
demand (η), Average revenue (AR) and Marginal revenue (MR) is

(A) η = P (AR – MR) (B) AR = MR (1+1/ η)
(C) η = AR/(AR ‒ MR) (D) η = (AR ‒ MR)/AR

4. In the theory of consumer behavior, the marginal utility is zero when total utility is

(A) maximum (B) minimum
(C) infinite (D) None of the above

5. For giffen goods the price elasticity of demand is

(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Unity (D) Zero

6. In the long run, the supply curve in perfect competition is

(A) AC curve (B) MR curve
(C) MC curve (D) AR curve

7. A monopolist facing monopsonist is a

(A) Duopoly (B) Monopoly
(C) Discriminating Monopoly (D) Bilateral Monopoly

8. Sales Maximization Hypothesis is associated with

(A) Mathus (B) J. Baumol
(C) Stigler (D) Shepherd

9. Indicate the name of the model which states that supply in the current year depends
upon price in the previous year

(A) Micro model (B) Harrod model
(C) Domar model (D) Cob-web model

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10. Monopoly power can be measured by using

(A) MR ‒ MC (B) P ‒ AC
−
(C) (D)

11. Who defined economics as the “practical science of production and distribution of
wealth”?

(A) Adam Smith (B) J S Mill
(C) J M Keynes (D) Paul Samuelson

12. What is marginal opportunity cost?

(A) The amount of commodity X scarified for a unit increase in the production of
Y
(B) The amount of commodity X scarified for an increase in the production of Y
(C) The amount of commodity X scarified for an incremental increase in the
production of Y
(D) The amount of commodity X scarified for a unit increase in the production of
complement of X

13. What is income effect?

(A) Income effect is the effect of the change in income on the quantity.
(B) Income effect is the effect of the change in income on the quantity demanded.
(C) Income effect is the effect of the change in income on the supply.
(D) Income effect is the effect of the change in income on the supply required.

14. Price of apple decreases from Rs.40 per Kg to Rs.30 per Kg. Demand for apples in
the market increases from 100 Kg to 120Kg. Hence, price elasticity is

(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.2 (D) 0.8

15. In stage two of the law of variable proportions,

(A) MP curve and AP curve are increasing, TP curve is increasing
(B) MP curve is increasing, AP curve is decreasing, TP curve is decreasing
(C) MP curve is decreasing, AP curve is increasing and TP curve is increasing
(D) MP curve and AP curve are declining, TP curve is increasing

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16. Implicit cost refers to

(A) The cost of factors that are hired by the producer
(B) The cost of factors which are provided by the government to the producer
(C) The cost of factors that are owned by the producer
(D) The cost of protecting environment

17. If supply rises due to an improvement in technology, it is

(A) Expansion of supply (B) Increase in supply
(C) Contraction of supply (D) Exogenous supply

18. Compared to pure competition, the additional factor (s) required for perfect
completion is (are)

(A) Absence of transport costs (B) Perfect knowledge
(C) Homogenous products (D) Both (A) and (B)

19. Find the odd man out

(A) Toilet soap industry (B) Tooth paste industry
(C) Indian railways (D) Car industry

20. What is the essence of marginal productivity theory of distribution?

(A) States that the price paid to the product will be equal to its marginal product
(B) States that the price paid to the factor will be less than its marginal product
(C) States that the price paid to the factor will be equal to its marginal product
(D) States that the price paid to the factor will be greater than its marginal
product

21. Who said that ‘the interest is paid because of time preference’?

(A) Irving Fisher (B) Keynes
(C) Samuelson (D) Baumol

22. “Profits are both the cause and effect of innovations”, stated by

(A) Schumpeter (B) Keynes
(C) Knight (D) Stigler

23. Who propounded the view that ‘demand creates is own supply’?

(A) L.R. Klein (B) Keynes
(C) Hansen (D) Joan Robinson

24. Given the deposit Multiplier is 8 and the initial deposit is Rs.5000, what is deposit
creation?

(A) 5000 (B) 40000
(C) 50000 (D) 35000

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25. Who led the Monetarist Revolution?

(A) Keynes (B) Patinkin
(C) Milton Friedman (D) Jacob viner

26. ‘The division of labour is limited by the extent of the market’ is due to

(A) Karl Marx (B) Samuelson
(C) Adam Smith (D) Ricardo

27. Who suggested that economic development can be accelerated by weakening
‘Backwash effects’ and strengthening its ‘spread effects’

(A) N. Kaldor (B) G. Myrdal
(C) Joan Robinson (D) Keynes

28. The term “Golden – age Equilibrium’ was coined by

(A) Karl Marx (B) Joan Robinson
(C) G. Myrdal (D) Ricardo

29. Solow’s model of long-run growth is a major improvement over that of

(A) Harrod Domar (B) J.Robinson
(C) Mahalanobis (D) J.E. Meade

30. Indicate the name of the Nobel Laureate in Economics who has contributed to
Welfare Economics

(A) Leontief (B) Samuelson
(C) Solow (D) A.K. Sen

31. Supply of labour is

(A) Price inelastic (B) Price elastic
(C) Price neutral (D) Independent of price

32. What is subsistence wage?

(A) The wage that is sufficient to keep the labourer in a minimum subsistence
level
(B) The wage that is sufficient to keep the labourer and his family at a minimum
subsistence level
(C) The wage that is sufficient to keep the labourer in a decent level of living
(D) The wage that is sufficient to keep the labourer and his family at a decent
level of living

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33. In a two sector economy, factor payments flow

(A) from business sector to household sector
(B) from business sector to business sector
(C) from households to business sector
(D) None of the above

34. National Income at constant prices can be stated as

(A) (National Income at current prices × 100) ÷ Price Index for the current
year
(B) (National income at current prices × 100) ÷ Price Index for the base year
(C) National income at current prices ÷ Price Index for the current year
(D) National income at current prices ÷ Price index for the base year

35. Among the following, which is an example for factor income?

(A) Wages and salaries
(B) Provident fund contribution
(C) Unemployment pension
(D) Profit

36. According to expenditure method, GDP at market prices is stated as

(A) Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption
expenditure +Net exports
(B) Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption
expenditure + Capital formation
(C) Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption
expenditure + Net indirect taxes
(D) Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption
expenditure + Capital formation + Net exports

37. What is inflationary gap?

(A) The gap the excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply
(B) The gap the excess of aggregate production over aggregate demand
(C) The gap the excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply at full
employment level of output
(D) The gap the excess of aggregate production over aggregate demand at full
employment level of output

38. Among the following, which is a best example for non discretionary fiscal policy?

(A) Regressive taxation (B) Progressive taxation
(C) Proportional taxation (D) Tax free economy

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39. The following table shows the income and consumption expenditure of three
individuals A, B and C for the year 2010 and 2011. Find MPC of B

Income 2010 Income 2011 Consumption Consumption
Individuals
(Rs.) (Rs.) 2010 (Rs.) 2011 (Rs.)
A 1000 1500 800 1100
B 1500 2300 1000 1800
C 2500 3500 2000 2100

(A) 0.8 (B) 0.6
(C) 1 (D) 0.72

40. Export surplus is desirable when there is

(A) Excess demand (B) No demand
(C) Deficient demand (D) Always

41. The Economist who first defined the concept of ‘shadow price’ is

(A) J. Tinbergen (B) G. Myrdal
(C) Solow (D) Leontief

42. The criticism of the balanced growth theory is mainly based on the consideration of

(A) Market size (B) Population
(C) Scarcity of resources (D) External economies

43. The Economist who developed the model for interaction between Multiplier and
Accelerator was

(A) Samuelson (B) John Robinson
(C) Solow (D) Kaldor

44. Who presented the geometrical view of trade indifference curve?

(A) Haberber (B) Leontief
(C) Meade (D) Kindleberger

45. Who popounded the opportunity cost theory?

(A) Myint (B) Haberler
(C) Leontief (D) Meade

46. The book entitled, “Inter-regional and international trade” was written by

(A) Bertil Ohlin (B) Meade
(C) Marshall (D) J.S.Mill

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47. Who devised a formula to measure the rate of optimum tariff?

(A) Keynes (B) Kindleberger
(C) Ohlin (D) Haberler

48. Special drawing rights (SDR) was introduced by

(A) IBRD (B) GATT
(C) WTO (D) IMF

49. The first conference on trade negotiations under GATT was held at

(A) Tokyo (B) New York
(C) Greece (D) Singapore

50. International trade is based on the concept of absolute advantage, according to

(A) J.S. Mill (B) Adam Smith
(C) B. Ohlin (D) Ricardo

51. What is called full bodied money?

(A) Money which has only face value
(B) Money which has only intrinsic value
(C) Money which has intrinsic value equal to face value
(D) Money which has intrinsic value less than face value

52. In India, M3 consists of

(A) M1 + savings deposits with post office savings banks
(B) M1 + net time deposits of banks
(C) M1 + deposits with post office savings organizations
(D) M1 + currency held by the public

53. What is minimum reserve system of note issue?

A) The government can issue any amount of notes keeping a minimum of
reserves of gold and foreign exchange
(B) Any bank can issue any amount of notes keeping a minimum of reserves of
gold and foreign exchange
(C) Ministry of finance can issue any amount of notes keeping a minimum of
reserves of gold and foreign exchange
(D) The central bank can issue any amount of notes keeping a minimum of
reserves of gold and foreign exchange

54. The most liquid form of an asset is

(A) Money (B) Gold
(C) Savings deposits (D) ATM card

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55. Main form of tax in developing countries is

(A) Direct tax (B) Indirect tax
(C) Escheats (D) Special supplementary levies

56. Among the following, which is a capital receipt item?

A) Tax on land
(B) Corporate tax
(C) Borrowings
(D) None of the above

57. What is a capital expenditure in a budget?

(A) Expenditure for generating money
(B) Expenditure for promoting development
(C) Expenditure on an asset
(D) Expenditure for creating an asset

58. From the following data, calculate total capital receipts (Rs.)

Tax revenue Rs.172965
Borrowing and other liabilities Rs.135324
Other receipts Rs.135524
Non tax revenue Rs.72140
Recovery of loans Rs.17680

(A) Rs.288528 (B) Rs.135524
(C) Rs.17680 (D) Rs.245105

59. Proceeds from disinvestment are added to

(A) Revenue receipts (B) Capital receipts
(C) Profit (D) Suspense account

60. The budget presented in abnormal situations is called

(A) Vote on account (B) Supplementary budget
(C) Adhoc budget (D) Supporting budget

61. “The beggar the neighbour” refers to the use of tariff for

(A) Improving balance of trade (B) Eradication of unemployment
(C) Earning foreign exchange (D) Importing modern technology

62. The appropriate policy to correct a deficit in the balance of payment is

(A) Monetary policy (B) Fiscal Policy
(C) Devaluation (D) Revaluation

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63. Which one of the following is the primary source of energy in India?

(A) Coal (B) Petroleum
(C) Hydro electricity (D) Biogas plants

64. The Finance Commission is constituted for every

(A) 5 years (B) 3 years
(C) 4 years (D) 6 years

65. Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

(A) President (B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister (D) Home Minister

66. One factor which distinguishes internal trade from international trade is

(A) Income generation (B) Market heterogeneity
(C) Making profit (D) Role of intermediaries

67. One form of trade restriction is

(A) Imposition of sales tax (B) Quota restrictions
(C) Restrictions on profit making (D) Use of resources

68. What is exchange rate?

(A) The rate at which the currency of one country is converted into another
currency
(B) The rate at which the currency of one country is converted into another
country’s currency
(C) The rate at which rupee is converted into dollar terms
(D) The rate at which the currency of one country is equated to Euro currency

69. What is balance of payments?

(A) Record of all physical transactions of a country with US
(B) Record of all monetary transactions of a country with the rest of the world
(C) Record of all physical transactions of a country with the rest of the world
(D) Record of all monetary transactions of a country with US

70. Among the following, which is an invisible item in international trade?

(A) Earnings from coir exports
(B) Earnings from wheat exports
(C) Earnings from software exports
(D) Earnings from textile exports

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71. The larger the proportion of capital formation in a country, means the rate of growth
will be

(A) Higher (B) Lower
(C) Constant (D) None of the above

72. Who among the following held views on economic development similar to
H.Libenstein?

(A) A.O. Hirschman (B) W.A. Lewis
(C) R.R. Nelson (D) Adam Smith

73. The hypothesis that the degree of inequality of income increases at the initial stages
and declines at the later stages in the development history of nations has been
advanced by

(A) J.R. Hicks (B) T.W. Schultz
(C) R.F. Harrod (D) Simon Kuznets

74. The basic principle emphasized by Harrod and Domar and incorporated in all modern
growth theories is the

(A) Capacity effect of net investment (B) Capacity for capital formation
(C) Capacity for asset creation (D) Capacity for reducing employment

75. ICOR is defined as the ratio of the increment in

(A) Capital and output (B) Output and capital
(C) Income and consumption (D) Saving and consumption

76. If = , what is the value of x?

(A) 10 (B) 25
(C) 20 (D) 15

77. If x+5y = 13, x‒y = 7, what are the values of x and y?

(A) (3,5) (B) (2,4)
(C) (1,8) (D) (8,1)

78. If the length is 5 cm and the breadth is 3 cm, the perimeter of the rectangle is

(A) 10 cm (B) 16 cm
(C) 15 cm (D) 8 cm

79. If the length of the sides of right-angled triangle are 16 m and 12 m, what is the length
of the hypotenuse?

(A) 20 m (B) 10 m
(C) 9 m (D) 12 m

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80. If the diameter of a circle is 14 cm, what is the area of the circle?

(A) 100 sq.cm (B) 133 sq.cm
(C) 154 sq.cm (D) 122 sq.cm

81. If the area of a square is 144 sq.cm, what is its length?

(A) 10 cm (B) 12 cm
(C) 13 cm (D) 22 cm

82. Given × 5 × 5 , the solution is

(A) 5 (B) 5
(C) 5 (D) 5

83. Given the equation m2 – 5m + 6 = 0, the solutions are

(A) (1,5) (B) (2,4)
(C) (3,8) (D) (3,2)

84. If p=a‒bq represents demand equation, what is marginal revenue?

(A) –bq (B) –b2q
(C) a‒2bq (D) a+bq

0 0
85. The matrix 0 0 is called
0 0

(A) unit matrix (B) zero matrix
(C) scalar matrix (D) diagonal matrix

86. If A = {1,2,5,9} and B = {1,3,5,7,9}, what is A∩B?

(A) {1,5,9} (B) {1,2,7,9}
(C) {1,3,5,9} (D) {2,7,9}

87. If y = 2x8 +5, is equal to

(A) 16x8 (B) 16x9
(C) 16x7 (D) 16

88. If y = log (1-x2), is equal to

(A) 1/1‒x2 (B) –x2
(C) ‒2x/1‒x2 (D) 2x/1‒x2

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89. Which is true for a unit set?

(A) There will be only positive values
(B) There will be only negative values
(C) There will be at least one zero
(D) There will be only one element

90. If A = (1, 2, 3, 4) and B = (6, 7, 8), then, A  B is

(A) (0) (B) (1, 2,3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8)
(C) (1, 2,3, 4, 6, 7, 8) (D) (5)

91. If a + b = b + c, then a = c, this follows from the axiom of

(A) Inverse (B) Additive inverse
(C) Reverse (D) Additive reverse

92. Two complex numbers are equal only if

(A) the respective elements are equal
(B) they move in arithmetic progression
(C) they move in geometric progression
(D) one number is the square of the other

93. One of the methods of solving simultaneous equations is

(A) Maximum Likelihood (B) Rao Cramer rule
(C) Simon Hawkins rule (D) Peter’s rule

94. A ratio is

(A) Unit based quantity
(B) Unit less quantity
(C) Can be expressed only in tones
(D) Can be expressed only in rupees

95. Find three numbers of GP, whose sum is 14 and whose product is 64.

(A) 1,3,5 (B) 2,4,8
(C) 3,4,6 (D) 0,1,2

96. Trigonometry is associated to

(A) Circles (B) Cubes
(C) Triangles (D) Graphs

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97. A parabola is

(A) a curve traced out by a point which moves in such a manner that its distance
from a fixed point is always equal to its distance from a fixed straight line
(B) a curve traced out by a point which moves in such a manner that its distance
from a point is always equal to its distance from a fixed straight line
(C) a curve traced out by a point which moves in such a manner that its distance
from a distant point is always equal to its distance from a fixed straight line
(D) a curve traced out by a point which moves in such a manner that its distance
from a fixed point is always equal to its distance from any straight line

98. Matrix A = Matrix B if

(A) they have the same order
(B) each element of A is equal to the corresponding element of B
(C) (A) and (B) holds
(D) matrix B is square of Matrix A

99. If a and b are two positive integers, the Harmonic mean is given by

+
(A) (B) .
2
2
(C) + (D) 1 1
+

100. State the name of the average which splits the observation into two halves

(A) Mean (B) Median
(C) Mode (D) Harmonic mean

101. The geometric mean of two numbers 8 and 18 shall be

(A) 12 (B) 16
(C) 14 (D) 13

102. Given ∑x = 250, N = 10, σ = 8, what is the coefficient of variation?

(A) 25 (B) 35
(C) 32 (D) 15

103. Given Mean 50, Median 48, what is mode?

(A) 40 (B) 44
(C) 47 (D) 45

104. If the first quartile (Q1) is 15 and the third quartile (Q3) is 40, the coefficient of
quartile deviation is

(A) 0.22 (B) 0.25

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(C) 0.45 (D) 0.50

105. Given r = 0.6 and bxy= 0.8 and σx=4, then σy is equal to

(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 8

106. A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random one after the
another without replacement. What is the probability that both balls are black?

(A) 3/8 (B) 2/7
(C) 3/56 (D) 3/28

107. In the case of binomial distribution, the standard deviation is given by

(A) np (B)
(C) (D) npq

108. Which of the following can be represented by a Pie chart?

(A) The sales of a company for 10 years
(B) The blood pressure and temperature readings of a patient for a week
(C) The religion wise composition of a group of population
(D) The per capita income of different states in India

109. In the case of a symmetrical distribution,

(A) Mean always equals median
(B) Mean is always greater than median
(C) Mean is sometimes equal to mean
(D) Mean is half of median

110. Lorenz ratio is associated to

(A) Standard deviation (B) Mean deviation
(C) Correlation (D) Regression

111. If the two regression lines are perpendicular in each other, then correlation will be

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) – 1 (D) 2

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112. Which of the following is not correct?

(A) The coefficient of correlation lies between ‒1 and 1
(B) Correlation is a pure number without limits
(C) Interchanges of all x and y values will change the sign of correlation
coefficient
(D) The values of correlation does not change if all the values of either variable
are counted to a different scale

113. Weighted aggregate index formulae using base year quantities as base is called

(A) Lasperyre’s price index (B) Passche’s price index
(C) Bowley’s price index (D) Fishcer’s price index

114. Which of the following averages is considered, theoretically, the best average for the
construction of index numbers?

(A) Arithmetic mean (B) Geometric mean
(C) Harmonic mean (D) Median

115. Conventionally the components of time series are

(A) Trend, seasonal variations, cyclical variations and irregular variations
(B) Weekly variations, seasonal variations, cyclical variations and technological
variations
(C) Daily variations, cyclical variations, long term trends and irregular variations
(D) Trend, three monthly variations, cyclical variations and irregular variations

116. The regression relation between the variables x and y is given by Y = 4 + 5X, and it
explains 64 % of the changes in the variable Y. The adjusted coefficient of
determination will be

(A) Exactly equal to 0.64 (B) More than 0.64
(C) Less than 0.64 (D) Half of 0.64

117. The example of tossing a coin follows

(A) Binomial distribution (B) Normal distribution
(C) Poisson distribution (D) Miller distribution

118. If the variance of x and y are 2.56 and 6.25 respectively, and the covariance between
them is 3.20, then, the coefficient of correlation between x and y is

(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.68 (D) 0.80

119. If null hypothesis is µ = 0, then the alternative hypothesis is

(A) µ greater than 0 (B) µ lower than 0
(C) µ greater or lower than 0 (D) µ is a constant

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120. In order to study consumption behavior, among the following, the best sampling
method is

(A) Quota sample (B) Random sample
(C) Stratified sample (D) Cluster sample

121. In India, the first demonetization happened in the year

(A) 1977 (B) 1994
(C) 2014 (D) 1946

122. Next parliament elections in India is likely to come in

(A) 2018 (B) 2019
(C) 2020 (D) 2021

123. One uniqueness of central budget 2017 was

(A) It was presented by the finance minister
(B) Agriculture was given thrust
(C) Railway budget was combined with central budget
(D) There are some changes in income tax rates

124. GST will come/came into force on

(A) January 1, 2017 (B) April 1, 2017
(C) September 8, 2017 (D) February 1, 2017

125. Two major states involved in Cauvery water dispute is

(A) Tamil Nadu and Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(C) Kerala and Karnataka (D) Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry

126. In India, the current age limit of a Juvenile is

(A) 14 (B) 16
(C) 18 (D) 21

127. Who was Saeed Jaffrey?

(A) An actor (B) A painter
(C) A player (D) A politician

128. Four new elements added to Periodic table (chemistry) are

(A) 113, 115, 117, and 118 (B) 113, 114, 115, and 116
(C) 113, 114, 116, and 118 (D) 112, 115, 117, and 118

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129. Who classified stars according to their brightness?

(A) Hipparchus (B) Hippocrates
(C) Hippo (D) Hippoar

130. Zika virus was first identified in

(A) 1991 (B) 1984
(C) 1947 (D) 1948

131. Least corrupt country in the world (2015)

(A) Finland (B) Sweden
(C) Norway (D) Denmark

132. Capital of Peru

(A) Lima (B) Larose
(C) Laski (D) Laue

133. Currency of Israel

(A) Euro (B) Dollar
(C) Shekel (D) Leu

134. Expansion of CAIIB

(A) Certified Associate of Indian Institute of Business
(B) Chartered Associate of Indian Institute of Banking
(C) Certified Associate of Indian Institute of Banking
(D) Chartered Associate of Indian Institute of Business

135. Author of the book “Argumentative Man”

(A) Manmohan Singh (B) Amartya Sen
(C) I G Patel (D) Prakash Karrat

136. How many princely states were formed into Kerala state in 1956?

(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6
137. Which of the following enjoys special status, according to Article 370 of Indian
constitution?

(A) U.P. (B) Bihar
(C) Jammu-Kashmir (D) Tamil Nadu

138. The scientist who received Bharat Ratna award in 2013 is

(A) Dr. C.N. R.Rao (B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(C) Dr. Abdul Kalam (D) Dr.Kastoori Rengan

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139. Where is International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) located?

(A) New York (B) Tokyo
(C) Manila (D) Columbo

140. Who is the Defence Minister of India?

(A) Manohar Parrikar (B) A.K. Antony
(C) Kabil Sibal (D) None of the above

141. The Nobel Peace prize winner Miss Malala Yousaf Zai belongs to

(A) India (B) Afghanistan
(C) Pakistan (D) Sri Lanka

142. According to 2011 census, which of the Union territory has the highest sex – ratio?

(A) Delhi (B) Chandigarh
(C) Pondicherry (D) Andaman and Nicobar

143. The biggest country in the world in terms of its geographical area is

(A) China (B) Russia
(C) U.S.A (D) Canada

144. The scientist who was very much associated with the development of Atom bomb in
India is

(A) Dr. Abdul Kalam (B) Dr. Raja Ramanna
(C) Dr. Kastoori Rengan (D) Dr. Radha Krishnan

145. Largest development block in Kerala state

(A) Agali block (B) Alagappa block
(C) Irinjalakuda block (D) Chittur block

146. How many bronze medals were received by India in the Brazil Olympics?

(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 0 (D) 3

147. Venue of next Olympics (2020)

(A) Tokyo (B) Doha
(C) Bahrain (D) Rome

148. Nehru cup is associated to

(A) Cricket (B) Football
(C) Hockey (D) Badminton

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149. What is Swift key?

(A) Predicts the most likely next word when we type
(B) Automatically places the next word when we type
(C) Predicts the errors when we type
(D) Identify the errors when we type

150. “Earth Day” is observed on

(A) March 21 (B) April 22
(C) May 23 (D) June 24

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