CUSAT CAT 2017 Question Paper LLM

LL.M
(Final)

Part I

Direction (Qn. Nos. 1 – 6) : Choose the appropriate word or word phrase to complete
the sentences.

1. Supposedly, digital voice discs, or DVDs as they are called, are ……… resistant to
scratching ……… records.

(A) much / than (B) so / as
(C) such / that (D) far more / than

2. Last summer we went on ……… cruise in the Caribbean. Among ……… Islands we
visited were Bermuda and the Bahamas.

(A) - / the (B) a / the
(C) the / an (D) the /-

3. ……… of what he said was very sensible.

(A) Many (B) Much
(C) A few (D) Few

4. I don't know why she didn't ask me how to do it as I ……… her.

(A) must have helped (B) could have helped
(C) might help (D) should have helped

5. I don't know why Peter is so late; do you think he ……… lost coming here?

(A) may get (B) could get
(C) must have got (D) might have got

6. Tokyo is the most crowded city ……… the world.

(A) on (B) at
(C) in (D) over

Direction (Qn. Nos. 7 – 10) : Choose the appropriate meaning of the given word
from the choices given below it.

7. Chattel

(A) Barrister’s Wig (B) Movable Personal Possession
(C) Obligation (D) Piece of land

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8. Thesaurus

(A) Flush eating Dinosaur (B) Book of Synonyms
(C) Argument (D) Road map

9. Perjure

(A) To confess (B) To deny
(C) To hide (D) To Lie

10. Recidivist

(A) Defendant (B) Hermit
(C) Long term prisoner (D) Frequent law breaker

Direction (Qn. Nos. 11 – 16) : Select the best option from the four alternatives given.

11. The more electricity you use,…………

(A) your bill will be higher (B) will be higher your bill
(C) the higher your bill will be (D) higher your bill will be

12. It's two years……………Stephanie

(A) that I don't see (B) that I haven't seen
(C) since I didn't see (D) since I last saw

13. What was the problem ? Why ……………….. leave early?

(A) have you to (B) did you have to
(C) must you (D) you had to

14. Nobody believed Varun at first, but he ………… to be right.

(A) worked out (B) came out
(C) found out (D) turned out

15. The accident was my fault, so I had to pay for the damage ……..... the other car.

(A) of (B) for
(C) to (D) on

16. I really object ……... people smoking in my house.

(A) to (B) about
(C) for (D) on

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Direction (Qn. Nos. 17 – 19) : Given below are four list of words followed by some
choices. In each case, choose the alternative that you can combine with every word in
that particular list to form a familiar word phrase

17. Forward, across, around, upon

(A) straight (B) come
(C) fast (D) mark

18. In, down, for, out

(A) pray (B) try
(C) grow (D) stand

19. Away, through, up, down

(A) stray (B) come
(C) break (D) speak

20. Match the words in Column A with the words in Column B and choose the right
option

Column A Column B
(a) Bonnet 1. jelly
(b) Dustbin 2. pitcher
(c) Jam 3. trash can
(d) Jug 4. hood

(A) (a) – 2, (b) – 3, (c) – 4, (d) – 1 (B) (a) – 4, (b) – 3, (c) – 1, (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 3, (b) – 4, (c) – 2, (d) – 1 (D) (a) – 2, (b) – 3, (c) – 1, (d) – 4

Direction (Qn. Nos. 21 – 23) : Choose the appropriate meaning of the given
idioms/phrases from the choices given below it.

21. To cool one's heels

(A) To close the chapter (B) To walk on the heels
(C) To kick someone with the heels (D) To wait and rest for some time

22. Gift of the gab

(A) Gift for hard work
(B) Gift undeserved
(C) Gift of being a good conversationalist
(D) Gift from unknown person

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23. To smell a rat

(A) To suspect a trick (B) To detect a foul smell
(C) To behave like a rat (D) To trust blindly

24. Match the following one-word substitutes with their meanings:

1. Spendthrift a. One who possesses many talents
2. Versatile b. One who devotes in serious for love of mankind
3. Teetotaler c. One who spends too much
4. Philanthropist d. One who abstains from alcohol
e. One who fears everything
f. One who is addicted to tea

(A) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – f, 4 – b (B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b
(C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – f, 4 – d (D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – e

25. Find the wrongly spelt word

(A) elegance (B) pristine
(C) fasinating (D) valuables

26. The CEO of Microsoft Corporation is

(A) Bill Gates (B) Satya Nadella
(C) Steve Ballmer (D) None of the above

27. Why is Ozone Layer important?

(A) It absorbs greenhouse gases
(B) It protects Earth from ultraviolet radiation
(C) It maintains Earth's temperature
(D) It is a buffer against extra-terrestrial hazards

28. Inflation denotes which of the following situations

(A) price level rises - money value falls
(B) price level rises - money value rises
(C) price level falls - money value falls
(D) price level falls - money value rises

29. Universities in the Presidency towns of British India were established in

(A) 1835 (B) 1854
(C) 1856 (D) 1857

30. The Sepoy Revolt of 1857 was described as the first Indian war of Independence by

(A) M.N. Sen (B) R.C. Mazumdar
(C) Bipin Chandra (D) V.D. Savarkar

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31. The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed as

(A) New Moore (B) Nicobar
(C) Andaman (D) Lakshadweep

32. The office of the UN General Assembly is in

(A) Geneva (B) Montreal
(C) New York (D) Washington D.C.

33. The internal emergency during the tenure of Indira Gandhi as prime minister on the
grounds of internal disturbance lasted between

(A) 1971-1973 (B) 1973-1975
(C) 1975-1977 (D) 1977-1979

34. The Commission set up to look into the Telegana issue was headed by

(A) Justice Venkatachalliah (B) Justice Sri Krishna
(C) Justice Hegde (D) None of the above

35. The name of the Union given in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution is

(A) Bharatavarsha or India (B) Hindustan or Bharatavarsha
(C) India or Hindustan (D) India or Bharat

36. Which of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations Organisations?

(A) UNGA (B) UNSC
(C) ICJ (D) ILO

37. Which of these derives its name from a river in the Democratic republic of Congo?

(A) Chikungunia virus (B) Lassa fever
(C) Ebola virus (D) Salmonella bacteria

38. Production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas which is proposed to be banned in
India, is used in which of the following domestic products?

(A) Television (B) Refrigerator
(C) Tube light (D) Cooking gas

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39. Which among the following organizations were founded by Pandit Madan Mohan
Malviya?
1. Banaras Hindu University
2. Pragya Hindu Samaj
3. Hindu Mahasabha
4. Bharat Dharma Mahamandal
Chose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 4
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. Match the following:

a. Manipur (i) Pema Khandu
b. Meghalaya (ii) Shurhozelie Liezietsu
c. Mizoram (iii) Lal Thanhawla
d. Nagaland (iv) Mukul Sangma
e. Arunachal Pradesh (v) N. Biren Singh

(A) a – (i) b – (v) c – (iv) d – (iii) e – (ii)
(B) a – (ii) b – (iii) c – (i) d – (v) e – (iv)
(C) a – (iii) b – (iv) c – (v) d – (i) e – (ii)
(D) a – (v) b – (iv) c – (iii) d – (ii) e – (i)

41. Name the recipients of the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 2016, “for
their contribution to contract theory”.

(A) Oliver Hart and Bengt Holmstrom
(B) Angus Deaton and Jean Tirole
(C) Ragnar Frisch and Jan Tirole
(D) Amartya Sen and Elinor Ostrom

42. FIFA World Cup 2022 will be held in

(A) South Africa (B) Brazil
(C) Russia (D) Qatar

43. Which of the following book was awarded the 2016 Man Booker Prize?

(A) The Sellout
(B) A Brief History of Seven Killings
(C) The Narrow Road to the Deep North
(D) The Luminaries

44. Which of the following organization releases Global Gender Gap Index?

(A) United Nations Development Programme
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Economic Forum
(D) Institute for Economic and Peace

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45. Who is B.P. Kanungo?

(A) The new President of CII
(B) The new Chairman of NASSCOM
(C) The new MD and CEO of TCS
(D) The new Deputy Governor of RBI

46. Which of the following is NOT a member country of Organisation of the Petroleum
Exporting Countries (OPEC)?

(A) Algeria (B) Nigeria
(C) Libya (D) South Africa

47. Which of the following set of books was written by Arundhati Roy?

(A) The Satanic Verses, Midnight’s Children, Shalimar the Clown, The Golden
House.
(B) The God of Small Things, Power Politics, The Algebra of Infinite Justice,
Broken Republic.
(C) Five Point Someone, The 3 Mistakes of My Life, One Night @ the Call
Center, One Indian Girl.
(D) The Circle of Reason, The Shadow Lines, The Calcutta Chromosome, Sea.

48. NAPA stands for

(A) National Police Patrolling Academy
(B) National Petroleum Pricing Authority
(C) National Pharmaceutical pricing Authority
(D) National Peoples Performing Academy

49. International Day for Mother Tongue celebrated every year on

(A) 15th April (B) 21st February
(C) 20th February (D) 21st June

50. National Science Day is celebrated every year on

(A) 28th February (B) 28th January
(C) 22nd March (D) 14th April

51. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a
distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it
takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is the original speed of the train in
km/hr?

(A) 24 (B) 33
(C) 42 (D) 66

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52. Sum of squares of three positive numbers is 608 and they are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then
find the numbers

(A) 6, 9, 15 (B) 8, 12, 20
(C) 10, 15, 25 (D) 14, 21, 35

53. Read the following statements:

1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is the older than B
2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C
3. B is older than C

Which one of the conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(A) A is older than C (B) D is older than C
(C) A is older than B (D) B and D are of the same age

54. Find the number in the place of question mark.
21, 25, 34, 50, ?, 111, 160

(A) 86 (B) 72
(C) 75 (D) 59

55. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can
do the same work in 2 days, then what is the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys to
complete the same type of work?

(A) 4 days (B) 5 days
(C) 6 days (D) 7 days

56. If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, how is GATE coded?

(A) 2547 (B) 5724
(C) 5427 (D) 5247

57. If in a certain code, LUTE is written as MUTE and FATE is written as GATE, then
how will BLUE be written in that code?

(A) SLUE (B) GLUE
(C) CLUE (D) FLUE

58. If MAGIC is coded as PXJFF, then how will LEASH be coded?

(A) OHEOK (B) OBDVL
(C) PBDVD (D) OBDPK

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59. In a certain code language ‘579’ means—’Kanchan is soft-spoken’, ‘694’ means—
‘Soft-spoken beautiful pure’, ‘473’ means—‘Ganga is pure’, then what is the code
used for ‘Kanchan’ ?

(A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 9 (D) 4

Direction (Qn. Nos. 60 – 63) : Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given bellow.
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing towards North. C is sitting
between A and E. E is not at the end. B is sitting immediate right of E. F is not at the
right end. D is sitting second to the left.

60. How many persons are there to the right of D?

(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four

61. Which of the following pairs is sitting to the left of D?

(A) F (B) C
(C) E (D) A

62. Who is immediate left of C?

(A) A (B) E
(C) D (D) F

63. Who is at the right end?

(A) A (B) C
(C) E (D) B

64. Amit walks 2km northward and takes a left turn, walks 5 km and then turns right,
walks 3km and again turing right, walks 5 km. In which direction is he now from the
starting point?

(A) East (B) North
(C) West (D) South

65. A girl was going towards west, then she turned left, then turned 900 in clockwise
direction. In which direction was she going now?

(A) East (B) North
(C) West (D) South

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66. Rati goes 10 km west, then turns left and goes 16 km. Then, she turns right and goes
10 km and then she turns right and goes 16 km. At what distance is she from the
starting point now?

(A) 16 km (B) 12 km
(C) 14 km (D) 20 km

67. Pointing to a man, on the stage Rita said, “He is the brother of daughter of the wife of
my husband”. How is the man on the stage related to Rita?

(A) Son (B) Husband
(C) Cousin (D) Nephew

Direction (Qn. Nos. 68 and 69) : Read each definition and all four choices carefully.
Find the answer that provides the best example of the given definition.

68. Posthumous Publication occurs when a book is published after the author's death.
Which situation below is the best example of Posthumous Publication?

(A) Richard's illness took his life before he was able to enjoy the amazing early
reviews of his novel.
(B) Melissa's publisher cancels her book contract after she fails to deliver the
manuscript on time.
(C) Clarence never thought he'd live to see the third book in his trilogy
published.
(D) Elizabeth is honored with a prestigious literary award for her writing career
and her daughter accepts the award on behalf of her deceased mother.

69. Erratic Behaviour occurs when an individual acts in a manner that lacks consistency,
regularity, and uniformity. Which situation below is the best example of Erratic
Behaviour?

(A) Julia cannot contain her anger whenever the subject of local politics is
discussed.
(B) Martin has just been told that he is being laid off. Before leaving his
supervisor's office, he punches a hole in the door.
(C) Rhonda has visited the dealership several times, but she still cannot decide
which car to buy.
(D) In the past month, Jeffrey, who has been a model employee for three years,
has repeatedly called in sick, forgotten important meetings, and been
verbally abusive to colleagues.

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70. A Tiebreaker is an additional contest or period of play designed to establish a winner
among tied contestants. Which situation below is the best example of a Tiebreaker?

(A) At halftime, the score is tied at 28.
(B) Mary and Megan have each scored three goals in the game.
(C) The referee tosses a coin to decide which team will have possession of the
ball first.
(D) The Sharks and the Bears each finished with 14 points, and they are now
battling it out in a five-minute overtime.

Direction (Qn. Nos. 71 – 74) :
A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a sentence
that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same
sentence to find out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with
the third word.

71. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to

(A) speed (B) hiking
(C) needle (D) direction

72. Elated is to despondent as enlightened is to

(A) aware (B) ignorant
(C) miserable (D) tolerant

73. Reptile is to lizard as flower is to

(A) petal (B) stem
(C) daisy (D) alligator

74. Play is to actor as concert is to

(A) symphony (B) musician
(C) piano (D) percussion

Direction (Qn. Nos. 75 – 79): Find out the missing number from the choices given.

75. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, ….

(A) 43 (B) 47
(C) 51 (D) 53

76. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 25, ….

(A) 26 (B) 27
(C) 28 (D) 29

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77. 66, 39, 18, ….

(A) 9 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 8

78. 9, 12, 11, 14, 13, ….

(A) 12 (B) 16
(C) 10 (D) 17

79. 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, ….

(A) 64 (B) 48
(C) 125 (D) 256

Direction (Qn. Nos. 80 and 81): In each question below are given two statements
followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the two
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly
known facts. Study all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts.

80. Statements: All flowers are fruits
Some fruits are roots
Conclusions I. Some roots are fruits
II. Some fruits are flowers
III. Some fruits are not roots
IV. Some roots are not fruits

(A) Only I and II follows (B) Only I, III and IV follows
(C) Only III and IV follows (D) All follow

81. Statements: Some trees are flowers
Some plants are flowers
Conclusions I. Some flowers are trees as well as trees
II. All flowers are trees
III. All flowers are plants
IV. No flower is tree as well as plant

(A) Only I and II follow (B) Either I or IV follows
(C) All follow (D) Either II or III follows

82. Write the following words in a meaningful sequence:

(a) Treatment (b) Doctor (c) Diagnosis (d) Patient (e) Recovery

(A) a, b, c, d, e (B) b, c, a, d, e
(C) d, b, a, e, c (D) d, b, c, a, e

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83. If the following numbers are arranged in descending order, then which one will be the
second number?
532, 516, 548, 752, - 532, 875, 479

(A) 532 (B) 752
(C) 875 (D) 548

4
84. In history Yogesh’s marks are of Sameer’s marks. Vijay’s marks are more than
5
Yogesh’s marks but not more than Sameer’s marks. Ashutosh’s marks are more than
Sameer’s marks but less than Sunil’s marks. Whose marks are the highest?

(A) Vijay (B) Ashotosh
(C) Sameer (D) Sunil

85. Consider the following words
1. Rainbow 2. Rain 3. Sun 4. Happy 5. Child
Which one of the following is the reasonable arrangement of the above words?

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (B) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
(C) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 (D) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3

86. A is less than B, C is more than D but less than E. A and E are equal. Which one of
them is the least?

(A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) Incomplete data

87. In a group of 55 students Sudha’s place in ascending order is 36. What will be her
place in descending order?

(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) Incomplete data

88. Six boxes are placed one upon the other. Civics is exactly below Mathematics,
Computer is between English and Economics. History is not on the top. Civics is
below all. Which book is second from the top?

(A) Computer (B) History
(C) Economics (D) Incomplete data

89. Consider the sequence given below:
1. Frog 2. Eagle 3. Grasshopper 4. Snake 5. Grass
The reasonable sequence of these words is

(A) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 (B) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 (D) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

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90. Consider the following words:
1. District 2. Village 3. State 4. Town
Which will be the proper order of the above with respect to area?

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 2, 4, 1, 3 (D) 3, 2, 1, 4

91. Which of the following number sequence represents a correct sequence from a past to
whole?
1. Caste 2. Family 3. Newly married Couple 4. Clan 5. Species

(A) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 (B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(C) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 (D) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

Direction (Qn. Nos. 92 – 96) : These questions are based on the following table. The
table shows the number of emergencies attended by 6 fire brigade substations during
May-October 2002.

Substation May June July August September October
A 12 15 17 21 13 17
B 18 21 15 18 18 19
C 10 11 19 21 23 18
D 17 17 19 12 18 10
E 12 15 18 10 21 11
F 14 15 12 13 18 19

92. Number of emergencies attended by the 6 substations was the same in the months of

(A) May and June (B) June and July
(C) August and September (D) June and October

93. Which of the following substations showed a great increase in the number of
emergencies attended in August as compared to July?

(A) A (B) E
(C) D (D) C

94. Which substation attended to the maximum number of complaints in the given
period?

(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) F

95. Which two months aggregated over 36% of the total number of emergencies in the
six-month period?

(A) May and June (B) July and October
(C) August and September (D) July and September

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96. Which substation attended to the minimum number of complaints in the given period?

(A) A (B) C
(C) E (D) F

Direction (Qn. Nos. 97 – 100) : Following four questions are on the basis of the
following table which gives data year-wise and discipline-wise for candidates selected
in an industry (in thousands).

Years
Discipline
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996
Science 16 20 25 15 14 16
Arts 4 8 9 10 11 13
Commerce 8 12 12 11 15 13
Law 7 9 5 3 6 8
Computer
Science 10 14 18 20 25 30
Others 1 1 2 1 1 1
Total 46 64 71 60 72 81

97. In which year for the first time, Computer Science discipline constituted more than
25% of the selected candidates?

(A) 1991 (B) 1992
(C) 1993 (D) 1994

98. Which discipline showed the greatest decline between 1992 and 1994 selections?

(A) Science (B) Computer Science
(C) Arts (D) Law

99. In which year the percentage of Science discipline candidates was the highest?

(A) 1991 (B) 1992
(C) 1993 (D) 1994

100. Which discipline has shown the greatest rate of increase in its selection from 1994 to
1996?

(A) Arts (B) Computer Science
(C) Law (D) Commerce

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Part II

101. The President of India can nominate

(A) a maximum of two members to the Lok Sabha from the Minority
Community
(B) a maximum of two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian
Community
(C) a maximum of two members to the Rajya Sabha from the Anglo Indian
Community
(D) a maximum of two members to the Rajya Sabha from the Minority
Community

102. Which one of the following does not come within the meaning of “Document” under
the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) A writing (B) A map
(C) A telephonic talk (D) A word photographed

103. A is tried for the murder of B by beating with a club with the intention of causing his
death. At A’s trial which one of the following is not fact in issue ?

(A) A’s beating B with the club
(B) A’s conversation with C
(C) A’s causing B’s death with the club
(D) A’s intention to cause B death

104. Which one of the following features does not support the federal character of Indian
Constitution?

(A) Distribution of powers between Centre and States
(B) Authority of Courts
(C) Supremacy of the Constitution
(D) Single citizenship

105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I List II
(a) Law declared by the Supreme Court to be binding on 1. Article 141
all courts
(b) Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court 2. Article 143
(c) Power of Supreme Court to review its own judgement 3. Article 137
(d) Appeal by Special Leave 4. Article 136

(A) (a) – 1, (b) – 2, (c) – 3, (d) – 4 (B) (a) – 2, (b) – 1, (c) – 3, (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 1, (b) – 3, (c) – 4, (d) – 2 (D) (a) – 2, (b) – 3, (c) – 1, (d) – 4

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106. Which of the following Articles providing for fundamental rights cannot be
suspended during the Proclamation of Emergency?

(A) Articles 14 and 15 (B) Articles 19 and 20
(C) Articles 20 and 21 (D) Articles 21 and 22

107. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any provision of the
Constitution except the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has restricted the absolute power of Parliament
to amend any provision of the Constitution.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

108. Doctrine of Separation of Powers was systematically formulated by

(A) Plato (B) Montesquieu
(C) Dicey (D) Aristotle

109. ‘Rule of Law’ means
(i) Supremacy of Judiciary
(ii) Supremacy of Law
(iii) Equality before Law
(iv) Supremacy of Parliament

(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)

110. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I List II
(a) Abuse of discretion 1. Rule of Law
(b) Equality before law 2. Lack of Power
(c) Delegated legislation 3. Check and Balance
(d) Separation of powers 4. Ultra-vires

(A) (a) – 2, (b) – 1, (c) – 4, (d) – 3 (B) (a) – 1, (b) – 2, (c) – 4, (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3, (b) – 3, (c) – 2, (d) – 1 (D) (a) – 4, (b) – 4, (c) – 1, (d) – 2

111. Writ of Mandamus may be issued to

(A) Compel the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities only to act.
(B) Compel the authority to act.
(C) Compel the authority, how to act.
(D) Compel a private person.

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112. Which one of the following statement is true?

(A) Delegated legislation cannot have retrospective effect.
(B) Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect, if authorized by Act or
Statute.
(C) Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect, if not authorized by
Act or Statute but have reasonable and rational justification.
(D) None of the above

113. Writ of Quo Warranto can be issued

(A) against any person.
(B) against public officer, who wish to assume the office.
(C) against public officer, who is holding public office.
(D) against public officer, who has ceased to hold the office.

114. Which of the following statement is not true?

(A) Possession is a nine point of law.
(B) Possession is an evidence of ownership.
(C) Possession is protected till someone else provided a better title in himself.
(D) Possession once lost cannot be regained.

115. Read the assertion and the reason that follow it and choose the best answer

Assertion (A): Ownership subject to condition subsequent is vested ownership
Reason (R): Possession and ownership do not differ in their mode of acquisition.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

116. The interest theory of legal right is propounded by

(A) Durkein (B) Dicey
(C) Paton (D) Ihering

117. The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been
actuated by a necessity rather than desirability. The justification is based on

(A) Public policy (B) Failure to supervise
(C) Treated as unauthorised (D) Strict liability

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118. In which of the offences the actual commission of offence is not punished but it’s
attempt is punished?

(A) When the execution of murder falls short.
(B) Causing miscarriage.
(C) Suicide.
(D) Exposure with intention to abandon the child

119. An offender claiming exemption of criminal liability under Section 84 of Indian Penal
Code must be incapable of knowing

(A) the nature of the act (B) the act was contrary to law
(C) the act was wrong (D) All of the above

120. Which of the following is popularly known as “Forest Conservation Case”?

(A) Environment Awareness Forum Vs. State of J & K, 1999 1
(B) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulk Pad Vs. Union of India, 1997 2
(C) M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India, 1992 1
(D) Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co. Ltd. Vs. State of Bihar, 2000

121. Taj Trapezium case is between

(A) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action Vs. Union of India, 1996 3 SCC 212
(B) Ramji Patel Vs. Nagarik Upbhokta Marg Darshak Manch, 2000 3 SCC 29
(C) Vineet Kumar Mathur Vs. Union of India, 1996 7 SCC 714
(D) M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India, 1997 2 SCC 353

122. The Central or State Board under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1974 is required to meet at least

(A) every one month (B) every two months
(C) every three months (D) every six months

123. The “precautionary principle” and the “polluter pays principle” are part of the
Environmental Law of our country.

(A) True (B) False
(C) Partly true and partly false (D) None of the above

124. Assertion (A): Custom is a rule of conduct, obligatory on part of those who are
within its sphere, established by long usage and practice.
Reason (R): Rules of conduct are obligatory in any established sphere.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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125. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer using the codes given below:

List I List II
(a) Positive International Morality 1. Treaty contract
(b) Source of International Law 2. Stepping into shoes of another
(c) Agreement of States 3. Judicial pronouncements
(d) Subrogation 4. John Austin

(A) (a) – 4, (b) – 2, (c) – 3, (d) – 1 (B) (a) – 4, (b) – 3, (c) – 2, (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 3, (b) – 4, (c) – 1, (d) – 2 (D) (a) – 4, (b) – 3, (c) – 1, (d) – 2

126. Doctrine of Locus Standi means

(A) Writ can be filed by any person
(B) Power of courts for judicial review
(C) Right of petitioner to file the petition in the court
(D) Discretion of administrative authority

127. Which one of the following is not condition with regard to the persons who may be
adopted, under Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?

(A) He or she must be a Hindu
(B) He or she must have not already been adopted
(C) He or she must consent to adoption
(D) He or she must have not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is
custom.

128. The right to contract a minor in marriage under Muslim Law, belongs, successively to
I. Father
II. Mother
III. Paternal grand father
IV. Brother

(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, III, IV, II
(C) III, IV, I, II (D) II, III, IV, I

129. “Single Act of adultery” is a ground for

(A) Judicial Separation
(B) Divorce
(C) Divorce and Judicial Separation both
(D) None of the above

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130. The movement for protection of human rights gained greater momentum
after

(A) American War of Independence
(B) Second World War
(C) French Revoluion
(D) The European Convention on Human Rights, 1950

131. Assertion (A): The political implication of the theory of natural rights is that
human rights, being inherent in man, existed prior to the birth of the
State itself and cannot, therefore, be violated by the State.
Reason (R): Human rights are senior to State.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

132. ‘No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest or detention.’ Under which Article of the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights, this right has been declared?

(A) Article 5 (B) Article 7
(C) Article 8 (D) Article 9

133. In which of the following cases the jurisprudential basis of the principle to award
compensation for violating Human-rights has been laid down by the Supreme Court?

(A) Visakha Vs. State of Rajasthan
(B) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(C) Ratlam Municipality Vs. Vardhichand
(D) Nilabhati Behra Vs. State of Orissa

134. “Tortious liability arises from breach of duty, primarily fixed by law; this duty is
towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated
damages” This definition is given by

(A) Winfield (B) Salmond
(C) Flemmings (D) Goodheart

135. The rule currently followed in India to determine remoteness of damages was laid
down in

(A) Re Polemis case
(B) Overseas Tankship (U.K.) Ltd. Vs. Morts Dock Engg. Co. Ltd.
(C) Liesbosch Dredger Vs. S.S. Edison
(D) Smith Vs. London and South Western Rly. Co.

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136. In an action for the tort of negligence, what is not required to be proved by the
plaintiff is that

(A) there is damage
(B) duty-situation arises
(C) breach of duty owed to some one
(D) breach of duty owed to the plaintiff

137. For an action of nuisance defendant can put up which of the following defences.
1. The place is suitable for the purpose.
2. It is for the benefit of the residents of colony.
3. It is done under statutory authority.
4. Plaintiff has consented to the act.
Select the right code

(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 3 and 4 are correct

138. Which one of the following is not a libel?

(A) A defamatory statement in print
(B) A cinematographic film
(C) Pictures
(D) Sounds or gestures

139. Match List-I with List-II. Use the codes below to select the correct answer.

List I List II
(a) Rylands V. Fletcher 1. Defamation
(b) Bourhill V. Young 2. Negligence
(c) Sturges V. Bridgman 3. Liability without fault
(d) Newstead V. London Express 4. Nuisance

(A) (a) – 2, (b) – 3, (c) – 4, (d) – 1 (B) (a) – 1, (b) – 2, (c) – 4, (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3, (b) – 4, (c) – 2, (d) – 1 (D) (a) – 3, (b) – 2, (c) – 4, (d) – 1

140. Which of the following statements is/are true? Select using the codes given below:

1. Words prima facie innocent may also turn out to be defamatory
2. The plaintiff must explain the hidden defamatory meaning assigned to
otherwise innocent looking statement
3. The plaintiff must show how these words relate to him
4. Words prima facie innocent cannot be defamatory

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct (D) Only 4 is correct

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141. Assertion (A): Every partner may attend diligently to his duties in the conduct of
business.
Reason (R): Every partner must be intelligent.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false

142. Registration of a firm is

(A) mandatory (B) not compulsory
(C) desirable (D) of no use

143. Directors are

(A) agents of a company
(B) fiduciaries of a company
(C) servants of a company under a contract of employment with the company
(D) All of the above

144. Role of doctrine of ultra vires is

(A) to fight virus of ultras
(B) to protect indoor managers of the company
(C) to confine corporate action within fixed limits
(D) to protect directors for exercising their implied authority

145. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List, provided it
is in the

(A) Public interest (B) National interest
(C) Both (A) and (B) above (D) None of the above

146. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I List II
(Theory) (Subject)

(a) Retributive Theory 1. Legal Right
(b) Sociological Theory 2. Source of Law
(c) Theory of Precedent 3. Punishment
(d) Theory of Property 4. Roscoe Pond

(A) (a) – 1, (b) – 4, (c) – 3, (d) – 2 (B) (a) – 3, (b) – 4, (c) – 2, (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 3, (b) – 2, (c) – 1, (d) – 4 (D) (a) – 4, (b) – 3, (c) – 1, (d) – 2

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147. Hypothesis of Grund norm was propounded by

(A) Austin (B) Diguit
(C) Hart (D) Kelson

148. Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) Animus is necessary for the acquisition or commencement of possession.
(B) Corpus is necessary for the acquisition or commencement of possession
(C) Animus and Corpus are not necessary from the acquisition or
commencement of possession.
(D) Animus and Corpus are necessary for the acquisition or commencement of
possession.

149. X invites his friend Y for dinner but later on declined to arrange it on the specified
day.

(A) X is liable for breach of contract.
(B) X is liable, if Y goes to the house of X and returns without dinner.
(C) X is liable for breach of contract, if Y gets dinner in hotel.
(D) X is not liable for breach of contract

150. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists.

List I List II
(a) Breach of contract 1. Impossible to perform
(b) Revocation of offer 2. Same thing in the same sense
(c) Consent 3. Compensation
(d) Frustration 4. Lapse of stipulated time

(A) (a) – 1, (b) – 3, (c) – 4, (d) – 2 (B) (a) – 2, (b) – 4, (c) – 1, (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3, (b) – 1, (c) – 2, (d) – 4 (D) (a) – 3, (b) – 4, (c) – 2, (d) – 1

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