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FOR CEED EXAM PREPARATION
CEED 2024
Question Paper
EXAM YEAR TYPE
CEED 2024 Question Paper
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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Common Entrance Examination for Design
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Question Paper
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INSTRUCTIONS
1. The total duration of the examination is 3 hours. The question paper contains two parts -
Part A and Part B. The duration of Part A is one hour. The duration of Part B is two hours.
Part B will start only after Part A ends. Part A cannot be attempted once Part B
commences.
2. Questions of Part A and Part B will appear on the computer. Answers to Part A have to
be entered in the computer. Answers to Part B need to be given in the answer booklet
provided by the invigilator.
3. Part A carries a total of 150 marks. It contains 3 sections. All questions are mandatory.
The following table summarises the marking scheme of Part A:
Marks Marks for Marks for
Total marks
Part A Type of Number of for each each each
for the
Section questions questions correct wrong question not
section
answer answer attempted
Numerical
Answer
I 8 4 0 0 32
Type
(NAT)
Multiple
Select Partial
II 10 -1 0 40
Question Marking
(MSQ)
Multiple
Choice
III 26 3 −0.5 0 78
Question
(MCQ)
4. For each NAT question, the answer is a number. The answer needs to be entered using
the virtual keyboard on the monitor. No choices will be shown for these questions. In
NATs, the correct answer will be awarded 4 marks. There is no negative or partial
marking for NATs.
5. Each MSQ has four choices of which one or more is/are the correct answer(s).
The following is the marking scheme:
Full Marks : + 4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen and
NONE of the incorrect options are chosen
Partial Marks : + 3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three
options are chosen
Partial Marks : + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two
options are chosen, both of which are correct and NONE of the incorrect
options are chosen
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Partial Marks : + 1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option
is chosen and it is a correct option and NONE of the incorrect options are
chosen
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is
unanswered)
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Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases
co choices of which only one is the correct answer. In MCQs, the
correct answer.will be awarded 3 marks and wrong answer will be awarded 0.5 marks.
6. Each MCQ has four
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la pads will be provided for rough work for Part A. These have to be returned to a g
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7. Scribble
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8. Part B carries a total of 100 marks. It contains 5 questions of 20 marks each. All
questions in Part B are mandatory. Each question must be answered on the page(s)
designated for that question in the answer booklet. Additional instructions to Part B
questions are provided in the answer booklet.
9. In Part B, colour pencils, crayons, sketch pens etc. may be used unless otherwise
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specified in the questions.
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10. Charts, graph sheets, tracing papers, tables, calculators, cellular phones and other
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electronic gadgets are not allowed in the examination hall.
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Part A – Section I: Numerical Answer Type Questions
Q.01 The two objects on the left have a height of 1 cm and sides of 4 cm. The yellow object
on the right has a total height of 5 cm. The cylindrical base of the yellow object has a
diameter of 6 cm and a height of 1 cm. The two objects on the left are to be stacked
on the yellow object on the right. After all the objects are stacked together, how many
outer surfaces will the resulting structure have?
Q.02 A “group of letters” has a few letters flipped on vertical axis. The mirror image of this
“group of letters” is shown below. What is the total number of flipped letters in the
group?
Q.03 How many unique shapes are there in the image below?
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Q.04 How many paper cups (of the dimensions shown below) can be made from one A4
paper?
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Q.05 Figure P is the image of a complete bicycle. If parts can be shared between two or more
bicycles and flipping of Figure P is allowed, how many complete bicycles are there in
the Figure Q?
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Q.06 What number will replace the question mark?
Q.07 Coloured cubes (red and yellow) of equal size are arranged and stacked to form the
cuboidal structure as shown in the image. If the ratio of the number of yellow cubes to
that of the red cubes is 1:3, how many yellow cubes are NOT visible in the image?
Q.08 Shown below is the view and cross-section of a seat belt used in aeroplanes. Part X has
four different components P, Q, R and S. How many springs are required to be fixed on
the part S to make the seat belt work?
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Part A – Section II: Multiple Select Questions
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Q.09 Shown below (on the left) is the top view
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options on the right side. Identify the correct option(s).
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Q.11 Sal tree seed moves in a particular manner, while free falling. Which toy(s) given
below has/have a similar movement?
Q.12 Which option(s) is/are NOT a part of the image on the left?
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Q.13 A professional animation studio has created a paper cut-out model with movable joints
as shown below. This is to be used for an animation feature film. Which material(s) will
the studio use for the joints?
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A. Nylon Wire
B. Mouldable Clay
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C. Eyelet Rivet
D. Chalk a g
Q.14 Which of the materials given in the options is/are used in the painting style shown
below?
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A. Brick
B. Vegetables
C. Minerals
D. Gold
Q.15 Four-wheeler vehicles are trying to take a circular path around the marked point in
the centre. Select the vehicle(s) with the correct wheel positions.
Q.16 9 coloured tiles are arranged in a 3x3 columns and rows as follows.
1. Red, Blue and Purple are in the corners.
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2. Brown, Pink and Yellow are arranged linearly.
3. Black touches Green and Blue.
4. Orange does not touch Brown and Pink.
5. Blue touches Pink.
6. Red touches Brown.
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Which of the statements is/are TRUE?
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A. Additive primary
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B. Red and Green
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C. Purple
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D. Pink
Q.17 Tile X was used to create a pattern which is seamless (without gaps and/or overlaps)
when arranged as shown in Y. In a similar manner, which tile(s) from the options will
create another seamless pattern?
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Q.18 Which of the option(s) is/are created by the stamp shown on the left?
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Part A – Section III: Multiple Choice Questions
Q.19 A tank is converted to treat organic waste water from kitchen as shown in the figure
below. Bio gas gets accumulated on top part of the tank. Which of the following
options is a suitable location for drilling an air hole to maintain the water level inside
the tank?
Q.20 Which option will replace the question mark?
Q.21 Parts of the letters have been hidden by vertical strips in the given options. Which
option contains a meaningful word with correct spelling?
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Q. 22a Which option will replace the question mark?
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Q.23 Given is the one side of a folded sheet of paper with green color on one side and red
color on the other side. Find the correct option when this sheet is unfolded. Dotted
lines represent the fold lines.
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Q.24 One square and 4 triangles given below are used to make shapes without
overlapping. Among the options, which is the shape that CANNOT be made?
Q.25 A glider toy as shown in the image below is usually made with Balsa wood. Due to the
unavailability of Balsa wood, a student is considering an alternative material.
Considering the density of the material that is required to make the fuselage, which
will be the most suitable option?
A. Rattan cane
B. Jute plant stem
C. Pine wood
D. Mango wood
Q.26 What is the internal mechanism for producing the wobbling head movement in the
toy shown below? Assume that the toy needs to be mass manufactured.
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Q.27 A sequence of a man sleep walking is shown below. Which frame is incorrect?
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Q.28 Shown below is an animation of a fish jumping.
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question contains an animated GIF image.]
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Q.29 Which among the following shapes has the largest area?
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Q.30 Which option will replace the question mark?
Q.31 Part X and part Y are to be assembled together to make a hanger in such a way that it
can be disassembled, if required. Which of the following is not an appropriate option
to join part X and part Y?
Q.32 Q is shot with higher focal length than P. Arrange 1, 2, 3, 4 in the ascending order of
the focal length they are shot with.
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B. 2, 1, 4, 3
C. 4, 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Q.33 Identify the most ideal condition for the boat to approach the station.
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Q.34 A perspective view of four frames spaced from near to far at equal intervals, is seen on
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the left. The frames perfectly align without any overlaps in this view. The options show
options is the farthest from the viewer in the perspective view? as
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the same frames arranged side by side on a single plane. Which of the frames in the
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Q.35 Which option will replace the question mark?
Q.36 Which option is correct for all the signs given below (from left to right)?
A. No Entry; Stop; Height limit; Keep left and straight; Prohibited road
B. Give a way; No entry; Height limit; No overtaking; No stopping
C. Give a way; No entry; Keep Distance; No overtaking; Prohibited road
D. No entry; Give a way; Width limit; Keep left and straight; No stopping
Q.37 Which option cannot be used to create the given image below? The options may be
rotated.
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Q.38 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below. Which is the correct option, when
the paper is unfolded?
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Q.39 Which option will replace the question mark?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8
D. 5
Q.40 What is the total area of the black image below?
A. 16 X
B. 4 X2
C. 2 X4
D. 8 X2
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Q.41 An animator is animating a bouncing ball along the dotted path as shown below. Which
option is FALSE?
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a A. In position P, the ball will stretch vertically.
B. In position R, the ball will remain the same.
C. In position Q, ball will stretch horizontally.
D. In position S, the ball will remain the same.
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Q.42 Which among the following options is the correct top view?
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Q.43 The annual profit chart of a company is given below. Which option is the correct
statement?
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A. The percentage increase between 1965 and 1970 is more than 75%
B. The percentage decrease between 1985 and 1990 is lesser than 27%
C. The percentage increase between 2005 and 2010 is more than 100%
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D. The percentage decrease between 2015 and 2020 is lesser than 10%
Q.44 The image on the left is rotated 90 degrees clockwise and then flipped along the
vertical axis. Which option represents the resulting image?
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Part B
All questions are mandatory
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Q.1 Sketching (20 marks = 4 x 5 marks)
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7-year-old Chinnu has collected all her old toys in a carton. The carton weighs around 2 kg.
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Additional Instructions:
Use only pencils
Do not use colours
Evaluation criteria:
Humour
Expressions
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Body Language
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Anticipation and exaggeration
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Q.2 Creativity (20 marks = 4 x 5 marks)
Imagine the human head as a cube. With this scenario, illustrate the following interactions inside the
given boxes (in the answer booklet) in this order:
1. Human-human
2. Human-animal
3. Human-environment
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4. Human-object
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Use only BLACK pencil/pen. Draw only within the boundaries of the boxes. Write the titles below the
boxes, in the space provided.
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ag Uniqueness: Ability to create unusual images
Diversity: Variation between each created image
Clarity: Effective use of visual elements and titles
Fun: Ability to use humor and surprise in the images and titles
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Q.3 Visual Sensitivity (20 marks = 4 x 5 marks)
Shown below are two letters A & B of an ornamental font. Using this font style create the word
‘Forest’ (the first letter in uppercase and the remaining in lowercase).
Evaluation criteria:
Consistency in visual characteristics
Font anatomy
Proportion
Rendering skills
Q.4 Form sensitivity (20 marks = 5 x 4 marks)
Inspired from the given three-dimensional form, conceptualise, sketch, and render a single seater
furniture for a living room.
Evaluation Criteria:
Consistency with the visual language of the form
Form should complement function
Relevant details of the product
Surface shading
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Quality of lines/strokes
Q.5 Problem identification (20 marks= 5 + 3 x 5 marks)
Shown below is the image of a rural kitchen. There are many challenges in using such setup
for cooking and related activities.
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Draw and annotate FIVE distinct design problems in this context.
Use only one visual for each problem.
Answer in the given space only.
Adhere to no more than 5 problems.
Evaluation Criteria:
Significance of the identified problems
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Ability to identify unique problems
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Ability to explain the problem through visuals
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