GATE 2025 Question Paper Agricultural Engineering (AG)

GATE
2025
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.

General Aptitude
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 Ravi had ______ younger brother who taught at ______ university. He was widely
regarded as ______ honorable man.

Select the option with the correct sequence of articles to fill in the blanks.

(A) a; a; an

(B) the; an; a

(C) a; an; a

(D) an; an; a

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Q.2 The CEO’s decision to downsize the workforce was considered myopic because it
sacrificed long-term stability to accommodate short-term gains.

Select the most appropriate option that can replace the word “myopic” without
changing the meaning of the sentence.

(A) visionary

(B) shortsighted

(C) progressive

(D) innovative

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Q.3 The average marks obtained by a class in an examination were calculated as 30.8.
However, while checking the marks entered, the teacher found that the marks of one
student were entered incorrectly as 24 instead of 42. After correcting the marks, the
average becomes 31.4. How many students does the class have?

(A) 25

(B) 28

(C) 30

(D) 32

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Q.4 Consider the relationships among P, Q, R, S, and T:

• P is the brother of Q.
• S is the daughter of Q.
• T is the sister of S.
• R is the mother of Q.

The following statements are made based on the relationships given above.

(1) R is the grandmother of S.

(2) P is the uncle of S and T.

(3) R has only one son.

(4) Q has only one daughter.

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) Both (1) and (2) are true.

(B) Both (1) and (3) are true.

(C) Only (3) is true.

(D) Only (4) is true.

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Q.5 According to the map shown in the figure, which one of the following statements is
correct?

Note: The figure shown is representative.

1st Main Road
Library Canteen

Physics Lab Hospital

5th Cross Road

Hostels Chemistry
Lab
N
Classrooms
W E

S

(A) The library is located to the northwest of the canteen.

(B) The hospital is located to the east of the chemistry lab.

(C) The chemistry lab is to the southeast of physics lab.

(D) The classrooms and canteen are next to each other.

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Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 “I put the brown paper in my pocket along with the chalks, and possibly other things.
I suppose every one must have reflected how primeval and how poetical are the
things that one carries in one’s pocket: the pocket-knife, for instance the type of all
human tools, the infant of the sword. Once I planned to write a book of poems
entirely about the things in my pocket. But I found it would be too long: and the age
of the great epics is past.”

(From G.K. Chesterton’s “A Piece of Chalk”)

Based only on the information provided in the above passage, which one of the
following statements is true?

(A) The author of the passage carries a mirror in his pocket to reflect upon things.

(B) The author of the passage had decided to write a poem on epics.

(C) The pocket-knife is described as the infant of the sword.

(D) Epics are described as too inconvenient to write.

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Q.7 In the diagram, the lines QR and ST are parallel to each other. The shortest distance
between these two lines is half the shortest distance between the point P and line
QR. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle PST to the area of the trapezium
SQRT?

Note: The figure shown is representative.

P

S T

Q R

(A) 1
3

(B) 1
4

(C) 2
5

(D) 1
2

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Q.8 A fair six-faced dice, with the faces labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, is rolled
thrice. What is the probability of rolling ‘6’ exactly once?

(A) 75
216

(B) 1
6

(C) 1
18

(D) 25
216

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Q.9 A square paper, shown in figure (I), is folded along the dotted lines as shown in the
figures (II) and (III). Then a few cuts are made as shown in figure (IV). Which one
of the following patterns will be obtained when the paper is unfolded?

Note: The figures shown are representative.

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.10 A shop has 4 distinct flavors of ice-cream. One can purchase any number of scoops
of any flavor. The order in which the scoops are purchased is inconsequential.
If one wants to purchase 3 scoops of ice-cream, in how many ways can one make
that purchase?

(A) 4

(B) 20

(C) 24

(D) 48

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Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

If a, b, and c are the roots of 2𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 − 1 = 0 and sum of the two roots is
Q.11 1, the value of 𝑝 is:

(A) 2

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 1
3

Q.12 𝑥 −3
If the matrix [ ] is singular, sum of the values of 𝑥 is:
2 𝑥−5

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 0

(D) −1

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Q.13 𝑠
is the Laplace transform of :
𝑠2 +𝑎2

(A) cos 𝑎𝑡

(B) sin 𝑎𝑡

(C) sinh 𝑎𝑡

(D) cosh 𝑎𝑡

Q.14 𝑦 ′′ + 𝑝(𝑥)𝑦 ′ + 𝑞(𝑥)𝑦 = 𝑟(𝑥) is a ________ ordinary differential equation.

(A) second order, nonhomogeneous, and linear

(B) second order, homogeneous, and linear

(C) second order, homogeneous, and nonlinear

(D) first order, nonhomogeneous, and linear

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Q. 15 The median of the following set of numbers: 154, 130, 144, 137, 156, 146, 138,
149, 160, 138 is:

(A) 145.0

(B) 145.2

(C) 151.0

(D) 146.0

Q.16 Which of the following method is used for the geophysical exploration of
groundwater:

(A) Electric Resistivity method

(B) Test Boring method

(C) Tracer method

(D) Remediation method

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Q.17 Identify the correct statement related to tape correction in chain surveying:

(A) Wrong alignment correction is always positive.

(B) Sag correction is always negative.

(C) Slope of tape correction is always positive.

(D) Temperature correction is always negative.

Q.18 The sphericity of a cylindrical potato sample having diameter of 1.0 cm and length
of 5.0 cm is closest to:

(A) 0.98

(B) 0.70

(C) 0.31

(D) 0.17

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Q.19 The condition of refrigerant at the exit of the compressor in a vapor compression
refrigeration system is:

(A) Saturated liquid

(B) Wet vapor

(C) Dry saturated vapor

(D) Superheated vapor

Q.20 While sowing mustard seeds (bulk density = 800 kg.m-3), a four-row fluted roller
type seed drill with 25 cm row spacing operates at a speed of 2.5 km.h-1. For a
desired seed rate of 5.0 kg.ha-1, the flowrate of seeds from the machine in m3.h-1 is:

(A) 0.391 × 10₋3

(B) 1.172 × 10₋3

(C) 1.563 × 10₋3

(D) 1.953 × 10₋3

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Q.21 By tripling the RMS sound pressure, the resulting increase in the sound pressure
level in dB is closest to:

(A) 9.54

(B) 6.02

(C) 4.77

(D) 3.01

Q.22 While studying vertical motion imparted to the base of tractor seat, θ (radian) is
considered as rotation about tractor’s CG and R is considered as longitudinal
distance from operator’s seat to the tractor’s CG. For a small value of θ, the term
‘Rθ’ represents the vertical motion resulting from tractor’s ____________.

(A) pitch motion

(B) roll motion

(C) yaw motion

(D) lateral motion

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Q. 23 In rice milling, the rubber roll sheller is used for:

(A) Separating paddy from brown rice

(B) Removal of bran adhering to rice kernels

(C) Separating husk layer from paddy grains

(D) Removal of husk layer from white rice

Q. 24 In general, result(s) of blanching fresh fruits and vegetables is/are:

(A) Complete elimination of microorganisms

(B) Removal of entrapped air pockets between plant tissues

(C) Leaching of nutrients

(D) Inactivation of enzymes

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Q.25 Identify the adverse effect(s) due to soil salinity or alkalinity or both:

(A) Low yields of crops

(B) Increased infiltration leading to waterlogging

(C) Poor quality of fodder

(D) Limited type of crops can be grown

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Q.26 Match the terms in Column I with the suitable hydrometeorological variables in
Column II.

Column I Column II

P Isopleth 1 Rainfall

Q Isobath 2 Pressure

R Isohyet 3 Evapotranspiration

S Isochrone 4 Groundwater

T Isobar 5 Surface runoff

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5, T-2

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3, T-2

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5, T-2

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5, T-1

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Q.27 Identify correct statement(s) for sprinkler irrigation:

(A) Excessive topsoil erosion is involved.

(B) Fertilizer can be applied with water.

(C) No excess cost of land preparation is involved.

(D) Evapotranspiration loss is minimum.

Q.28 Which of the following method(s) is/are generally used in spark ignition engines
for evaluating volatility?

(A) Distillation test

(B) Motor method

(C) Pensky Martens closed tester

(D) Reid vapor pressure test

Q.29 The nominal radius of the rear wheels of a 2WD tractor is 0.5 m. The rolling radius
of the tire is 6% less than the nominal radius. While conducting a field test, if the
actual distance covered for 20 revolutions of the rear wheel is found to be 56 m, the
rear wheel slip is _________%. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

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Q.30 Front wheel pivot points of a 2WD tractor are 1.2 m apart. When making turn on a
flat concrete surface, the inner front wheel makes 50o and the outer front wheel
makes 35o steering angles. To ensure turning without front wheel skid, the wheel
base of the tractor should be __________ m. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.31 An unconfined aquifer having a hydraulic conductivity of 12 m.day-1 covers an area
of 1.0 ha. When this aquifer is pumped, it releases 6000 m3 of water and the water
table drops from 3 m to 7 m below the ground level. The specific yield of the aquifer
is _________ %. (Answer in integer)

Q.32 Apple slices are dried from a moisture content of 65% (dry basis) to 10% (dry basis)
in a hybrid solar dryer under falling rate period. The apple slices have a drying rate
1
constant of minute-1. Considering an equilibrium moisture content of 2% (dry
104
basis), the time required for drying is _______ minutes. (Rounded off to 2 decimal
places)

Q.33 The quantity of water needed to increase the moisture content of 50 kg paddy grains
from 13% (dry basis) to 35% (dry basis) in the hydrothermal treatment process is
________ kg. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.34 Considering acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m.s-2 and 𝜋 as 3.14, the critical speed
of a ball mill having 3600 mm mill diameter and 160 mm ball diameter is
_________ rpm. (Answer in integer)

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Q.35 Three straight metal wires, AC, BC and CD, having same length, diameter and
thermal conductivity are connected as shown in the figure. Heat flows from points
‘A’ and ‘B’ to point ‘C’ and from point ‘C’ to ‘D’. Temperatures at points A, B and
D are 100 °C, 100 °C and 40 °C, respectively. Assuming steady-state condition and
no heat loss from the wires, the temperature at point ‘C’ is _______ °C. (Answer in
integer)

Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks each

Q.36 The series

∑𝑟𝑛=0 𝑞 𝑛 = 1 + 𝑞 + 𝑞 2 + ⋯ ⋯ ⋯ has the sum:

(A) 1 𝑞 𝑟+1
−
1−𝑞 1−𝑞

(B) 1 𝑞 𝑟+1
+
𝑞−1 𝑞−1

(C) 1 𝑞 𝑟+1
+
1−𝑞 1−𝑞

(D) 1
𝑞−1

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Q.37 𝑥 cos 𝑥−sin 𝑥
The value of lim is:
𝑥→0 𝑥 2 sin 𝑥

(A) 1
−
3

(B) 1
3

(C) 3

(D) −3

Q.38 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 −1
If 𝑢 = 𝑥 4 + 𝑦 4 + 3𝑥 2 𝑦 2 , the value of (𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 ) is:

(A) 4𝑢

(B) 0

(C) 1
4𝑢

(D) 2𝑢

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Q.39 Steady flow condition in a confined aquifer occurs when:

(A) the rate of recharge is more than the rate of groundwater discharge.

(B) the rate of recharge is equal to the rate of groundwater discharge.

(C) the rate of recharge is less than the rate of groundwater discharge.

(D) the pumping rate is more than the safe yield of the aquifer.

Q.40 Lysimeter is an instrument used to measure the following process(es):

(A) Evaporation

(B) Infiltration

(C) Evapotranspiration

(D) Deep percolation

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Q.41 The assumption(s) which is/are not correct for deriving the Plank’s equation for
estimation of food freezing time:

(A) Ice front moves from the freezing medium into the food block at a uniform rate.

(B) Physical property data of food material are accurate.

(C) Initially the whole food material is at a distinct freezing point.

(D) Sensible heat changes during the freezing process are sufficiently high.

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Q.42 Match the following psychrometric processes (Column I) with the respective
changes in thermodynamic properties (Column II) of air-water vapor mixture:

Column I Column II

1 Sensible cooling P Dry bulb temperature increases and
dew point temperature decreases

2 Cooling and dehumidification Q Dry bulb temperature increases and
dew point temperature increases

3 Chemical dehumidification R Dry bulb temperature decreases and
dew point temperature remains
constant

4 Heating and humidification S Dry bulb temperature decreases and
dew point temperature decreases

(A) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P

(B) 1-P, 2-R, 3-S, 4-Q

(C) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

(D) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-R

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 26 of 32

Q.43 The value of 𝑦 at 𝑥 = 0.3 and 𝑦(𝑥 = 0) = 0 for the differential equation
𝑑𝑦
= 3𝑦 + 2𝑒 𝑥 is ____________. (Rounded off to 3 decimal places)
𝑑𝑥

Q.44 A flat plate solar collector located at Bhopal (23o15ˊN, 77o42ˊE) is tilted at an angle
of 30o with the horizontal and facing due South. Considering hour angle as 45o, the
angle made by the beam radiation with normal to the collector plate on June 30, 2023
at 3:00 PM (Local Apparent Time) is _____ degree. (Rounded off to 2 decimal
places)

Q.45 A six-stage centrifugal pump delivers water at the rate of 150 L.s-1 against a net
pressure rise of 5003 kN.m-2. The pump impeller rotates at 1450 rpm. If the
acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m.s-2, the specific speed of the pump is
___________. (Answer in integer)

Q.46 Water flows through a 90° V-notch weir having a discharge coefficient of 0.6. If the
depth of water above the notch is 49 cm and the acceleration due to gravity is
9.81 m.s-2, the discharge over the notch is __________ m3.s-1. (Rounded off to 2
decimal places)

Q.47 The volume and voids ratio of an undisturbed soil sample are 100 cm3 and 0.60,
respectively. After oven drying, the mass of this sample is reduced from 185 g to
165 g without any shrinkage in the volume. If the specific gravity of this sample is
2.64, the degree of saturation of this soil is _________ %. (Rounded off to 2 decimal
places)

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Q.48 A 10 ha watershed experiences a rainfall of 15 mm, evapotranspiration of 5 mm,
infiltration of 4.5 mm, deep percolation of 2.2 mm, detention storage of 0.5 mm, and
other abstraction losses of 0.3 mm during the storm event. Neglecting other surface
storages, the total overland flow generated from the watershed due to this storm event
is _________ m3. (Answer in integer)

Q.49 To protect a wheat field from wind erosion, windbreaks of 2.7 m height are provided.
The actual wind velocity at 15 m height perpendicular to the wind barrier is 9 m.s-1
and the minimum wind velocity at 15 m height required to move the most erodible
soil fraction is 9.6 m.s-1. The distance of full protection from this windbreak is
__________m. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.50 A stable drop structure is designed with a base length of 5.7 m. The sum of vertical
forces excluding uplift is 92.5 kN, sum of uplift forces is 72.5 kN, and sum of
moments of all the horizontal and vertical forces about an axis passing through
mid-section of base length is 60 kN.m. The eccentricity denoting the longitudinal
distance between the centroid of base area and the point of application of resultant
vertical load is _______ m. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.51 An 8 ha watershed receives rainfall intensities of 2.5, 3.6, 5.4, 3.3, 2.6 and
1.2 cm.h-1 at the successive interval of 30 minutes. The corresponding surface runoff
volume is estimated to be 4800 m3. Neglecting initial abstraction losses, the W-index
for this watershed is _______ cm.h-1. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.52 A four-stroke diesel engine has a displacement volume of 6.0 L and it operates at
2300 rpm with 75% mechanical efficiency. The indicated mean effective pressure is
800 kPa. If the engine has brake-specific fuel consumption of 320 g.h-1.kW-1,
considering calorific value of the fuel as 44.6 MJ.kg-1, the fuel equivalent power is
________ kW. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

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Q.53 An engine’s torque-speed characteristics is given below:

TmaxP = 125 N.m NmaxP = 2400 rpm NHI = 2600 rpm
Tmax = 160 N.m NmaxT = 1450 rpm

where,

TmaxP = torque at maximum power
Tmax = maximum torque
NmaxP = speed at maximum power
NmaxT = speed at maximum torque
NHI = speed at high idle
The Governor’s regulation is ___________ %. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.54 An engine, running at 1200 rpm, drives a 1.2 m diameter rigid wheel on a
non-deformable surface at 5 km.h-1 forward speed. The power is transmitted from
engine to the wheel through a transmission gear box (gear ratio = 3:1), a differential
(gear ratio = 4:1), and a final drive (gear ratio = n:1). Neglecting the deformation of
the wheel and wheel slip, the value of n is ________. (Rounded off to 2 decimal
places)

Q.55 A solid round uniform diameter shaft is transmitting 25 kW power at 540 rpm. The
maximum allowable shear stress of the shaft material is 35 MPa. If the maximum
torque exceeds the mean torque by 20%, neglecting the bending effect, the minimum
shaft diameter is __________ mm. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.56 The height of CG of a 4WD tractor with equal tread (1.25 m) in front and rear is
0.85 m. The tractor overturns during turning at a speed of 18 km.h-1. Neglecting the
frictional forces on the tractor wheels, the turning radius is ________m. (Rounded
off to 2 decimal places)

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Q.57 A horizontal axis wind turbine with 24 m diameter blades, running with an average
wind velocity of 6.0 m.s-1, is used for pumping irrigation water. The average air
density is 1.23 kg.m-3. Considering coefficient of power as 0.3, transmission
efficiency as 90%, pump efficiency as 60%, acceleration due to gravity as
9.81 m.s-2 and density of water as 1000 kg.m-3, the discharge of the pump for a total
head of 20 m is__________ L.s-1. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.58 A mouldboard plough is operated by a 2WD tractor with 6.0 kN pull. The ratio of
lateral component to the longitudinal component of soil forces is 0.30, and the ratio
of the vertical component to the longitudinal component of soil forces is 0.50. If
diameter of the driving wheels is 1.2 m and the rear axle rotates at 10 rpm, the
drawbar power produced at 20% wheel slip is_________ kW.
(Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.59 For a right-hand offset disc harrow, the longitudinal distance from the hitch point to
the centers of the front and rear gangs are 2.5 m and 4.5 m, respectively. The resultant
horizontal soil forces in longitudinal direction on the front and rear gangs are 3.0 kN
and 3.5 kN, respectively; while the resultant horizontal soil forces in lateral directions
are 2.5 kN and 4.0 kN, respectively. Considering the resultant soil forces acting at
the centers of front and rear gangs, the amount of offset of the center of cut with
respect to the hitch point is _________ m. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.60 Locust beans having average particle diameter of 7 mm are ground at a rate of
10 ton.h-1 to produce average particle diameter of 0.62 mm. The mill consumes
6.7 kW power at the given rate. For the same rate of grinding, using Rittinger’s law,
the power required to grind the beans to an average particle diameter of 0.25 mm is
_________ kW. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

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Q.61 A mixture of Nitrogen (N2) and Helium (He) gases is contained in a pipe at 1.0 atm
pressure and at 298 K. At one point in the pipe, the partial pressure of N2 is 60.80
kPa and at a point 0.22 m apart, the partial pressure of N2 is 20.31 kPa. The diffusion
coefficient of the mixture is 0.612×10-4 m2.s-1. Considering Universal gas constant
as 8314 m3.Pa.kg mol-1.K-1, the steady-state flux of N2 is n×10-6 kg mol.s-1.m-2. The
value of n is ________. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.62 Milk enters at 25 °C through inner pipe of a concentric double pipe heat exchanger.
Hot water enters at 82.5 °C and flows countercurrently (flow rate = 1.2 kg.s-1)
through the annular region. The diameter of inner pipe, length of the pipe and average
overall heat transfer coefficient are 60 mm, 6 m, and 2100 W.m-2.K-1, respectively.
The average values of specific heat capacity of water and milk are 4.18 kJ.kg-1.K-1
and 3.95 kJ.kg-1.K-1, respectively. The effectiveness of the heat exchanger is 0.572
and the NTU is 1.01. Assuming the steady-state condition and considering 𝜋 as 3.14,
the temperature of hot water at exit of the pipe is _________ oC. (Rounded off to 1
decimal place)

Q.63 In an inoculated pack study, 0.5 kg peas per can are thermally processed at 121 °C.
One group of cans contain Clostridium spp. spores with initial spore level of
5 × 1010 per can. Another group of cans contain Bacillus spp. spores. It is desired to
have spoilage probability of 5 in 100 cans after thermal processing. The decimal
reduction time of Clostridium spp. and Bacillus spp. at 121 °C are 2.5 minutes and
6.0 minutes, respectively. If all the cans receive same lethality, the initial number of
spores of Bacillus spp. per g of peas is ___________. (Answer in integer)

Q.64 Apple juice (viscosity = 1.6 cP) is being filtered through a 2 m2 filter under a constant
pressure. The juice has solid concentration of 0.04 g.mL-1 in filtrate. The total
pressure drop is 325.33 kPa. The values of cake and filter medium resistance are
1.85×1011 m.kg-1 and 3.50×1011 m-1, respectively. The time required to filter
800 litres of juice is ________ hour. (Answer in integer)

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Q.65 A cylindrical concrete silo of 6 m internal diameter and 24 m height is filled with
rough rice having bulk density of 635 kg.m-3. The angle of friction between concrete
wall and rough rice is 30°. The ratio between lateral and vertical pressure is 0.4. The
ratio of lateral pressure at 10 m depth to the 5 m depth is _________. (Rounded off
to 2 decimal places)

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