GATE 2025 Question Paper Biotechnology (BT)

GATE
2025
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.

General Aptitude
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 Is there any good show _______ television tonight?

Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

(A) in

(B) at

(C) within

(D) on

Q.2 As the police officer was found guilty of embezzlement, he was _______ dismissed
from the service in accordance with the Service Rules.

Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

(A) sumptuously

(B) brazenly

(C) unintentionally

(D) summarily

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 1 of 36

Q.3 The sum of the following infinite series is:

1 1 1 1 1
+ + + + +⋯
1! 2! 3! 4! 5!

(A) 𝜋

(B) 1+𝑒

(C) 𝑒−1

(D) 𝑒

Q.4 A thin wire is used to construct all the edges of a cube of 1 m side by bending,
cutting and soldering the wire. If the wire is 12 m long, what is the minimum number
of cuts required to construct the wire frame to form the cube?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 12

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 2 of 36

Q.5 The figures I, II and III are parts of a sequence. Which one of the following options
comes next in the sequence at IV?

?

I II III IV

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 3 of 36

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 “Why do they pull down and do away with crooked streets, I wonder, which are my
delight, and hurt no man living? Every day the wealthier nations are pulling down
one or another in their capitals and their great towns: they do not know why they do
it; neither do I. It ought to be enough, surely, to drive the great broad ways which
commerce needs and which are the life-channels of a modern city, without
destroying all history and all the humanity in between: the islands of the past.”

(From Hilaire Belloc’s “The Crooked Streets”)

Based only on the information provided in the above passage, which one of the
following statements is true?

(A) The author of the passage takes delight in wondering.

(B) The wealthier nations are pulling down the crooked streets in their capitals.

(C) In the past, crooked streets were only built on islands.

(D) Great broad ways are needed to protect commerce and history.

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 4 of 36

Q.7 Rohit goes to a restaurant for lunch at about 1 PM. When he enters the restaurant,
he notices that the hour and minute hands on the wall clock are exactly coinciding.
After about an hour, when he leaves the restaurant, he notices that the clock hands
are again exactly coinciding. How much time (in minutes) did Rohit spend at the
restaurant?

(A) 6
64 11

(B) 5
66 13

(C) 5
65 11

(D) 6
66 13

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 5 of 36

Q.8 A color model is shown in the figure with color codes: Yellow (Y), Magenta (M),
Cyan (Cy), Red (R), Blue (Bl), Green (G), and Black (K).

Which one of the following options displays the color codes that are consistent with
the color model?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 6 of 36

Q.9 A circle with center at (𝑥, 𝑦) = (0.5, 0) and radius = 0.5 intersects with another
circle with center at (𝑥, 𝑦) = (1, 1) and radius = 1 at two points. One of the points
of intersection (𝑥, 𝑦) is:

(A) (0, 0)

(B) (0.2, 0.4)

(C) (0.5, 0.5)

(D) (1, 2)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 7 of 36

Q.10 An object is said to have an 𝑛-fold rotational symmetry if the object, rotated by an
2𝜋
angle of , is identical to the original.
𝑛

Which one of the following objects exhibits 4-fold rotational symmetry about an
axis perpendicular to the plane of the screen?

Note: The figures shown are representative.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 8 of 36

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 Koch’s postulate was established by Robert Koch while working on a disease
caused by

(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(B) Bacillus anthracis

(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(D) Bacillus subtilis

Q.12 Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria in humans, only when this
bacterium is infected by

(A) phage 

(B) epsilon phage

(C) T4 phage

(D) lambda phage

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 9 of 36

Q.13 Let 𝑦(𝑡) be a bacterial population whose growth is given by

𝑑𝑦
= 𝜆(𝑦 + 2)
𝑑𝑡
where 𝜆 is the growth rate constant. If 𝑦(0) = 1 and 𝑦(1) = 4, then the value of
𝜆 is

(A) ln 2

(B) ln 3

(C) ln 4

(D) ln 6

Q.14 The minimum value of the function

4
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 +
𝑥
for 𝑥 > 0 is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 10 of 36

Q.15 The diversity in T-cell receptors is generated by

(A) gene rearrangements

(B) somatic hypermutation of rearranged V region

(C) gene conversion

(D) class switching

Q.16 Which one of the following is true for piRNAs?

(A) piRNAs silence transposable elements in germ cells

(B) piRNA is the abbreviation of P-element interacting RNA

(C) piRNAs modify the 2′ -OH of ribose with methyl group

(D) piRNA is a long non-coding RNA

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 11 of 36

Q.17 Which one of the following coenzymes is utilised by alanine racemase for the
conversion of L-Alanine to D-Alanine?

(A) Pyridoxal phosphate

(B) Thiamine pyrophosphate

(C) Tetrahydrofolate

(D) Flavin mononucleotide

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 12 of 36

Q.18 Correctly match the following Monosaccharides with their respective Epimers.

Monosaccharide Epimer

P. D-mannose 1. C-3 epimer of D-glucose

Q. D-allose 2. C-4 epimer of D-glucose

R. D-galactose 3. C-4 epimer of D-mannose

S. D-talose 4. C-2 epimer of D-glucose

5. C-5 epimer of D-glucose

(A) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(B) P-5; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(C) P-4; Q-3; R-5; S-1

(D) P-1; Q-5; R-3; S-2

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 13 of 36

Q.19 Correctly match the following Product classes with their representative
Products.

Product class Product

P. Biofuel 1. Cellulase

Q. Bioplastic 2. Cephalosporin

R. Industrial enzyme 3. Butanol

S. Antibiotic 4. Poly-lactic acid

5. Rituximab

(A) P-1; Q-5; R-3; S-2

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-5; S-2

(C) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-5

(D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

Q.20 Which one of the following hosts is used in mammalian cell culture
for the production of glycosylated recombinant therapeutic proteins?

(A) Pichia pastoris

(B) Sf9 cells

(C) Escherichia coli

(D) Chinese hamster ovary cells

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 14 of 36

Q.21 Which of the following features is/are used to distinguish Archaea from Bacteria?

(A) Gram-staining

(B) Peptidoglycan in the cell wall

(C) Presence of N-acetylglucosamine

(D) 16S rRNA sequences

Q.22 Which of the following enzymes is/are involved in the biogenesis of miRNA?

(A) Drosha

(B) Cas9

(C) XRCC4

(D) Dicer

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 15 of 36

Q.23 Which of the following separation processes is/are based on molecular size?

(A) Size-exclusion chromatography

(B) Ion exchange chromatography

(C) Membrane ultrafiltration

(D) Ultracentrifugation

Q.24 Which of the following show(s) optical activity at 100 mM concentration in
water?

(A) Solution of NaCl

(B) Solution of D-Glucose

(C) Solution of Glycine

(D) Solution of L-Proline

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 16 of 36

Q.25 Which of the following fluids exhibit(s) non-Newtonian behaviour at 25 C?

(A) Toothpaste

(B) Mercury

(C) Brine

(D) Blood plasma

Q.26 Which of the following compounds have the same degree of reduction per
carbon-mole?

(A) Glucose

(B) Lactic acid

(C) Acetic acid

(D) Formic acid

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 17 of 36

Q.27 A recombinant protein is secreted extracellularly in soluble form by an E. coli
culture. Which of the following downstream processes is/are involved in the
purification of the extracellular secreted protein?

(A) Cell disruption

(B) Membrane ultrafiltration

(C) Solubilisation of inclusion bodies

(D) Liquid chromatography

Q.28 If the doubling time of a bacterial population is 3 hours, then its average specific
growth rate during this period is _____ h-1.

(Round off to two decimal places)

Q.29 For a mechanically reversible isobaric process taking place in a closed system
involving 5 moles of an ideal gas, the temperature increases from an initial value
of 300 K to a final value of 450 K. If the specific heat capacity at constant
volume (Cv) is given as 12.5 J mol-1 K-1 and gas constant is 8.314 J mol-1 K-1, the
amount of heat transferred to the system will be ______ J.

(Round off to the nearest integer)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 18 of 36

Q.30 The allele associated with albinism in humans is recessive (c). The probability
that an albino male (cc) and a carrier female (Cc) will have an offspring with
normal skin pigmentation is _______ .

(Round off to one decimal place)

Q.31 The contour length of a B-DNA molecule that encodes a bacterial protein of
33 kDa is ______ nm.

Consider the average molecular weight of an amino acid as 110 Da and helix
rise per base pair for B-DNA as 0.34 nm.

(Round off to the nearest integer)

Q.32 Within the Michaelis-Menten framework, the ratio of 𝑣0 /𝑉max

when [S] = 20 × Km is ______.

(Round off to two decimal places)

Q.33 Consider a nonlinear algebraic equation, 𝑒 𝑥 − 2 = 0. Using the Newton-Raphson
method, with the initial guess of 𝑥0 = 1, the approximated value of the root of the
equation after one iteration is________.

(Round off to two decimal places)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 19 of 36

Q.34 The value of 𝑘, for which the linear equations 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 6 and 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 3𝑘
have at least one solution, is _____________.

(Answer in integer)

Q.35 Two fair six-sided dice, with sides numbered 1 to 6, are thrown once. The
probability of getting 7 as the sum of the numbers on the top side of the
dice is _____________.

(Round off to two decimal places)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 20 of 36

Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.36 Correctly match the Microorganisms with their respective Nutrition and energy
requirement.

Microorganisms Nutrition and energy requirement

P. Photolithoautotrophs 1. Use organic compounds as a source of
energy, hydrogen, electron and carbon

Q. Chemoorganoheterotrophs 2. Use light energy and use CO2 as their
carbon source

R. Chemolithoautotrophs 3. Use light energy and use organic
compounds as electron donor and
carbon source

S. Photoorganoheterotrophs 4. Oxidise reduced-inorganic molecules
as energy and electron source but
derive carbon from organic sources

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(B) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(C) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

(D) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 21 of 36

Q.37 Correctly match the Inhibitor with its respective Function in mitochondrial
respiration.

Inhibitor Function

P. FCCP 1. Inhibits cytochrome c oxidase

Q. Cyanide 2. Makes the membrane permeable to protons

R. Oligomycin A 3. Blocks mitochondrial uptake of succinate

S. Butyl malonate 4. Inhibits ATP synthase

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(B) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(C) P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1

(D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 22 of 36

Q.38 An octapeptide composed of these L-amino acids – Lys, Thr, Ser, Met,
Arg, Trp, Tyr, Glu – was subjected to analyses with the following outcomes:

P. The N-terminal sequencing analysis by Sanger’s method yielded
‘Ser’ at the N-terminus
Q. Chymotrypsin treatment gave a pentapeptide, a ‘Tyr’ containing
dipeptide and a free ‘Glu’
R. Cyanogen bromide treatment gave two tetrapeptides
S. Trypsin treatment gave two tripeptides and a dipeptide

Which one of the following is the correct octapeptide sequence?

(A) Ser-Tyr-Arg-Met-Lys-Thr-Trp-Glu

(B) Ser-Arg-Lys-Met-Tyr-Thr-Trp-Glu

(C) Ser-Met-Lys-Arg-Thr-Tyr-Trp-Glu

(D) Ser-Arg-Met-Lys-Trp-Thr-Tyr-Glu

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 23 of 36

Q.39 Correctly match the type of Hypersensitivity reaction with its respective
Example.

Hypersensitivity reaction Example

P. Type I 1. Tuberculin reaction

Q. Type II 2. Arthus reaction

R. Type III 3. Chronic urticaria

S. Type IV 4. Systemic anaphylaxis

(A) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(B) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(C) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(D) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 24 of 36

Q.40 Correctly match the Enzyme with its respective Function.

Enzyme Function

P. Gyrase 1. Removes a damaged base by cleaving the bond
between sugar and base

Q. Deadenylase 2. Provides a swivel allowing one DNA strand to rotate
around the other

R. Glycosylase 3. Catalyses bond formation between 3′-OH and
5′-phosphate end of nucleotides in duplex DNA

S. DNA ligase 4. Is an exoribonuclease that removes the poly(A) tail

(A) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

(B) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(D) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-4

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 25 of 36

Q.41 Correctly match the Coenzyme with its respective involvement in a specific
Reaction type.

Coenzyme Reaction type

P. Thiamine pyrophosphate 1. Acyl group transfer

Q. Tetrahydrofolate 2. Transfer of one carbon group

R. Flavin adenine dinucleotide 3. Transfer of methyl group

S. 5′-Deoxyadenosyl cobalamin 4. Oxidation-reduction

5. Aldehyde transfer

(A) P-5; Q-2; R-4; S-3

(B) P-5; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(C) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-5

(D) P-5; Q-3; R-1; S-2

Q.42 A thermometer measuring body temperature follows a first-order response with
a time constant of 40 seconds. The instrument will reach 95% of its steady-state
output at __________ seconds.

(Round off to the nearest integer)

(A) 60

(B) 80

(C) 120

(D) 160

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 26 of 36

Q.43 The output 𝑦(𝑡) of a first-order process is governed by the following differential
equation

𝑑𝑦
𝜏𝑝 + 𝑦 = 𝐾𝑝 𝑓(𝑡)
𝑑𝑡
where 𝜏𝑝 is a non-zero time constant, 𝐾𝑝 is the gain and 𝑓(𝑡) is the input with
𝑓(0) = 0.

Assume 𝑦(0) = 0. The transfer function for this process is (consider 𝑠 as the
independent variable in the Laplace domain)

(A) 𝐾𝑝
𝜏𝑝 𝑠 + 1

(B) 𝜏𝑝
𝐾𝑝 𝑠 + 1

(C) 𝜏𝑝
𝐾𝑝 (𝑠 + 1)

(D) 𝐾𝑝
𝜏𝑝 (𝑠 + 1)

Q.44 For a specific bioreactor configuration, the power requirement for a
Rushton-turbine impeller agitating an unaerated Newtonian fluid in
the turbulent regime will be

(A) proportional to the stirring speed of the impeller

(B) proportional to the square of the stirring speed of the impeller

(C) proportional to the cube of the stirring speed of the impeller

(D) inversely proportional of the stirring speed of the impeller

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 27 of 36

Q.45 Let 𝑚 and 𝑛 be fixed real numbers. If the function 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝐶1 𝑒 𝑡 + 𝐶2 𝑒 −𝑡 is a
solution of

𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
+ 𝑚 + 𝑛𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑡
for any constants 𝐶1 and 𝐶2 , then 𝑚 + 𝑛 is equal to

(A) -2

(B) -1

(C) 0

(D) 1

Q.46 If the function

sin 2𝑥 , for 𝑥 > 0,
𝑓(𝑥) = {
𝑎 + 𝑏𝑥, for 𝑥 ≤ 0,

where 𝑎 and 𝑏 are constants, is differentiable at 𝑥 = 0, then 𝑎 + 𝑏 is equal to

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 28 of 36

Q.47 Correctly match the following Bioinformatic tool/Database with its respective
Utility.

Bioinformatic tool/Database Utility

P. BLAST 1. Database for 3D protein structures

Q. Bowtie 2. Tool to identify similarity of a query
sequence to existing sequences available
in databanks

R. AlphaFold 3. Tool to align short read DNA sequences
obtained from Next-generation
sequencing to a reference genome

S. PDB 4. AI tool to predict protein structures

(A) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(C) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

(D) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 29 of 36

Q.48 Correctly match the herbicide with its mode of development of resistance in
plants.

Herbicide Mode of development of resistance

P. Imidazolinones 1. Transformation of bacterial nitrilase gene

Q. Bromoxynil 2. Transformation of resistant version of acetolactate
synthetase

R. Glufosinate 3. Transformation of tfdA gene from Alcaligenes,
which encodes a dioxygenase

4. Transformation of bar gene from Streptomyces
hygroscopicus which encodes phosphinothricin
acetyltransferase

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4

(B) P-2; Q-1; R-3

(C) P-1; Q-2; R-3

(D) P-4; Q-1; R-3

Q.49 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the effect of the
concentration of metabolic intermediates on glycolysis in erythrocytes?

(A) Increased AMP levels stimulate glycolysis

(B) Increased citrate inhibits glycolysis

(C) Increased glucose 6-phosphate inhibits glycolysis

(D) Increased fructose 1,6-bisphosphate stimulates glycolysis

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 30 of 36

Q.50 Which of the following statements about initiation of DNA replication in
eukaryotes is/are true?

(A) DNA replication is initiated at the origin of replication licensed by loading
of Mcm helicase complex

(B) Loading of Mcm helicase complex takes place in S phase

(C) Mcm helicase complex are activated by S-Cdks

(D) Mcm helicase complex is responsible for loading of origin recognition complex

Q.51 Which of the following proteins is/are involved in intraflagellar transport?

(A) Microtubules

(B) Myosin

(C) Actin

(D) Kinesin

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 31 of 36

Q.52 Which of the following statements is/are true about telomerase?

(A) Telomerase has 5′-3′ DNA-dependent DNA polymerisation activity

(B) Telomerase has 5′-3′ RNA-dependent DNA polymerisation activity

(C) Telomerase contains an RNA subunit

(D) Telomerase has 3′-5′ DNA-dependent DNA polymerisation activity

Q.53 The blood group of the mother is A+ and that of the father is AB+. Which of the
following statements is/are correct?

(A) Probability of the offspring with A+ blood group is 0.5

(B) Probability of the offspring with AB+ blood group is 0.125

(C) Probability of the offspring with B+ blood group is 0.125

(D) Probability of the offspring with O+ blood group is 0.375

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 32 of 36

Q.54 An enzyme immobilised in a porous spherical pellet, catalyses a strongly
mass-transfer limited first-order reaction. The effectiveness factor for the
immobilised enzyme reaction increases with the

(A) decrease in the size of the pellet

(B) increase in the pore diffusivity within the pellet

(C) decrease in the enzyme turnover number

(D) increase in the enzyme concentration within the pellet

Q.55 Which of the following methods is/are used for identifying histone modifications?

(A) ChIP-seq

(B) Mass spectrometry

(C) Immunofluorescence

(D) Patch-clamp electrophysiology

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 33 of 36

Q.56 Which of the following amino acids contain(s) two chiral carbons?

(A) L-Leucine

(B) L-Threonine

(C) L-Isoleucine

(D) L-Asparagine

Q.57 A binary mixture of benzene and toluene under vapour-liquid equilibrium at
80 C follows ideal Raoult’s law. At this condition, the saturation pressures of
benzene and toluene are 101 kPa and 40 kPa, respectively. If the mole fraction
of benzene in the liquid phase is 0.6, the corresponding mole fraction of benzene
in the vapour phase will be _______.

(Round off to two decimal places)

Q.58 In a fermentation process, each mole of glucose is converted to biomass
(CH1.8O0.5N0.2), with a biomass yield coefficient of 0.4 C-mol/C-mol, according
to the unbalanced equation given below.

C6H12O6 + NH3 + O2 → CH1.8O0.5N0.2 + CO2 + H2O

The moles of oxygen consumption per mole of glucose consumed during
fermentation is _________.

(Round off to two decimal places)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 34 of 36

Q.59 1
Let 𝑎0 = 0 and define 𝑎𝑛 = 2 (1 + 𝑎𝑛−1 ) for all positive integers 𝑛 ≥ 1.
1
The least value of 𝑛 for which |1 − 𝑎𝑛 | < 210 is ______.

(Answer in integer)

Q.60 The percentage of light that would pass through a sample with an absorbance
of 2 would be ______% .

(Round off to the nearest integer)

Q.61 A hot, freshly-sterilised fermentation medium is cooled in a double-pipe heat-
exchanger. The medium enters the inner pipe of the exchanger at 95 C and
leaves the exchanger at 40 C. Cooling water, flowing counter-currently to the
medium, enters the annulus of the exchanger at 15 C and leaves the exchanger
at 45 C. The overall heat transfer coefficient is 1350 W m-2 C-1. The rate of
heat transfer per unit area will be _______ W/m2.

(Round off to the nearest integer)

Q.62 A 2 L bioreactor is being operated as a chemostat, at a flow rate of 0.8 L/h and
sterile feed of 10 g/L substrate. The bacterial growth follows Monod kinetics at
a maximum specific growth rate of 0.6 h-1 with a Monod constant of 0.5 g/L and
a biomass yield coefficient of 0.4 g/g.

The exit biomass concentration is _______ g/L.

(Round off to one decimal place)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 35 of 36

Q.63 1 0 1
Let 𝐴 = (0 𝑘 0 ). If the eigenvalues of 𝐴 are −2, 1, and 2, then the value of
3 0 −1
𝑘 is ______________.

(Answer in integer)

Q.64 An NMR spectrometer operating at proton resonance frequency (𝜈) of
1 GHz will have a magnetic field strength of _________ Tesla (T).

The gyromagnetic ratio for proton, γ = 2.675 × 108 T-1 s-1

(Round off to one decimal place)

Q.65 For the coupled reactions given below

Glucose 6-phosphate + H2O → Glucose + Pi (Reaction 1)
ATP + Glucose → ADP + Glucose 6-phosphate (Reaction 2)

the standard free energy change of ATP hydrolysis at 25 °C is ____ kJ/mol.

The equilibrium constants for Reaction 1 and Reaction 2 are 360 and 800,
respectively; Gas constant R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1.

(Round off to two decimal places)

Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 36 of 36

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