RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper 08 Jan All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2026
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 08 Jan

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 08/01/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 A farmer stores grains from his crop yield in a damp and warm room. After a few weeks,
the grains get spoiled and their quantity reduces. What is the most likely reason for
this?
Ans A. Poor irrigation before harvesting

B. Grains were eaten by birds and insects

C. Grains got washed away with water

m
.co
D. Improper storage conditions

Q.2
e m
Which of the following is usually connected in series in a domestic circuit?
Ans A. Fan
las
B. Electric bulb
ag
C. Main fuse

D. All appliances

Q.3 Which term describes the closeness of particles in solids?
Ans A. Density

B. Inter-particle space

C. Rigidity
m
m .co
.co
D. Compressibility

e m
e
Q.4 mWhat is/are the general product(s) of the reaction between a non-metallic oxide and a
l as
l as base?
ag
ag Ans A. Water only

B. Salt and water

C. Salt and hydrogen

D. Gas and water

Q.5 What type of gas is released when ethanol reacts with sodium?
Ans A. Methane

B. Hydrogen
m .
C. Carbon dioxide

m .co s e m
D. Oxygen
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.6 If the distance covered is halved and time remains the same, the linear velocity
becomes _________.
Ans A. Zero

B. Double

C. Same

D. Half

Q.7 How does the weight of an object on the Moon compare to its weight on Earth?
Ans A. It is the same as that on Earth.

B. It is six times of its weight on Earth.

C. It is one-sixth of its weight on Earth.

D. It is one-third of its weight on Earth.

Q.8 The point on the principal axis where rays parallel to the principal axis converge (or
appear to diverge) after reflection from a mirror is called which of the following?
Ans A. Centre of curvature

B. Principal focus

C. Aperture

D. Pole

Q.9 In multicellular organisms like humans, digestion occurs in:
Ans A. entire cell surface

B. food vacuoles

C. nucleus

D. specialised digestive organs

Q.10 Unsaturated carbons are _______ than the saturated carbon compounds.
Ans A. More reactive

B. More saturated

C. Equally reactive

D. Less reactive

Q.11 What is the primary reason that the testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in
the scrotum?
Ans A. To reduce the risk of infection

B. To facilitate easier hormone secretion

C. To allow proper mixing of sperm and urine

D. To facilitate sperm formation as it requires a lower temperature than body temperature

Q.12 How much current will flow through a resistor of 20 Ω when a potential difference of 40
V is applied across it?
Ans A. 1/5 A

B. 5 A

C. 2 A

D. 1/2 A

Q.13 Which of the following is an example of an object in uniform circular motion?
Ans A. A car moving on a crowded street

B. A train moving on a straight track at varying speeds

C. A person jogging in a park

D. A satellite orbiting Earth at a constant sp
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

m
.co
Q.14 Which of the following is a part of the central nervous system of our body?
m
co m
Ans A. Spinal cord

m . s e
se
B. Pancreas

g l a
a
C. Stomach

D. Liver

Q.15 When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror, the
image formed is:
Ans A. virtual, erect and larger than the object

B. virtual, inverted and larger than the object

C. real, inverted and smaller than the object

m
.co
D. real, erect and same size as object
m
Q.16 .co
Why do we feel cool when sweat evaporates from our skin?
m s em
Ans
s e
A. Sweat forms crystals that cool the skin.
l a
l a ag
ag
B. Sweat turns into ice before evaporation.

C. Sweat releases heat during evaporation.

D. Sweat absorbs heat from our skin to evaporate.

Q.17 Due to the continous random movement of the gas particles, the particles collide with
the walls of the container. The pressure exerted by the gas is equal to the:
Ans A. force exerted by the gas particles per unit area of the bottom of the container

B. force exerted by the gas particles per unit area on the walls of the container

C. force exerted by the gas particles on the walls of the container
m
.co
D. force exerted by the gas particles per unit volume of the container

s em
Q.18
la
Match the Following Substances and Their Ions.

g
a
Column A (Substance) Column B (Ions Produced)

A. HCl 1. H₃O⁺ and Cl⁻

B. NaOH 2. Na⁺ and OH⁻

C. KOH 3. K⁺ and OH⁻

D. Mg(OH)₂ 4. Mg²⁺ and 2OH⁻

Ans A. A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

m
.co
B. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
m
.co m
C. A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4

m s e
s e
D. A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3

g l a
g l a Q.19 Why do we continue to breathe even when we are sitting or sleeping? a
a Ans A. To give rest to the heart

B. To supply oxygen for life processes

C. To let digestion go on

D. To make breathing movements

Q.20 What is the main structural component of the plant cell wall?
Ans A. Cellulose
m .
.co m
B. Chitin

m s e
C. Collagen

s e l a
D. Peptidoglycan

g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 48

Q.21 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Ans A. Sound travels slower in gases than in liquids.

B. Sound can travel through vacuum.

C. Sound travels fastest in solids.

D. Sound travels faster in water than in air.

Q.22 Why is practicing safe sex important for reproductive health?
Ans A. It increases fertility

B. It prevents sexually transmitted diseases like HIV-AIDS

C. It guarantees pregnancy

D. It ensures hormonal balance in the body

Q.23 Which of the following is the smallest alkane that can form a stable ring?
Ans A. Ethane

B. Cyclopropane

C. Propane

D. Methane

Q.24 What will be the potential energy of a block of mass 30 kg kept at a height of 20 m?

(Take the value of g = 10 m/s2)
Ans A. 6 J

B. 6000 J

C. 600 J

D. 60 J

Q.25 The emergence of a new plant from a seed under favourable environmental conditions
is termed as ________.
Ans A. germination

B. fertilisation

C. pollination

D. photosynthesis

Section : Mathematics

Q.26

Ans A. 7

B. 5

C. 2

D. 3

Q.27

Ans A. 16

B. 18

C. 17

D. 15

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

m
.co
Q.28 If the area of a square is 15.21 cm2, then the perimeter (in cm) of the square is:
m
. co
Ans A. 15.6

s e m
m a
se
B. 16.5

g l
C. 12.4

D. 13.8
a
Q.29
Ans A. 38.15%

B. 42.36%

C. 50.48%

D. 56.25%
m
m .co
.co em
Q.30 A person covers half the distance of a journey at 60 km/h and the other half at 30 km/h.

em
What is the average speed for the entire journey?3217

l as
Ans A.

l as ag
ag
B.

C.

D.

Q.31 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 65°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 30°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans A. 50°

B. 56°

m
.co
C. 53°

m
D. 55°

s e
Q.32
1 घॠटॕ तक 70 km/hr और
g la
घॠटॕ तक 'p' km/hr कॎ चॊल ऺॕ चलनॕ शॊलॎ एक कॊर कॎ औऺत चॊल 58

km/hr ऻॖ । p कॊ मॊन ৯ॊत कॎोजए।
a
Ans A. 70

B. 62.5

C. 67.5

D. 50

Q.33 The ratio of 38 hours to 2 days is equivalent to what?
m
Ans
mA. 19:24
.co
m .co B. 12:19
s e m
s e C. 22:27
g l a
g l a D. 21:27 a
a Q.34 A person saves 50% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹360, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 720

B. 800

C. 180

D. 760

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 48

Q.35 A mother is 25 years older than her daughter. In 15 years, the mother will be twice as
old as the daughter. Find the daughter's current age.
Ans A. 20 years

B. 35 years

C. 10 years

D. 25 years

Q.36 If the number 2X73Y5 is divisible by 11, then find the value of (X−Y).
Ans A. 6

B. 1

C. 5

D. 3

Q.37
Ans A. 0.5

B. 0

C. 1

D. 2

Q.38 A store is offering 'Buy 5, get 16 free' on household items. What is the net percentage
discount (approximately) being offered by the store?
Ans A. 78.42%

B. 74.52%

C. 76.19%

D. 74.24%

Q.39 Poonam sold a book to Mohini at a loss of 5% and Mohini sold it to Rupashi at a profit
of 8%. If Rupashi bought the book for ₹1,539, then what was the cost price (in ₹) of the
book for Poonam?
Ans A. 1,500

B. 1,600

C. 1,550

D. 1,650

Q.40 A retailer offers the given discount schemes for buyers on an article. Which of the
following schemes will be least beneficial to the customer?

i. A discount of 34%
ii. A discount of 37% followed by a discount of 8%
iii. Successive discounts of 7% and 27%
Ans A. Scheme i

B. Scheme ii

C. Both scheme ii and scheme iii

D. Scheme iii

Q.41 A tank has three pipes: A, B and C. Pipe A fills the tank in 4 hours, Pipe B fills it in 6
hours and Pipe C empties it in 12 hours. If the three pipes are opened alternatively for 1
hour each (A first, then B, then C), how long will it take to fill the tank?
Ans
A. hours

B. hours

C. 11 hours

D. 9 hours
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

m
.co
Q.42 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 6 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
m
co
with water in 12 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same

. cistern with water?1417
e m
m as
se
Ans A. 4

g l
B. 6

C. 3
a
D. 7

Q.43 If the mean of 25, 29, 25, 32, 24 and x is 26, then the median of the data is:6544
Ans A. 29

B. 24

C. 25
m
m .co
.co
D. 27

em
Q.44
e m
The amount on a sum of ₹1,800 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
l as
s
annually, in 2 years will be:

l a ag
ag
Ans A. ₹2,506

B. ₹2,178

C. ₹3,118

D. ₹2,820

Q.45

Ans A. 336

B. 334
m
C. 335

m .co
D. 338
s e
g la
Q.46 What is the mode of the following data?
a
55, 45, 44, 48, 42, 45, 52, 53, 42, 50, 54, 49, 52, 45, 47, 43, 45, 48
Ans A. 44

B. 45

C. 48

D. 55

Q.47 In an election, 70% of the total voters cast their votes. Out of these, 60% voted for
m
.co
candidate X and the remaining voted for candidate Y. If candidate Y received 8400
m
.co
votes, calculate the total number of registered voters.

e m
Ans

e m
A. 25,000

l as
l as B. 40,000

ag
ag C. 30,000

D. 32,000

Q.48
योद ोकऺॎ ऺॠূॊ कॕ कॕ 20% कॊ 10%, 648 ऻॖ । तख़ शऻ ऺॠূॊ ৯ॊत कॎोजए।

Ans A. 57140

B. 57580

C. 60230
m .
.co m
D. 56700

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 48

Q.49 Find the greatest number that divides 1005, 244 and 1343, leaving the remainders 5, 4
and 3, respectively.
Ans A. 20

B. 30

C. 15

D. 25

Q.50 A basket contains 96 fruits consisting of mangoes and oranges. If there are 48 more
mangoes than oranges, how many mangoes are there?
Ans A. 72

B. 88

C. 64

D. 96

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 TM 13 is related to WR 16 in a certain way. In the same way, MF 18 is related to PK 21.
To which of the given options is QJ 26 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. UP 29

B. UM 28

C. TM 28

D. TO 29

Q.52 JPUG is related to OLXE in a certain way. In the same way, TMQK is related to YITI. To
which of the following is NOLT related, following the same logic?
Ans A. TJPQ

B. SKOR

C. TJOQ

D. SKPR

Q.53 Tarun starts from Point A and drives 65 km towards east. He then takes a left turn,
drives 42 km, turns left and drives 78 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 71 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 13 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 27 km to the south

B. 28 km to the north

C. 29 km to the north

D. 26 km to the south

Q.54 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some chromium are gallium.
No gallium are gold.
All gold are steel.

Conclusions:
I: Some gold are gallium.
II: Some gallium are steel.6672
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

m
.co
Q.55 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
m
co
the following sets.

. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
e m
m
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
as
se l
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
ag
(25, 37, 53)
(40, 52, 68)
Ans A. (39, 27, 43)

B. (9, 21, 33)

C. (32, 44, 28)

D. (26, 38, 54)

m
.co
Q.56 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
m
.co
numbers only).

em
e m
(Left) 3 6 8 9 1 5 7 3 2 4 6 1 9 7 8 2 5 3 9 6 1 4 2 7 (Right)

l as
as
How many unique even digits are there in the series?
l ag
ag
Ans A. None

B. Two

C. Four

D. Three

Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

57 67 82 102 127 ?
Ans A. 156
m
B. 157

m .co
C. 158
s e
D. 159
g la
Q.58
a
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

YVW 58 VST 69 SPQ 80 PMN 91 ?
Ans A. MIJ 101

B. MKJ 102

C. MJK 102

m
.co
D. MRX 101

m
Q.59

m .co
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
s e m
s e g l a
g l a FRU HTW JVY LXA ?
a
a Ans A. NCZ

B. NDS

C. NZS

D. NZC

Q.60 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

20 × 2 ÷ 2 − 3 + 7 = ?
m .
.co m
Ans A. 5

m s e
B. 11

s e l a
C. 14

g l a ag

D. 9
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 48

Q.61 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

96 + 15 ÷ 5 − 154 × 14 = ?3192
Ans A. 32

B. 30

C. 34

D. 29

Q.62 Seven boxes D, E, F, U, V, W and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only U is kept above D. Only V is kept between D and F. No box is kept
below E. Only three boxes are kept between D and W. How many boxes are kept
between X and E?
Ans A. Two

B. One

C. Three

D. Four

Q.63 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. No one sits to the
right of G. Only three people sit between G and D. Only two people sit between D and C.
E sits third to the left of F. B sits to the immediate right of F. How many people sit to the
right of C?
Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 1

D. 2

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

34 44 57 73 92 ?
Ans A. 116

B. 118

C. 112

D. 114

Q.65 In a certain code language, VERL is coded as 102 and GZQT is coded as 76. What is the
code for BXNO in that language?
Ans A. 110

B. 106

C. 89

D. 96

Q.66 Building X is to the south of Building Y and Building Z is to the east of Building Y. In
which direction Building X is located with respect to Building Z?
Ans A. South-East

B. North-West

C. South-West

D. North-East

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

m
.co
Q.67 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only one
m
co
person sits between E and A when counted from the left of A. B sits third to the right of

. C. D sits third to the left of F. B sits to the immediate right of D. G is not an immediate
e m
m
neighbour of D. How many people sit between C and F when counted from the right of
as
se l
F?
Ans A. 2
ag
B. 4

C. 1

D. 3

Q.68 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

5 8 14 26 ? 98

m
.co
Ans A. 45

m
.co m
B. 51

C. 50
m s e
s e l a
a ag
D. 49
l
Q.69 ag
Seven boxes L, M, N, O, Q, R and S are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. M is kept second from the bottom. Only one box is kept between M and
N. Only three boxes are kept between M and S where S is kept above M. L is kept
immediately below S. Q is kept at one of the places above O. R is not kept immediately
above or below M. How many boxes are kept below O?8480
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Zero

m
.co
D. Two

Q.70
e m
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

las
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
ag
Statements:
All hammers are screwdrivers.
No screwdrivers are wrenches.
Some wrenches are pliers.

Conclusions:
(I): No hammers are wrenches.
(II): No pliers are screwdrivers.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) is true
m
.co
B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true
m
m .co C. Only conclusion (II) is true

s e m
s e D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true

g l a
g l a Q.71 In a certain code language, a
a A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is K related to V if ‘K-T+RxZ&V’?
Ans A. Brother

B. Son

C. Husband
m .
.co m
D. Father

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 48

Q.72 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. OS - NS

B. MQ - LP

C. IM - HL

D. LP - KO

Q.73 In a certain code language, ‘nice large land’ is coded as ‘cd ak pi’, ‘land is fertile’ is
coded as ‘rf pc ak’ and ‘cost is high’ is coded as ‘si ig pc’. How is ‘fertile’ coded in that
language?
Ans A. cd

B. ak

C. pc

D. rf

Q.74 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 2 4 5 7 1 9 3 6 8 4 7 2 5 9 3 1 8 6 2 4 7 9 (Right)

How many unique numbers in the series are less than 5 (each number counted only
once, regardless of repetitions)?
Ans A. Four

B. Three

C. Two

D. One

Q.75 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

ELP : CJN
IQW : GOU6152
Ans A. NRT : FSE

B. BTS : AWP

C. BTD : VRY

D. HWZ : FUX

Q.76 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits second to
the left of D. F is an immediate neighbour of A. B sits to the immediate right of A. C sits
second to the left of E. What is the position of C with respect to A?
Ans A. Third to the left

B. Second to the right

C. Second to the left

D. Immediate right

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

m
.co
Q.77 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
. co (Left) 351 369 458 517 619 (Right)

s e m
m
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

se
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
g l a
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the
second digit of the lowest number?
a
Ans A. 7

B. 6

C. 5

D. 4

Q.78 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
.co
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
m
.co
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
em
e m
position in the letter-cluster.)

l as
Ans A. XU−WT

l as ag
ag
B. OL−NK

C. HE−FF

D. MJ−LI

Q.79 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 © 7 # 3 $ 7 6 4 £ 8 $ 2 * £ & $ # % 1 * 2 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a
number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
m
Ans A. 1

m .co
B. 0
s e
C. 3
g la
D. 2 a
Q.80 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

9 B 3 D 56 A 4 C 6 = ?
Ans A. 27

B. 24

C. 15
m
m .co
.co
D. 19

e m
e m l as
s
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

l a ag
ag Q.81 Which Constitutional Articles did earlier Supreme Court judgements connect manual
scavenging to, as a violation in February 2025?
Ans A. Articles 22 and 32

B. Articles 17 and 21

C. Articles 12 and 20

D. Articles 15 and 16

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 48

Q.82 In April 2024, the Indian Space Research Organisation's (ISRO) Chairman, S Somanath,
made a declaration to achieve debris-free space missions by the year _____.
Ans A. 2035

B. 2032

C. 2030

D. 2028

Q.83 In November 2025, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) implemented
Stage‑II of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) across Delhi‑NCR. Which air
quality category and AQI range did this stage correspond to?
Ans A. Very Poor (AQI 301–400)

B. Severe+ (AQI 451 and above)

C. Severe (AQI 401–450)

D. Poor (AQI 201–300)

Q.84 In November 2025, which key labour benefit was ensured for beedi and cigar workers
under new labour reforms?
Ans A. Worker Welfare Act

B. Minimum Wage Guarantee

C. Employment Safety Code

D. Labour Protection Scheme

Q.85 'Gyan Seepiyan: Pearls of Wisdom', launched at the Jaipur Literature Festival in
January 2025, is written by which author?
Ans A. Benoy K Behl

B. Harsha Dehejia

C. Javed Akhtar

D. Sudha Murthy

Q.86 Who was recently appointed as the Chairperson of the Athletics Federation of India
(AFI) Athletes Commission in January 2025?
Ans A. Saurav Ganguly

B. PT Usha

C. Neeraj Chopra

D. Anju Bobby George

Q.87 Where in Andhra Pradesh was the Rajiv Sports Complex, developed by Greater
Visakhapatnam Municipal Corporation (GVMC), inaugurated in June 2025?
Ans A. Kollam

B. Uttam Nagar

C. Gajuwaka

D. Dwaraka Nagar

Q.88 Which of the following is a drone-launched precision-guided missile successfully test-
fired by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) at a test range in
Andhra Pradesh in July 2025?
Ans A. Agni-P

B. Astra Mk-II

C. Nirbhay-V3

D. ULPGM-V3

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

m
.co
Q.89 Which institution’s researchers developed smart peptides for pH-responsive medical
m
co
applications in June 2025?

. e m
s
Ans A. IIT Delhi
m a
se B. BIT Mesra

C. IIT Guwahati ag l
D. BITS Pilani

Q.90 As per Union Budget 2025-26, under the new income tax regime, what is the tax-exempt
income threshold?
Ans A. ₹12 lakh

B. ₹13 lakh

C. ₹15 lakh
m
m .co
.co
D. ₹10 lakh

em
Q.91
e m
Which Canadian province held the G7 Summit in June 2025?
l as
Ans
l as
A. Saskatchewan
ag
ag
B. Ontario

C. Alberta

D. British Columbia

Q.92 In January 2025, which of the following expanded its Sandbox Framework to support
innovation in the insurance sector?
Ans A. Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)

B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
m
.co
C. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

D. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
e m
las
Q.93
Ans A. Rahul Shewale ag
Which first-time MP from Thane was named a Sansad Ratna Award recipient in 2025?

B. Dr. Varsha Gaikwad

C. Naresh Mhaske

D. Arvind Sawant

Q.94 In March 2025, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change conducted a
national-level workshop on the National Adaptation Plan on Climate Change at
___________.
m
Ans
m
A. Bengaluru
.co
m .co B. New Delhi
s e m
s e C. Mumbai
g l a
g l a D. Lucknow
a
a Q.95 Which organization collaborated with CBSE to launch the National Automobile
Olympiad, 2025?
Ans A. NITI Aayog

B. National Skill Development Corporation

C. Skill India Mission

D. Automotive Skills Development Council

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.96 Who set a new world record in the men’s 89 kg weightlifting category by lifting 224 kg
in the clean and jerk at the 2024 Olympics?
Ans A. Akbar Djuraev

B. Li Fabin

C. Simon Martirosyan

D. Karlos Nasar

Q.97 In November 2025, which of the following government bodies expressed serious
concern over Delhi’s deteriorating air quality, stating that even wearing masks had
become ineffective?
Ans A. Ministry of Home Affairs

B. Delhi High Court

C. Supreme Court of India

D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Q.98 In which district of Arunachal Pradesh did the Union Sports Minister Mansukh
Mandaviya inaugurate a new multi-purpose Khelo India Hall in May 2025?
Ans A. Lower Subansiri District

B. Kamle District

C. East Siang District

D. Papum Pare District

Q.99 In which forest region of Kerala were seven new moth species recorded for the
first time in 2025 by a team of entomologists?
Ans A. Periyar Tiger Reserve

B. Silent Valley

C. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

D. Ranipuram forest

Q.100 Which of the following organization’s main purpose is collective defence, meaning an
attack on one member is considered an attack on all?
Ans A. World Trade Organization (WTO)

B. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)

C. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

D. World Health Organization (WHO)

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 08/01/2026
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s e m
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 What is the primary safety function of the green insulated earth wire in a domestic
circuit, particularly for metallic appliances?
Ans A. To act as the neutral wire when the black wire fails

B. To provide a high-resistance path to divert excess current into the ground

C. To provide a low-resistance path to ensure leakage current keeps the appliance potential to that of the earth, preventing
severe shocks
D. To stabilise the voltage at 220 V
m
Q.2
m .co
The simple permanent tissue that provides mechanical support and flexibility to plant
parts such as stems and tendrils is __________.
s e
Ans A. sclerenchyma
g la
B. xylem
a
C. parenchyma

D. collenchyma

Q.3 Which of the following determine the size of an atom?
Ans A. Electron Clouds

B. Protons

m
.co
C. Nucleus

m
.co
D. Neutrons

e m
e
Q.4 m
Match the following columns.
l as
l as Column A (Situation) Column B (Effect)
ag
ag A. Acid rain 1. Occurs when pH < 5.5 in mouth

B. Indigestion 2. Antacids neutralise excess acid

C. Tooth decay 3. pH < 5.6 harms aquatic life

D. Bee sting 4. Neutralised by baking soda
Ans A. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

B. A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3

m .
.co m
C. A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4

m s e
D. A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4

s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.5 Why are autotrophs placed at the first trophic level in a food chain?
Ans A. Because they manufacture food from inorganic substances

B. Because they feed on herbivores

C. Because they consume organic waste materials

D. Because they decompose dead organisms

Q.6 A male patient has low sperm motility. Which glands are most likely to be NOT
functioning properly?
Ans A. Pancreas and adrenal glands

B. Prostate gland and seminal vesicles

C. Testis and bladder

D. Thyroxine and Pineal Glands

Q.7 Metals high in the activity series may be extracted by the process of:
Ans A. heating with carbon

B. electrolytic reduction

C. only heating

D. calcination

Q.8 మొక ని ఇతర అనువరన చలనాలకి నులి తీగల ( ం ల్) చలనం ఏ విధంగా పోలి
ఉం ంది?
Ans A. ఇది యాదృ క మరియు ఆక క పీడనం మా తమే.

B. ఇది ఉ పనకు పతిస ందనగా దిశాత క పెరుగుదలని కలిగి ఉం ంది.

C. ఇది ఎల డూ రా తి సమయంలో జరుగు ంది.

D. ఇది అంతరత నీటిపై ఆధారపడి ఉం ంది.

Q.9 According to Bohr-Bury, what is the maximum number of electrons that the M-shell can
accommodate?
Ans A. 18

B. 20

C. 2

D. 8

Q.10 What is a reduction reaction?
Ans A. Loss of neutrons

B. Loss of electrons

C. Gain of electrons

D. Gain of protons

Q.11 A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 49 m/s.
Calculate the maximum height it reaches before momentarily stopping.
(Take g = 9.8 m/s²).
Ans A. 49 m

B. 9.8 m

C. 122.5 m

D. 245 m

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

m
.co
Q.12 What can be said about the shape of a velocity-time graph for an object moving with
m
non-uniform acceleration?

. co
Ans A. It is always a downward sloping line.
s e m
m a
se l
B. It is a curved line.

C. It is always a horizontal line.
ag
D. It is always a straight line.

Q.13 Which of the following statement(s) is /are true about the image formed by a concave
mirror?
(i) A concave mirror always forms a real and inverted image whatever be the position of
the object.
(ii) A concave mirror forms a real, inverted and diminished image when the object is
placed between the focus and centre of curvature of the mirror.
(iii) A concave mirror forms a real, inverted and point sized image at its focus when the
m
.co
object is placed at infinity.

m
.co
Ans A. Both (ii) and (iii)

em
B. Both (i) and (ii)

e m l as
C. Only (iii)

l as ag
ag
D. Only (i)

Q.14 Which of the following is an example of a physical change during the formation of a
solution?
Ans A. Rusting of iron in salt solution

B. Dissolution of salt in water

C. Curdling of milk when lemon juice is added to it

D. Digestion of food in the stomach

m
.co
Q.15 The energy stored in an object due to its position or configuration is called:
Ans A. sound energy
e m
B. kinetic energy
las
C. potential energy
ag
D. thermal energy

Q.16 Which category of sound frequency is used by rhinoceroses, whales, and elephants for
communication?
Ans A. Infrasound

B. Audible sound

C. Ultrasound

m
.co
D. Supersonic sound
m
Q.17
m.co
Which property distinguishes a compound from a mixture?
s e m
s e
Ans A. Is made of more than one substance
g l a
g l a B. Is always a solid
a
a C. Can exist in any state

D. Has fixed composition and properties

Q.18 Why is variation important in sexually reproducing plants?
Ans A. It decreases the genetic diversity within the population.

B. It limits the adaptability of the species to changing environments.

C. It ensures all offspring are identical to the parent, maintaining uniformity.

m .
.co
D. It increases the chances of survival by enabling adaptation to environmental changes.

e m
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.19 The epithelial tissue forming the lining of kidney tubules and salivary gland ducts is
which of the following?
Ans A. Ciliated epithelium

B. Stratified epithelium

C. Columnar epithelium

D. Cuboidal epithelium

Q.20 A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle of 30° with the normal. The angle
between the incident ray and the reflected ray is:
Ans A. 30°

B. 60°

C. 90°

D. 120°

Q.21 Match the following statements about respiration with their correct features.
a. Aerobic respiration i. Does not require oxygen
b. Anaerobic respiration ii. Mitochondria
c. Pyruvate breakdown in the presence iii. Cytoplasm
of oxygen takes place in the
d. Glucose breakdown in the absence of iv. Requires oxygen
oxygen takes place in the

Ans A. a - iv, b - i, c - iii, d - ii

B. a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv

C. a - i, b - iv, c - ii, d - iii

D. a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

Q.22 Esters are __________ substances.
Ans A. pungent-smelling

B. sweet-smelling

C. sour-smelling

D. bitter-smelling

Q.23 A 7 V battery is connected in series with five resistors: 0.1 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω, 0.6 Ω and 12.4
Ω. What is the current flowing through the 12.4 Ω resistor?
Ans A. 0.5 A

B. 1 A

C. 2 A

D. 0.75 A

Q.24 Which among the following statements represents a characteristic of asexual
reproduction?
Ans A. Requires gametes

B. Produces genetically diverse offspring

C. Involves two parents

D. Involves only one parent

Q.25 What does the area under a velocity–time graph represent?
Ans A. The acceleration of the object

B. The time taken by the object

C. The displacement of the object during that time interval

D. The speed of the object

Section : Mathematics
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

m
.co
Q.26
m
. co s e m
m a
se Ans A.

ag l
B.

C.

D.

Q.27
m
m .co
.co m
Ans A. ₹3,235.20

m s e
B. ₹2,830.60

s e l a
a ag
C. ₹2,534.40
l
ag
D. ₹3,534.70

Q.28 Two trains A and B of lengths 496 m and 490 m are running at speeds of 12 m/s and 22
m/s, respectively, towards each other on parallel tracks. In how much time will they
cross each other?
Ans A. 29 seconds

B. 26 seconds

C. 30 seconds

D. 22 seconds
m
Q.29
m .co
A car travels for 70 km at a speed of 60 km/hr, then for another 80 km at a speed of 80

s e
km/hr, and finally for 50 km at a speed of 40 km/hr. What is the average speed of the

la
entire journey? (Round off the answer to 2 decimal places)

g
Ans A. 58.54 km/hr

B. 65.75 km/hr
a
C. 55.63 km/hr

D. 50.45 km/hr

Q.30

Ans A. 34

B. 35
m
m .co
.co
C. 38

e m
e m
D. 36

l as
l asQ.31 What is the difference between the average of prime numbers between 60 and 70 and
ag
ag Ans
the average of multiples of 4 between 50 and 58?
A. 1

B. 10

C. 11

D. 9

Q.32 An item is sold for ₹7,200 after two successive discounts of 36% and 10%. What is the
marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans A. 12,500
m .
B. 12,561
m .co s e m
C. 12,596
s e l a
D. 12,594
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.33 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 15 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 24 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 10

B. 20

C. 21

D. 11

Q.34 A person saves 60% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹560, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 1,224

B. 1,440

C. 1,336

D. 1,400

Q.35 A retailer offers the following discount schemes for buyers on an article.

I. Two successive discounts of 14%.
II. A discount of 22% followed by a discount of 29%.
III. Successive discounts of 22% and 7%.
IV. A discount of 14% followed by a discount of 6%.

Which scheme will fetch the maximum selling price?
Ans A. I

B. IV

C. II

D. III

Q.36 The number of prime numbers between 469 and 474 is:
Ans A. 2

B. 1

C. 3

D. 0

Q.37 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2,000 at 7% per annum rate of interest for the period
from 9 February 2023 to 23 April 2023.
Ans A. 29

B. 26

C. 27

D. 28

Q.38 If the HCF of two numbers is 12 and their product is 2160, what is the LCM of the two
numbers?
Ans A. 184

B. 200

C. 180

D. 190

Q.39

Ans A. 64

B. 32

C. 48

D. 50

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

m
.co
Q.40 If three-fifths of a number is 4 more than one-half of the number, what is the number?
m
co
Ans A. 35

. e m
m B. 45
as
se C. 40
ag l
D. 30

Q.41 The surface area of a sphere is 144π square units. What is the radius of the sphere?
Ans A. 8 units

B. 6 units

C. 10 units

D. 5 units
m
m .co
.co
Q.42 A man receives ₹1,890 per month as salary. He saves 30% of his salary every month. His
expenditure per month is:
em
Ans A. ₹1,323
e m l as
B. ₹1,336
l as ag
ag
C. ₹1,418

D. ₹1,269

Q.43 In an election, 60% of the total voters cast their votes. Out of these, 75% voted for
candidate A and the remaining voted for candidate B. If candidate B received 7500
votes, calculate the total number of registered voters.
Ans A. 50,000

B. 60,000

m
.co
C. 45,000

D. 40,000

e m
Q.44
las
Eight years ago, the ratio of Aman’s age to Riya’s age was 4 : 3. Eight years from now,

Ans A. 56 years ag
the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 4. What is Aman’s present age?

B. 72 years

C. 76 years

D. 70 years

Q.45

m
.co
Ans A. 40

m
.co m
B. 38

m s e
a
C. 36

s e g l
g l a D. 34
a
a Q.46 If 63 is the mean proportion between x and 147, what is the value of x?
Ans A. 29

B. 28

C. 25

D. 27

Q.47 The arithmetic mean of the observations 47, 71, 82, 59, 22, 43, 46, 96 and 56 is:

m .
.co
Ans A. 64

e m
B. 58

e m l as
C. 60

l as ag

D. 66
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.48 A person allows a 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and
still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked at ₹880?
Ans A. ₹720

B. ₹420

C. ₹620

D. ₹520

Q.49

830
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.50 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 21°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 27°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans A. 96°

B. 81°

C. 97°

D. 104°

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. FHC

B. JLP

C. MOJ

D. DFA

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

16 28 42 58 76 ?
Ans A. 96

B. 88

C. 90

D. 94

Q.53 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 1 7 1 2 2 9 3 5 8 9 2 4 3 2 4 4 3 5 9 4 3 3 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. Four

B. Three

C. One

D. Two

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

m
.co
Q.54 Vishal starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,
m
drives 4 km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km. He

. co takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
s e m
m a
se l
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 3 km to the east
ag
B. 4 km to the east

C. 4 km to the west

D. 3 km to the west

Q.55 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

ADE : FIJ
m
.co
MDG : RIL

m
.co
Ans A. BTS : YDR

em
B. UFL : ZKQ

e m l as
C. ZOT : GRS

l as ag
ag
D. VTE : ODR

Q.56 In a certain code language, ‘life offers hope’ is coded as ‘sc tp gb’ and ‘hope shapes
future’ is coded as ‘hk mp tp’. How is ‘hope’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. gb

B. tp

C. hk

D. sc

m
.co
Q.57 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

e
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
s
la
statements.

Statements:
Some peas are dogs. ag
No dog is a cub.

Conclusions:
(I) Some peas are cubs.
(II) Some dogs are peas.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.
m
m
D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
.co
m.co s e m
s e
Q.58 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
g l a
g l a (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding a
a to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(6, 3, 19)
(4, 3, 13)3475
Ans A. (3, 7, 22)

B. (8, 3, 26)

C. (5, 8, 40)

D. (5, 4, 16)
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.59 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

GNL : KSP
OXT : SCX
Ans A. QLY : VPB

B. NLV : SPA

C. VHD : ZKH

D. WHB : AMF

Q.60 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
2543769, which of the following digits will be second from the left in the new number
thus formed?
Ans A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 1

Q.61 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. TVZ

B. JLP

C. LNR

D. NPV

Q.62 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

6 ÷ 3 + 16 × 4 − 9 = ? + 5
Ans A. 24

B. 26

C. 30

D. 28

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

CRB ZOY WLV TIS ?
Ans A. QFO

B. QFP

C. QPF

D. QFR

Q.64 In a certain code language, ‘speak the truth’ is coded as ‘pc rd st’ and ‘truth always
wins’ is coded as ‘mo st kl’. How is ‘truth’ coded in that language? 3476
Ans A. kl

B. mo

C. pc

D. st

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

m
.co
Q.65 Which number should come in place of the question mark (?) to make the series
m
logically complete?

. co 527 524 529 522 531 ?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. 520

B. 515 ag l
C. 521

D. 525

Q.66 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 9 3 7 9 8 7 7 6 2 9 1 6 2 7 4 8 5 5 6 5 (Right)

m
.co
How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd

m
digit and also immediately followed by a perfect square?

.co
(NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square)
m s em
Ans A. 3
s e l a
l a ag
ag
B. 1

C. 4

D. 2

Q.67 Six friends — P, Q, R, S, U and V — are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.
P is the immediate neighbour of both Q and R. R is sitting to the immediate left of U. V is
sitting second to the left of P.
How many people sit between P and S, when counted from the right of S?
Ans A. Three

m
.co
B. Two

C. One

e m
D. None

las
Q.68
ag
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 9 4 8 3 3 3 1 4 7 8 7 1 7 2 9 1 3 5 1 5 9 6 4 8 4 6 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 10

B. 8

C. 7
m
m
D. 9
.co
m.co s e m
s
Q.69
e
Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept between A and E. Only F is kept above G. No
g l a
g l a box is kept below E. C is kept at some place below D but at some place above B. How
many boxes are kept above D? a
a Ans A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.70 Prashant starts from Point A and drives 32 km towards the south. He then takes a right
turn, drives 29 km, turns right and drives 43 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 54
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 11 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 25 km to the west

B. 28 km to the east

C. 27 km to the east

D. 26 km to the west

Q.71 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits third to the
right of F. D sits second to the left of C. A sits third to the right of C. E sits to the
immediate left of B. How many people sit between E and A when counted from the left of
A?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. None

D. One

Q.72 Each of the digits in the number 78352416 is arranged in descending order from left to
right. What will be the product of the digits that are third from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 24

B. 12

C. 16

D. 18

Q.73 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 5 6 4 4 6 2 6 5 2 8 2 8 3 6 3 1 4 8 7 3 5 2 7 3 2 3 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

Q.74 Five people, L, M, N, O and P, are sitting in a row, facing towards the north.
N is sitting at third position from the extreme right end of the row. M is not an immediate
neighbour of N. P is sitting to the immediate left to N. P is sitting immediate right to O.
Who is sitting between N and M?
Ans A. P

B. O

C. L

D. N

Q.75 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

QRP 64 STR 54 UVT 44 WXV 34 ?
Ans A. YAW 24

B. YYW 23

C. YGP 23

D. YZX 24

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

m
.co
Q.76 Seven boxes, B, D, E, P, S, T and W, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
m
the same order. Only three boxes are kept above B. Only one box is kept between P and

. co B. Only three boxes are kept between P and T. T is kept at some place above B. D is kept
immediately below T. E is kept at one of the places above S. W is not kept immediately
s e m
m a
se l
above or below P. How many boxes are kept between S and D?
Ans A. One
ag
B. Two

C. Four

D. Three

Q.77 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
m
Statements:
m .co
.co m
All trees are boats.
No pens are boats.
m s e
All combs are trees.
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Conclusions:
(I) All combs are boats.
(II) No pens are combs.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.78 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’,
m
.co
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
e m
How is P related to R if ‘P + Q × S ÷ T – R’?
las
Ans A. Mother’s brother
ag
B. Brother’s son

C. Sister’s son

D. Daughter’s son

Q.79 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 2 8 16 64 ?

m
.co
Ans A. 124

m
.co
B. 128

e m
e m C. 132

l as
l as D. 136
ag
ag Q.80 YUTU is related to XTST in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, FBAB is related to EAZA. To which of the given options is GCBC related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. FCZG

B. FBZB

C. FAZB

D. FBAB

m .
.co m
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.81 Which Union Minister unveiled a new logo of Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) in
October 2024?
Ans A. Amit Shah

B. Giriraj Singh

C. Jitin Prasada

D. Jyotiraditya M Scindia

Q.82 In July 2025, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs partnered with which organisation to support
68 Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) in Chhattisgarh, benefiting more than
28,000 tribal students?
Ans A. Coal India Limited

B. National Thermal Power Corporation

C. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation

D. Steel Authority of India Limited

Q.83 What is the primary objective of the large-scale civil defence mock drill named
Operation Shield conducted on May 2025?
Ans A. To enhance readiness against internal insurgencies

B. To simulate response to natural disasters in Himalayan regions

C. To improve the state's emergency readiness and response systems

D. To test the effectiveness of coastal security protocols

Q.84 Which of the following bodies published the GRFC (Global Report on Food Crises),
2025?
Ans A. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

B. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

C. Food Security Information Network (FSIN)

D. World Food Programme alone

Q.85 Who was IPL 2025’s Most Valuable Player from Mumbai Indians?
Ans A. Krunal Pandya

B. Suryakumar Yadav

C. Rohit Sharma

D. Jasprit Bumrah

Q.86 In March 2025, which summit in New Delhi focused on “Partnerships for Accelerating
Sustainable Development and Climate Solutions”?
Ans A. Conference of the Parties (COP) 30

B. World Sustainable Development Summit

C. United Nations Environment Assembly- 5

D. G20 Environment Summit

Q.87 What was the name of the operation launched in May 2025 in response to a terror attack
in Pahalgam?
Ans A. Operation Vijay

B. Operation Abhiman

C. Operation Sindoor

D. Operation Raksha

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

m
.co
Q.88 What is the name of India’s first AI-generated school teacher robot, unveiled by
m
Makerlabs Edutech at a school in Kerala?

. co
Ans A. Vedika
s e m
m a
se l
B. Sophia

C. Esha
ag
D. Iris

Q.89 Which country has officially become the first European nation to join the
Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)?
Ans A. Germany

B. Italy

C. France
m
D. Britain
m .co
Q.90
m .co
At the 2025 BCCI Naman Awards, who received the Lifetime Achievement Award?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. Jasprit Bumrah

l a
ag
B. Smriti Mandhana

C. Sachin Tendulkar

D. Virat Kohli

Q.91 Which former World Bank/IMF economist was appointed as the RBI Deputy Governor in
April 2025?
Ans A. Raghuram Rajan

B. Poonam Gupta

m
.co
C. Michael Patra

D. Urjit Patel

e m
Q.92
las
Which individual from Haryana, a Paralympic gold medallist, was honoured with the

Ans
Padma Shri in January 2025?
A. Harvinder Singh ag
B. Vinod Kumar

C. Mariyappan Thangavelu

D. Deepa Malik

Q.93 Which of the following cities served as the venue for the Curtain Raiser of the 18th
Urban Mobility India (UMI) Conference and Exhibition 2025, organised by the Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?
m
m .co
Ans A. New Delhi, Delhi

m.co B. Noida, Uttar Pradesh

s e m
s e C. Jaipur, Rajasthan

g l a
g l a D. Gurugram, Haryana
a
a Q.94 Who among the following won the Chinese Grand Prix, 2025?
Ans A. Lando Norris

B. Oscar Piastri

C. Lewis Hamilton

D. Charles Leclerc

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.95 Which of the following insurance companies were designated as Domestic Systemically
Important Insurers (D-SIIs) for the year 2024–25 by the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI)?
Ans A. LIC, The New India Assurance, and GIC Re

B. LIC, Tata AIG, and Bajaj Allianz

C. LIC, HDFC ERGO, and Reliance General

D. HDFC Life, ICICI Lombard, and SBI Life

Q.96 In 2025, IDFC FIRST Bank has enabled Unified Payments Interface (UPI) access for Non-
Resident Indians (NRIs) in how many countries?
Ans A. 11

B. 12

C. 13

D. 10

Q.97 At which venue did Jyothi Yarraji set a record-breaking performance during the National
Games 2025?
Ans A. Kalinga Stadium, Odisha

B. Nehru Stadium, Chennai

C. Ganga Athletics Ground, Uttarakhand

D. Sree Kanteerava Stadium, Bengaluru

Q.98 Which of the following Union Ministers launched India’s National Red List Roadmap in
October 2025?
Ans A. Piyush Goyal

B. Nitin Jairam Gadkari

C. Bhupender Yadav

D. Kirti Vardhan Singh

Q.99 Who among the following authored the 2025 book “Rocket Dreams: Musk, Bezos, and
the Inside Story of the New, Trillion-Dollar Space Race”, which explores the fierce
rivalries among billionaires in the modern space race?
Ans A. Neil deGrasse Tyson

B. Walter Isaacson

C. Christian Davenport

D. Ashlee Vance

Q.100 ‘Montha,’ which made landfall in India in October 2025, was what type of natural
phenomenon?
Ans A. An extremely severe cyclonic storm over the Kutch region

B. A deep depression over the Arabian Sea bringing rainfall to southern India

C. A severe cyclonic storm over the Bay of Bengal

D. A tropical thunderstorm affecting coastal Gujarat

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 08/01/2026
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 When is the work done by a constant force on an object maximum?
Ans A. When the force is opposite to the displacement

B. When the force makes an angle of 45° with the displacement

C. When the force is perpendicular to the displacement

D. When the force is in the same direction as the displacement

m
.co
Q.2 Which of the following correctly represents the total number of atoms in one molecule
of ammonium sulphate ((NH4)2SO4)?

e m
Ans A. 16

las
B. 15

C. 14 ag
D. 10

Q.3 Cytoplasm is made up of an aqueous ground substance called:
Ans A. chromoplasm

B. cytosol

C. lysosomal fluid
m
.co
D. nucleoplasm
m
Q.4
m.co
What quantity is measured in cubic centimetres (cm3)?
s e m
s e g l a
a
Ans A. Volume

g l a
a
B. Temperature

C. Pressure

D. Mass

Q.5 If you want to make water evaporate faster, what should you do?
Ans A. Increase the temperature and expose it to a fan.

B. Cover the container.

m .
C. Use a narrow, deep container.

.co
D. Place it in a cool, humid room.

m s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 The Rutherford gold foil experiment established the presence of:
Ans A. Electrons

B. Nucleus

C. Protons

D. Neutrons

Q.7 A ray of light parallel to the principal axis, after reflection from a concave mirror,
_________.
Ans A. passes through the pole

B. remains parallel to the axis

C. passes through the principal focus

D. passes through the centre of curvature

Q.8 Which roasting operation shown below burns out sulphur from a sulphide ore?
Ans A. Volatilising

B. Smelting

C. Oxidising

D. Chloridising

Q.9 The pattern formed by iron filings around a bar magnet demonstrates ___________.
Ans A. electrostatic force

B. gravitational field lines

C. electric field lines

D. magnetic field lines

Q.10 Consider the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Baking soda is a mild non-corrosive basic salt.
Statement B: It can neutralise acids and relieve stomach acidity.
Ans A. Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.

B. Both statements A and B are correct.

C. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

D. Both statements A and B are incorrect.

Q.11 What happens to the uterus lining if the egg is not fertilised?
Ans A. It gets absorbed by the body.

B. It is unaffected.

C. It breaks down and is discharged through the vagina.

D. It becomes thickened.

Q.12 Which of the following best describes fragmentation as a method of asexual
reproduction?
Ans A. The parent body breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism.

B. A new organism grows from a bud formed on the parent’s body.

C. A single cell divides into two identical daughter cells.

D. The parent organism divides into many cells which develop into spores.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

m
.co
Q.13 In a eukaryotic cell observed under a microscope, the three main components visible
m
co
are:

. e m
s
Ans A. endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body and nucleoid
m a
se B. plasma membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm

C. capsule, nucleoid and cytoplasm ag l
D. cell wall, ribosome and vacuole

Q.14 What happens to a substance when it is reduced in a reaction?
Ans A. It loses protons

B. It becomes more reactive

C. It loses electrons

m
.co
D. It gains electrons
m
Q.15 .co
Why are megaphones, loudhailers and some musical instruments designed with a tube
m s em
e
followed by a conical opening?
s l a
Ans
l a
A. To make the sound quieter
ag
ag
B. To absorb the sound waves

C. To direct most of the sound waves forward toward the audience without spreading it

D. To spread the sound in all directions

Q.16 Which of the following reactions is an example of a reduction reaction?
Ans A. 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO

B. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O

C. Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
m
D. CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O
m .co
s e
Q.17
la
The sensation of feeling full after eaten enough is perceived in which part of our body?

g
Ans A. Mid-brain

B. Fore-brain
a
C. Buccal cavity

D. Heart

Q.18 A car moves with uniform velocity v. Which of the following statements is true about its
velocity–time graph?
Ans A. Slope of graph = 0
m
.co
B. Graph passes through origin only
m
m .co C. Slope of graph = velocity

s e m
s e D. Slope of graph = displacement

g l a
g l a Q.19 Read the given statements and select the most appropriate option. a
a Statement 1: When a ball is thrown vertically upward, its velocity decreases at the rate
of g.
Statement 2: The acceleration due to gravity acts downward even when the ball moves
upward.
Ans A. Both Statements are incorrect

B. Only Statement 1 is correct

C. Only Statement 2 is correct

D. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.20 During non-uniform motion of an object along a straight line _______.
Ans A. the change in velocity over any time interval is non zero.

B. the change in velocity over any time interval is zero.

C. the velocity remains constant with time.

D. the velocity has same values at different points of the path.

Q.21 The non-directional movement of plants due to stimulus of sunlight is called:
Ans A. photonasty

B. phototropism

C. thigmonasty

D. thigmotropism

Q.22 A person is prescribed spectacles of +2 D. What type of lens is used in the spectacles?
Ans A. Convex lens

B. Cylindrical lens

C. Concave lens

D. Prism lens

Q.23 Using cracked crockery to grow small plants is an example of ________.
Ans A. Recycle

B. Reuse

C. Refuse

D. Repurpose

Q.24 In which of the following cases is pregnancy least likely to occur?
Ans A. Egg not released from ovary

B. Embryo implants in the uterus

C. Fertilisation happens in the oviduct

D. Sperm meets egg in the uterus

Q.25 Which of the following statements is correct about the direction of the magnetic field
lines inside a current-carrying solenoid?
Ans A. The magnetic field lines are parallel and along the axis of the solenoid from its south pole to north pole.

B. The magnetic field lines are random inside the solenoid.

C. The magnetic field lines are circular and perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid.

D. The magnetic field lines are parallel and along the axis of the solenoid from its north pole to south pole.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The age of T is 20 years more than the age of R. S's age is 10 years less than the age of
P. P's age is half the age of R. The sum of ages of all is 130 years. What is the age of R
in years?
Ans A. 30

B. 44

C. 40

D. 36

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

m
.co
Q.27 A garrison of 1209 men has provisions for 24 days. How long (in days) will the
m
co
provisions last if the garrison is increased by 403 men?

. e m
s
Ans A. 13
m a
se B. 18

C. 38 ag l
D. 28

Q.28 For 6 innings, a cricketer had an average of 100 runs. In the 7th inning, he scored 235
runs. His average score increased by ______. (Round off the answer to the nearest
whole number.)
Ans A. 21

B. 19
m
m .co
C. 9

D. 11

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.29 What is the mode of the following data?
l
Ans A. 43
ag
47, 51, 51, 48, 53, 54, 47, 52, 51, 46, 43, 47, 52, 40, 47, 41, 43, 43, 46, 474284

B. 48

C. 51

D. 47

Q.30

m
Ans A. 9
m .co
B. 81
s e
C. 27
g la
D. 3 a
Q.31 The amount on a sum of ₹1,200 at 15% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹1,846

B. ₹1,725

C. ₹1,646

D. ₹1,587
m
m .co
Q.32

m .co
Ravi buys a shirt with a marked price of ₹1,620. He receives two successive discounts
of 20% and 10%. Calculate the price Ravi paid for the shirt.4360
s e m
s e
Ans A. ₹1,260.45
g l a
g l a B. ₹1,166.40 a
a C. ₹1,288.25

D. ₹1,330.50

Q.33

3206
Ans A. 19 km/hr

m .
B. 26 km/hr

C. 29 km/hr

m .co s e m
D. 34 km/hr
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.34 The sum of two numbers is 45. One number is 5 more than the other. Find the larger
number.
Ans A. 25

B. 20

C. 15

D. 35

Q.35 ₹1,411 is divided among Pooja, Harsh and Madhur in such a way that if ₹12, ₹23 and ₹43
are deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 21:16:6. Find
the actual share of Harsh.
Ans A. ₹596

B. ₹519

C. ₹646

D. ₹546

Q.36 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 44°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 5 : 6, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 5°

B. 7°

C. 8°

D. 13°

Q.37
Ans A. 64

B. 4

C. 36

D. 16

Q.38 The marked price of a washing machine is ₹62,000. A shopkeeper allows a discount of
73% and gets a profit of 20%. What is the cost price of the washing machine?
Ans A. ₹13,966

B. ₹13,950

C. ₹14,058

D. ₹14,038

Q.39 The curved surface area and the height of a right circular cylinder are 924 cm2and 14
cm, respectively. Find its diameter (in cm).

Ans A. 21

B. 20

C. 18

D. 24

Q.40 The monthly incomes of two friends David and Ashish, are in the ratio 5 : 9,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹39,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of David (in ₹).
Ans A. 1,94,000

B. 2,73,000

C. 1,96,000

D. 1,95,000

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

m
.co
Q.41 A ladder 10 metres long leans against a wall making an angle of 60° with the ground.
m
co
Find the height (in metres) of the wall the ladder reaches.

. e m
s
Ans A.
m a
se B.
ag l
C.

D.

Q.42 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 9 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 36 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 3

m
.co
B. 4

m
.co m
C. 6

m s e
D. 7

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.43 Due to water crisis, 40% of the initial population left the village, and 10% of the
remaining left the town for pursuing jobs. If presently, 1080 people inhabit the village,
what is the ratio of the initial population to the present population?
Ans A. 57:32

B. 50:27

C. 52:32

D. 50:23

Q.44 A cistern has a hole at the bottom through which water leaks. A tap can fill the cistern
m
.co
in 9 hours and the hole at the bottom can empty the fully filled cistern in 12 hours. If
both the tap and the hole are open, then what will be the time taken to completely fill
the empty cistern?
e m
Ans A. 33.3 hours

las
B. 27 hours

C. 36 hours ag
D. 29.9 hours

Q.45 Find a single discount (approximately) equal to three consecutive discounts of 22%, 8%
and 17%.
Ans A. 42.91%

B. 43.38%

m
.co
C. 43.24%

m
.co m
D. 40.44%

m s e
s e
Q.46 The fourth proportional to 20, 15 and 8 is the same as the third proportional to A and 30.
g l a
g l a What is the value of A?
a
a Ans A. 147

B. 150

C. 148

D. 153

Q.47 What is the greatest volume container (in litres) that can measure 300 litres, 280 litres
and 180 litres.
Ans A. 20
m .
.co m
B. 60

m s e
C. 70

s e l a
D. 120

g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.48 Find the number of bricks required to build a wall 20 m long, 9.9 m high and 30 cm
thick, using bricks of size 25 cm × 11 cm × 8 cm, if 10% of the wall volume is filled with
cement.
Ans A. 26,500

B. 25,800

C. 30,200

D. 24,300

Q.49 A shopkeeper marks his goods at 40% above the cost price. He then offers a discount
of 20% on the marked price. What is his profit percentage?
Ans A. 15%

B. 10%

C. 18%

D. 12%

Q.50 A car travels 187 km in the first hour and 273 km in the second hour. What is the
average speed (in km/hr) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans A. 223

B. 231

C. 222

D. 230

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. SVO

B. EHA

C. GJC

D. IMK

Q.52 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

(90 A 9) B 4 C (28 A 7) B 8 D 9 B 6 C 18 A 2 = ?
Ans A. 42

B. 27

C. 35

D. 51

Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

95 83 72 62 53 ?
Ans A. 45

B. 46

C. 43

D. 51

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

m
.co
Q.54 Kiran starts from Point Y and drives 35 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
m
co
drives 22 km, turns right and drives 39 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 48 km.

. He takes a left turn, drives 26 km. He then turns right, drives 12 km, turns left and
e m
m
drives 48 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
as
se l
should he drive in order to reach Point Y again?

(All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.) ag
Ans A. 81 km towards west

B. 82 km towards west

C. 78 km towards east

D. 87 km towards east

Q.55 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
m
m .co
.co
JHK : IEG
JUM : IRI
em
Ans A. EOP : DLK
e m l as
B. ETI : DQD
l as ag
ag
C. HIJ : GEF

D. QNN : PKJ

Q.56 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘-’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

(24 Q 6) P 15 S (10 Q 2) P 7 R (80 Q 8) P 6 = ?
Ans A. 49

m
B. 21

C. 35

m .co
D. 58
s e
g la
a
Q.57 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. C
sits to the immediate left of B. W sits to the immediate left of A. A sits second to the left
of X. D sits third to the left of B. Who sits third to the right of Y?
Ans A. W

B. A

C. D

D. C

Q.58 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
m .co
.co
2, 8, 14, 20, 26, ?

e m
Ans

e m
A. 34

l as
l as B. 32

ag
ag C. 33

D. 30

Q.59 This question is based on the following words.

TOK, THE, HAS, ALL, COW

If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical order, how many words thus formed will have no vowel?
Ans A. Four

m .
.co m
B. Two

m s e
a
C. One

s e l
a ag
D. Three

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.60 In a certain code language, ‘do you sing’ is coded as ‘ln vt df’ and ‘they sing well’ is
coded as ‘vt mp bo’. How is ‘sing’ coded in the given language?

(All codes are two-letter codes)
Ans A. df

B. mp

C. ln

D. vt

Q.61 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. AWP

B. LHA

C. GCV

D. YUM

Q.62 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 6 9 1 2 7 6 6 8 1 8 9 6 7 2 4 1 9 1 2 6 8 2 9 6 3 1 7 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there (from left to right), each of which is
immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd
number?
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6

Q.63 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

15 – 8 ÷ 4 + 40 × 10 + 10 = ?
Ans A. 112

B. 114

C. 108

D. 110

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 3 7 15 ? 63
Ans A. 31

B. 30

C. 20

D. 26

Q.65 GCKO is related to VRZD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, OKSW is related to DZHL. To which of the given options is HDLP related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. WSAE

B. WESQ

C. WASE

D. WSXD

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 48

m
.co
Q.66 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
co
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
e m
m
statements.
as
se Statements:
All radios are microphones. ag l
All radios are speakers.

Conclusions:
(I): Some microphones are speakers.
(II): All speakers are radios.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
m
m
D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
.co
m .co s em
Q.67 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.

s e l a
ag
Only two people sit between G and B. Only D sits to the right of E. Only one person sits

l a
between B and E. F sits at some place to the right of C but at some place to the left of A.

ag
How many people sit to the right of C?
Ans A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 4

Q.68 In a certain code language, ‘YARD’ is coded as ‘4579’ and ‘TOYS’ is coded as ‘2385’.
What is the code for ‘Y’ in the given code language?

m
.co
Ans A. 5

B. 4

e m
C. 8

las
D. 7
ag
Q.69 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some burgers are fries.
Some fries are tacos.

m
.co
Conclusions:

m
(I) Some burgers are tacos.

.co m
(II) All tacos are fries.

m s e
s e
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

g l a
g l a B. Only conclusion (II) follows.
a
a C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.70 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

USO 48 NLH 39 GEA 30 ZXT 21 ?
Ans A. SQM 12

m .
B. SRL 12

C. SPL 11

m .co s e m
D. SWB 11
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.71 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

ILK−ORQ
QTS−WZY
Ans A. CFE−HLJ

B. CEC−ILK

C. CEC−HKJ

D. CFE−ILK

Q.72 Seven boxes D, E, F, U, V, W and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. No box is kept above X. Only two boxes are kept between W and V. Only U
is kept below E. Only three boxes are kept between E and W. D is not kept immediately
above V. How many boxes are kept between F and U?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. One

Q.73 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/ subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

9 - 3 - 27
5 - 4 - 201425
Ans A. 3 - 12 - 46

B. 10 - 5 - 50

C. 4 - 6 - 10

D. 8 - 5- 30

Q.74 In a code language,
A + B means ‘A is the father of B’
A - B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A * B means ‘A is the sister of B’
A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’
Based on the above, how is Q related to P if ‘Q + R * S - T ÷ P’?
Ans A. Father’s brother

B. Mother’s brother

C. Father

D. Mother’s father

Q.75 Pooja started from point A. She drove 20 km north, then turned west and drove 15 km.
She then turned south and drove 5 km to arrive at point B. In which direction is point B
with respect to point A? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. West

B. North-east

C. South-west

D. North-west

Q.76 In a row of 37 people facing north, Gayatri is 10th from the right end. If Mayank sits 12th
to the left of Gayatri, what is Mayank’s position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. 15th

B. 19th

C. 16th

D. 17th
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

m
.co
Q.77 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
m
co
the following series.

. e m
m
ZDF1, YGH3, XJJ9, WML27, ?
as
se Ans A. WQM79

B. WPM79 ag l
C. VPN81

D. VQM81

Q.78 Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits third from the left
end of the row. E sits fifth from the left end of the row. Only B sits between A and D.
Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?
Ans A. C
m
m .co
B. B

C. E

m .co s em
D. A
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.79 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 8 3 5 4 6 8 3 2 6 9 7 1 3 8 9 8 2 7 8 5 7 6 9 7 4 4 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 4

B. 2

C. 3
m
.co
D. 1

e m
Q.80
s
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only).
la
ag
(Left) 4 9 2 6 5 1 3 7 8 2 9 4 1 5 7 3 8 2 9 4 6 1 (Right)

How many unique numbers in the series are perfect cubes (each number counted only
once, regardless of repetitions)?
Ans A. Two

B. One

C. None

D. Three
m
m .co
.co m
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

m s e
s e
Q.81 Who is the youngest-ever winner of the Carnegie Medal for writing in 2025, for
‘Glasgow Boys’?
g l a
g l a Ans A. Banu Mushtaq a
a B. Nigel Slater

C. Margaret McDonald

D. Charlotte McConaghy

Q.82 Which organisation developed the 10-ton vertical planetary mixer, the world’s largest
for solid propellants, as reported in 2025?
Ans A. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

m .
.co
B. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)

e m
e m
C. Indian Institute of Science (IISc)

l as
s
D. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

l a ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.83 In January 2025, Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel inaugurated the Khel
Mahakumbh in Rajkot, Gujarat, India. Which edition of the event was it?
Ans A. 1.0

B. 4.0

C. 2.0

D. 3.0

Q.84 What is the title of the 2025 UNICEF report on child nutrition?
Ans A. Feeding Futures: Nutrition for Children

B. Growing Well: Global Child Nutrition Index

C. Feeding Profit: How Food Environments Are Failing Children

D. Nourish the Next: Global Nutrition Review

Q.85 Who among the following was posthumously awarded the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar
2025 in 'Vigyan Ratna' category?
Ans A. Prakash Kumar

B. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar

C. Vidya Subramanian

D. Pavannan

Q.86 Which of the following missiles was successfully fired by the Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO) on 24 September 2025 from a rail-mounted mobile
launcher in coordination with the Strategic Forces Command?
Ans A. Prithvi-II Ballistic Missile

B. BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile

C. Akash Surface-to-Air Missile

D. Intermediate Range Agni-Prime Missile

Q.87 As per the Sustainable Development Goals — National Indicator Framework Progress
Report, 2025, published in June 2025, what percentage of the rural population used
improved sources of drinking water during the year 2024–2025?
Ans A. 95.45%

B. 98.25%

C. 99.62%

D. 97.80%

Q.88 Which Indian-Colombian pair won the men’s doubles title at the 2025 Chile Open?
Ans A. Yuki Bhambri and Nicolás Barrientos

B. Rithvik Bollipalli and Nicolás Barrientos

C. Rohan Bopanna and Juan Sebastián Cabal

D. Arjun Kadhe and Alejandro Gómez

Q.89 Who was appointed as the Chief Minister of Delhi following the 2025 elections?
Ans A. Atishi Marlena

B. Arvind Kejriwal

C. Rekha Gupta

D. Manish Sisodia

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

m
.co
Q.90 In June 2025, Standard & Poor's (S&P) Global Ratings revised India’s gross domestic
m
co
product (GDP) growth forecast for FY26 to _____.

. e m
s
Ans A. 6.75%
m a
se B. 6.5%

C. 7.25% ag l
D. 7.0%

Q.91 Which of the following rivers was affected by flash floods triggered by torrential rain in
Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand in August 2025?
Ans A. Bhagirathi River

B. Alaknanda River

C. Mandakini River
m
m .co
.co
D. Kheer Ganga River

em
Q.92
e m
What is the primary objective of the NASA–ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
l as
s
satellite launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota in July 2025?

l a ag
ag
Ans A. To strengthen military surveillance and border security operations

B. To explore deep space and study distant planetary atmospheres

C. To enhance global monitoring of climate change and natural disasters

D. To improve global internet connectivity through satellite communication

Q.93 Which of the following lunar missions became the first to detect over 250 seismic
signals from the Moon’s south pole, marking a significant advancement in lunar
exploration since the Apollo missions?

m
Ans A. Artemis I

B. Chang'e 5

m .co
C. Luna 1
s e
D. Chandrayaan-3
g la
Q.94
a
Which of the following two main types of support are provided to rural families under
the Poverty‑Free Village Scheme launched by Rajasthan in July 2025?
Ans A. Irrigation infrastructure and farming tools

B. Cash assistance and employment opportunities

C. Health insurance coverage and credit loans

D. Housing construction and school education

m
.co
Q.95 Where was the 11th National Handloom Day celebrated on 7 August 2025, where the
m
.co
President of India presented the Sant Kabir Handloom Awards and National Handloom
Awards?
e m
e
Ans
m A. Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
l as
l as B. Vigyan Bhavan, New Delhi
ag
ag C. India Gate Lawns, New Delhi

D. Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi

Q.96 What medal did India win in the women’s 10m air pistol event at the ISSF Junior World
Cup, 2025?
Ans A. No medal

B. Gold

m .
C. Bronze

D. Silver

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.97 In which city was the 23rd edition of the National Para Athletics Championships, 2025,
organised?
Ans A. Bengaluru

B. Chennai

C. Hyderabad

D. New Delhi

Q.98 In June 2025, how many enforcement actions did the Reserve Bank of India take across
financial institutions?
Ans A. 253

B. 353

C. 153

D. 453

Q.99 What is the primary objective of India’s Chandrayaan-4 mission scheduled for 2027?
Ans A. To study Mars’ atmosphere in detail

B. To establish a permanent lunar base on the moon

C. To launch the first Indian astronaut into space

D. To bring back samples of moon rocks to Earth

Q.100 Which of the following countries ranked 1st in the Global Innovation Index 2025
published by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)?
Ans A. Switzerland

B. United States of America

C. Sweden

D. Singapore

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48