GATE 2023 Question Paper BT Biotechnology

The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering

GATE 2023
Question Paper
GATE is an entrance examination conducted in India that
primarily tests the comprehensive understanding of
undergraduate subjects in engineering and sciences for
admission into technical postgraduate programs.

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General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 “You are delaying the completion of the task. Send _______ contributions at the
earliest.”

(A) you are

(B) your

(C) you’re

(D) yore

Q.2 References : ______ : : Guidelines : Implement

(By word meaning)

(A) Sight

(B) Site

(C) Cite

(D) Plagiarise

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Q.3 In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram with PS = 7 cm, PT = 4 cm and
PV = 5 cm. What is the length of RS in cm? (The diagram is representative.)

7
P S

5 90°
4
90° V
Q T R

(A) 20
7

(B) 28
5

(C) 9
2

(D) 35
4

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Q.4 In 2022, June Huh was awarded the Fields medal, which is the highest prize in
Mathematics.

When he was younger, he was also a poet. He did not win any medals in the
International Mathematics Olympiads. He dropped out of college.

Based only on the above information, which one of the following statements can be
logically inferred with certainty?

(A) Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad.

(B) Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal.

(C) All Fields medalists are part-time poets.

(D) Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.

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Q.5 A line of symmetry is defined as a line that divides a figure into two parts in a way
such that each part is a mirror image of the other part about that line.

The given figure consists of 16 unit squares arranged as shown. In addition to the
three black squares, what is the minimum number of squares that must be coloured
black, such that both PQ and MN form lines of symmetry? (The figure is
representative)

P N

M
Q

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

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Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 Human beings are one among many creatures that inhabit an imagined world. In
this imagined world, some creatures are cruel. If in this imagined world, it is given
that the statement “Some human beings are not cruel creatures” is FALSE, then
which of the following set of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All human beings are cruel creatures.
(ii) Some human beings are cruel creatures.
(iii) Some creatures that are cruel are human beings.
(iv) No human beings are cruel creatures.

(A) only (i)

(B) only (iii) and (iv)

(C) only (i) and (ii)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q.7 To construct a wall, sand and cement are mixed in the ratio of 3:1. The cost of sand
and that of cement are in the ratio of 1:2.

If the total cost of sand and cement to construct the wall is 1000 rupees, then what
is the cost (in rupees) of cement used?

(A) 400

(B) 600

(C) 800

(D) 200

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The World Bank has declared that it does not plan to offer new financing to Sri
Q.8 Lanka, which is battling its worst economic crisis in decades, until the country has
an adequate macroeconomic policy framework in place. In a statement, the World
Bank said Sri Lanka needed to adopt structural reforms that focus on economic
stabilisation and tackle the root causes of its crisis. The latter has starved it of
foreign exchange and led to shortages of food, fuel, and medicines. The bank is
repurposing resources under existing loans to help alleviate shortages of essential
items such as medicine, cooking gas, fertiliser, meals for children, and cash for
vulnerable households.

Based only on the above passage, which one of the following statements can be
inferred with certainty?

(A) According to the World Bank, the root cause of Sri Lanka’s economic crisis is that
it does not have enough foreign exchange.

(B) The World Bank has stated that it will advise the Sri Lankan government about how
to tackle the root causes of its economic crisis.

(C) According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate
macroeconomic policy framework.

(D) The World Bank has stated that it will provide Sri Lanka with additional funds for
essentials such as food, fuel, and medicines.

Q.9 The coefficient of 𝑥 4 in the polynomial (𝑥 − 1)3 (𝑥 − 2)3 is equal to _______.

(A) 33

(B) ̶ 3

(C) 30

(D) 21

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Q.10 Which one of the following shapes can be used to tile (completely cover by
repeating) a flat plane, extending to infinity in all directions, without leaving any
empty spaces in between them? The copies of the shape used to tile are identical
and are not allowed to overlap.

(A) circle

(B) regular octagon

(C) regular pentagon

(D) rhombus

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Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 Eukaryotic transcription is carried out by

(A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

(B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

(C) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

(D) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Q.12 Acetylcholine released by the parasympathetic nerves has which one of the
following functions in the heart pacemaker cells?

(A) It binds to GPCR and activates G protein to slow the heart rate

(B) It stimulates GABA-activated ion-channel coupled receptor to increase the heart
rate

(C) It binds to GPCR and inhibits G protein to slow the heart rate

(D) It inhibits GABA-activated ion-channel coupled receptor to increase the heart rate

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Q.13 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: In multicellular organisms, cells of different lineages have different
gene expression profiles.

Reason [r]: Alternative splicing is the only mechanism to generate protein
diversity.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are false

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(C) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.14 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: Chromosome mutations can change the structure of chromosomes.

Reason [r]: All chromosome mutations arise due to nondisjunction of
chromosomes during mitosis or meiosis.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are false

(B) [a] is true but [r] is false

(C) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

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Q.15 C-value paradox refers to

(A) the lack of correlation between genome size and genetic complexity of an
organism

(B) the presence of genetic sequences that propagate themselves within a genome

(C) the coexistence of multiple alleles at a genetic locus

(D) the concept that two or more genes may have the same function

Q.16 Which one of the following drugs is NOT an immune checkpoint inhibitor?

(A) Ipilimumab

(B) Pembrolizumab

(C) Nivolumab

(D) Trastuzumab

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Q.17 Dendritic cells are involved in cross-presentation of antigens. Which of the
following protein(s) is(are) required for cross-presentation?

P. Basic leucine zipper ATF-like transcription factor 3 (BATF3)

Q. Membrane associated ring-CH-type finger 1 (MARCH-1)

R. Solute carrier family 10 member 1 (SLC10A1)

S. Class II-associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP)

(A) P only

(B) P and R only

(C) P, Q and R only

(D) S only

Q.18 Which one of the following is required for the development of B-cells in the bone
marrow?

(A) Stromal cells

(B) Dendritic cells

(C) Kupffer cells

(D) NK cells

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Q.19 Which one of the following statements is TRUE about leghemoglobin?

(A) It binds oxygen to protect nitrogenase

(B) It binds hemoglobin to protect oxygenase

(C) It binds oxygen to protect hydrogenase

(D) It binds oxygen to protect oxygenase

Q.20 The correct sequence of events during bacteriophage infection of a bacterial cell is

(A) landing → attachment → tail contraction → penetration and unplugging → DNA
ejection

(B) attachment → landing → penetration and unplugging → tail contraction → DNA
ejection

(C) landing → tail contraction → attachment → DNA ejection → penetration and
unplugging

(D) attachment → tail contraction → landing → penetration and unplugging → DNA
ejection

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Q.21 Intracellular proteins are targeted for proteolytic degradation in proteasomes upon
conjugation with

(A) ubiquitin

(B) integrin

(C) peptidase

(D) calreticulin

Q.22 In ELISA, which of the following enzymes are conjugated to antibodies for
detection of the analyte?

P. Alkaline phosphatase

Q. Trypsinase

R. Horseradish peroxidase

S. Amylase

(A) P and R

(B) P and Q

(C) Q and S

(D) R and S

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Q.23 In hybridoma technology, which one of the following enzymes is absent in the
myeloma cells that are used for monoclonal antibody production?

(A) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase

(B) Alanine aminotransferase

(C) Triose phosphate isomerase

(D) Glycosyltransferase

Q.24 Which of the following methods are used for detection of DNA and RNA,
respectively?

(A) Southern and Northern blotting

(B) Southern and Western blotting

(C) Northern and Southern blotting

(D) Northern and Western blotting

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Q.25 Match the types of RNA in Group I with their corresponding function in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. mRNA 1. Serves as adaptors between mRNA and
amino acids during protein synthesis

Q. rRNA 2. Regulates post-transcriptional gene
expression

R. miRNA 3. Codes for proteins

S. tRNA 4. Forms the core of the ribosome structure and
catalyzes protein synthesis

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

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Q.26 Which one of the following programs is used for finding distantly related (or
remote) protein homologs?

(A) BLASTN

(B) BLASTX

(C) PSI-BLAST

(D) TBLASTX

Q.27 Which one of the following is used for global alignment of two protein sequences?

(A) Chou-Fasman method

(B) Garnier-Osguthorpe-Robson (GOR) method

(C) Needleman-Wunsch algorithm

(D) Smith-Waterman algorithm

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Q.28 Which one of the following methods CANNOT be used to determine the
secondary structure content of a protein?

(A) Circular dichroism spectroscopy

(B) Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy

(C) Mass spectrometry

(D) X-ray crystallography

Q.29 Which one of the following plant growth regulators facilitate adventitious root
formation?

(A) Auxin

(B) Zeatin

(C) Dihydrozeatin

(D) Kinetin

Q.20 Fabry disease in humans is a X-linked disease. The probability (in percentage) for
a phenotypically normal father and a carrier mother to have a son with Fabry

disease is ____________.

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Q.31  cos 2 x − cos 4 x 
The value of lim   is ____________.
x→0  x2

Q.32 A series (S) is given as

S = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + ……

The sum of the first 50 terms of S is ____________.

Q.33 Two fair six-sided dice are thrown. The probability of getting 12 as the product of
the numbers on the dice (rounded off to two decimal places) is ____________.

Q.34 If 73 x = 216 , the value of 7− x (rounded off to three decimal places)
is ____________.

Q.35 The distance between the two points of intersection of x 2 + y = 7 and x + y = 7
(rounded off to two decimal places) is ____________.

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Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.36 Match the immune tolerance mechanisms in Group I with their respective
outcomes in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Anergy 1. Elimination of activated T-cells
after antigen clearance

Q. Activation-induced cell death 2. Inhibition of auto-reactive T-cells at
periphery

R. Receptor editing 3. Unresponsiveness to antigens due to
lack of co-stimulatory molecules

S. Regulatory T-cells 4. Elimination of auto-reactive B-cells

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

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Q.37 Match the type of bacteria in Group I with their respective growth properties in
Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Halophile 1. Grows optimally between 20 ℃ and 45 ℃

Q. Piezophile 2. Grows best at low water activity

R. Mesophile 3. Grows at high level of salt

S. Xerophile 4. Grows optimally at high hydrostatic pressure

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

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Q.38 Match the virus in Group I with the type of genome it contains in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. T4 bacteriophage 1. dsRNA

Q. SARS-CoV-2 2. ssDNA

R. Pseudomonas phage 6 3. dsDNA

S. X174 bacteriophage 4. ssRNA

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

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Q.39 The event(s) that lead(s) to inactivation of tumor suppressor genes in cancer cells
is(are)

(A) gene amplification

(B) promoter methylation

(C) loss of heterozygosity

(D) histone acetylation

Q.40 Methylation of CpG islands near the promoter of a gene can inhibit transcription
by

(A) preventing RNA polymerase binding

(B) facilitating repressor binding

(C) facilitating heterochromatin formation

(D) inducing euchromatin formation

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Q.41 Which of the following statement(s) is(are) TRUE about induced pluripotent stem
cells?

(A) They can self-renew

(B) They require specific signals to maintain their stemness

(C) They cannot be genetically manipulated

(D) They can form organoids in vitro

Q.42 Which of the following statement(s) is(are) TRUE about fluoroquinolone drugs?

(A) They contain quinolone ring(s)

(B) They inhibit RNA polymerase

(C) They bind to bacterial topoisomerase

(D) They bind to 23S rRNA within the 50S ribosome subunit

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Q.43 Which of the following is(are) plant protoplast fusogenic agent(s)?

(A) Sodium nitrate

(B) Polyvinyl alcohol

(C) Polyethylene glycol

(D) Bromoxynil

Q.44 Direct DNA transfer method(s) used for plant genetic engineering is(are)

(A) microparticle bombardment

(B) electroporation

(C) polyethylene glycol treatment

(D) Agrobacterium-mediated transformation

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Q.45 Which of the following vector(s) is(are) used to clone a DNA fragment of size
220 kb?

(A) Bacterial artificial chromosome

(B) Yeast artificial chromosome

(C) Cosmids

(D) pUC19 plasmid

Q.46 The following reaction represents biomass synthesis from hexadecane

C16 H 34 + 12.5O2 + 2.13NH 3 →10.6CH1.66O0.27 N 0.27 + 5.37CO2 + 11.4 H 2O

where CH1.66O0.27 N 0.27 represents the biomass. The value of respiratory
quotient (rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Q.47 Temperature of a reaction with an activation energy value of 15 kcal . mol −1 is
increased from 300 K to 310 K. If the value of the ideal gas constant (R) is
1.9872 cal . mol −1. K −1 , the ratio of the reaction rate constants  k310 
 k300  (rounded
off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Q.48 E. coli is cultivated in a chemostat operated at a dilution rate of 0.2 h −1 . The

values of biomass yield due to oxygen consumption and the steady state biomass
concentration are 0.2 g .g −1 and 10 g .L−1 , respectively. The oxygen transfer rate
(in g .L−1.h −1 ) is ___________.

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Q.49 Aqueous two-phase extraction is used to recover α-amylase from a solution. A
polypropylene glycol-dextran mixture is added and the solution separates into
upper and lower phases. The partition coefficient is 4.0 and the ratio of upper to
lower phase volume is 5.0. The enzyme recovery or yield (in percentage, rounded
off to the nearest integer) is ___________.

Q.50 E. coli cultivated at 298 K uptakes an uncharged compound (A) by passive
diffusion. The intracellular and extracellular concentrations of A are 0.001 M and
0.1 M, respectively. If the value of the ideal gas constant R is
1.9872 cal. mol −1. K −1 , the free-energy change (in kcal. mol −1 ) for this passive
diffusion of A (rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Q.51 If there are three unrooted trees for four protein sequences, the number of rooted
trees for the same number of sequences is ___________.

Q.52 The number of different possible ways of forming five intramolecular disulfide
bonds with ten cysteine residues of a protein is ___________.

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Q.53 The following schematic diagram shows a chemostat with cell recycle

where F0 and Fr are the volumetric flow rates (in L . h −1 ) of feed and recycle
streams, respectively. X1, X0 and X are the cell concentrations (in g . L−1 ) in the
X F
reactor, recycle-stream and product-stream, respectively. If 0 =1.5, r = 0.7 and
X1 F0
X1 is 7.3 g . L−1 , the value of X (in g . L−1 , rounded off to one decimal place)
is ___________.

Q.54 An enzyme (E) catalyzes the biochemical reaction A → B with kcat equal to
500 s −1 . If the initial reaction velocity ( V0 ) is 10  M . s −1 at the total enzyme
concentration [ Et ] of 30 nM and substrate concentration [A] of 40  M , the
value of K m (in  M ) is ____________.

Q.55 DNA sample collected from an unidentified bacterial species (Y) contains 13% of
adenine. The G+C content (in percentage) of Y is ___________.

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Q.56 If 1000 bp of a double-helical DNA weighs 110−18 gm and distance between
two bp is 0.34nm , the total amount of DNA (in mg, rounded off to one decimal
place) required to stretch from Earth to Moon (assuming the distance between
Earth and Moon to be 3,74,000 km) is ___________.

Q.57 A protein has three identical sites arranged at the vertices of an equilateral
triangle. If one site is filled with a dye (donor), the measured quantum yield (  D )
is 0.5. Filling one site with a donor dye and a second site with an acceptor dye
results in  D of 0.25. The measured  D of one site filled with donor and the other
two sites filled with acceptor dye (rounded off to three decimal places)
is ___________.

Q.58 1 2
If A =   , the value of A + 3 A − 5 A + 6I is ___________.
4 2

3 5

Q.59 sin x + cos x
If f ( x) = , the value of f ( x) at x = 0 is ___________.
sin x − cos x

Q.60 If f (2) = 5 and ( f ( x) )( f ( x + 1)) = 3 for all real values of x , the value of f (10)
is ___________.

Q.61 Ten playing cards numbered 1, 2, 3, …., 10 are placed face down on a table. One
card is drawn at random, its number recorded, and then replaced face down. A
card is drawn again at random. The probability that the number on the second

draw is greater than the number on the first draw (rounded off to two decimal
places) is ___________.

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Q.62 The values of the consistency index ‘ K ’ and the flow behavior index ‘ n ’ of a
dilatant fluid are 0.415 (in CGS units) and 1.23, respectively. The value of the
apparent viscosity (in g . cm −1. s −1 ) of this fluid at a shear rate of 60 s −1 (rounded
off to the nearest integer) is ___________.

Q.63 An evaporator is insulated using glass wool material of 0.15 m thickness. The
inner most surface and the outer surface of the insulation are at 700 C and
80 C , respectively. The mean thermal conductivity of the glass wool under these
conditions is 0.29 W . m −1. K −1 . The rate of heat loss (in W ) through 1.2 m2 of the
evaporator wall surface (rounded off to the nearest integer) is __________.

Q.64 A proportional controller is used to control the temperature of an autoclave from
60 C to 130 C . If the proportional band setting of the controller is 25%, the
proportional gain value is __________.

Q.65 A dNTP master-mix is prepared by combining 40  L of each 20 mM dNTP stock
(dATP, dCTP, dGTP and dTTP). 4  L of this dNTP master-mix is added to a PCR
mix and the final volume is adjusted to 50  L . The concentration (in  M ) of total
dNTPs in the PCR mix is __________.

END OF QUESTION PAPER

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