Kerala Plus Two Question Paper 2023 Home Science – Text
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Page 1
SECOND YEAR
Kerala Board
Question Paper
2023
Download PDF
Page 2
Reg. No. : ......................................
Name : ...........................................
SY-528
SECOND YEAR HIGHER SECONDARY EXAMINATION, MARCH 2023
Part – III Time : 2 Hours
HOME SCIENCE Cool-off time : 15 Minutes
Maximum : 60 Scores
General Instructions to Candidates :
There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time.
Use the ‘Cool-off time’ to get familiar with questions and to plan your answers.
Read questions carefully before answering.
Read the instructions carefully.
Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
15 ‘ ’ .
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PART – A
Answer any 12 questions from 1 to 14. Each carries 1 score. (12 1 = 12)
1. Identify water soluble vitamin from the following :
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin E
2. The protein allowance recommended for an adult is ________ per kilogram body
weight.
(a) 1 gm (b) 60 gm
(c) 100 gm (d) None of these
3. Odd one out :
(a) Fermentation (b) Germination
(c) Pasteurization (d) Fortification
4. Expand ICMR.
5. Choose calcium deficiency disease :
(a) Scurvy (b) Osteoporosis
(c) Anaemia (d) Goitre
6. Find out bactericidal method from the following
(a) Canning (b) Smoking
(c) Freeze drying (d) Sun drying
7. High calorie diet is prescribed for _______.
(a) Under weight (b) Obesity
(c) Diabetes (d) None of these
8. Complete it :
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PART – A
1 14 12 .
1 . (12 1 = 12)
1. .
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
2. ______
.
(a) 1 (b) 60
(c) 100 (d)
3. .
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
4. ICMR .
5. .
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
6. .
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
7. _________.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
8. .
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9. Types of yarns are
(a) Single yarn
(b) Ply yarn
(c) _______
10. Identify the comb like device which is placed towards the front of the loom.
(a) Reed (b) Shuttle
(c) Harness (d) None of these
11. Name the finishing process which gives whiteness to the fabric.
(a) Bleaching (b) Scouring
(c) Singeing (d) Calendaring
12. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Photographic and tonographic with multiple colours can be printed on textiles
through digital printing.
(b) Screen printing was referred as silk screen printing.
(c) Block printing is the new method of printing design on fabric.
(d) Roller printing is the machine counter part of block printing.
13. An out-of school system of education is ________.
(a) Extension education (b) Formal education
(c) Continuous education (d) None of these
14. Complete it :
Sender Message Treatment Channel (a) ? .
PART – B
Answer any 8 questions from 15 to 24. Each carries 2 scores. (8 2 = 16)
15. List the symptoms of Marasmus.
16. Define ‘Reference Woman’.
17. Differentiate between Macrocytic anaemia and microcytic anaemia.
18. Classify fibres according to their length.
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9.
(a)
(b)
(c) _______
10.
.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
11. .
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
12. .
(a)
.
(b) .
(c) .
(d) .
13. ________
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14.
(a) ? .
PART – B
15 24 8 .
2 . (8 2 = 16)
15. .
16. ‘ ’ .
17.
.
18. .
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19. Linen is suitable for summer season. Justify.
20. Name any two important aspect of yarn twist.
21. Explain the advantages of mercerization.
22. Mention the variations of plain weave.
23. Classify finishes based on the life of the finishes.
24. Differentiate between formal education and extension education. (Any two)
PART – C
Answer any 5 questions from 25 to 30. Each carries 4 scores. (5 4 = 20)
25. Draw the classification of proteins and explain each.
26. Write short notes on :
(a) Energy yielding food
(b) Protective and regulatory food
27. Describe the causes of food spoilage.
28. Analyse the characteristics of women fabrics.
29. Describe different types of communication methods.
30. Explain different stages of dyeing.
PART – D
Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 6 scores. (2 6 = 12)
31. Explain the functions of the following nutrients :
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Vitamin A
32. Evaluate the physical properties of cotton.
33. Draw Dale’s ‘Cone of Experience’.
_____________
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19. . .
20. 2 .
21. .
22. .
23.
.
24.
. ( 2 )
PART – C
25 30 5 .
4 . (5 4 = 20)
25. .
26.
(a)
(b)
27. .
28. .
29. .
30. .
PART – D
31 33 2 .
6 . (2 6 = 12)
31. .
(a)
(b)
32. () .
33. .
_____________
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