GATE 2025 Question Paper Life Sciences (XL)
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Page 1
GATE
2025
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.
2025
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.
Page 2
General Aptitude
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 Even though I had planned to go skiing with my friends, I had to __________ at the
last moment because of an injury.
Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.
(A) back up
(B) back of
(C) back on
(D) back out
Q.2 The President, along with the Council of Ministers, ___________ to visit India next
week.
Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.
(A) wish
(B) wishes
(C) will wish
(D) is wishing
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 1 of 76
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 Even though I had planned to go skiing with my friends, I had to __________ at the
last moment because of an injury.
Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.
(A) back up
(B) back of
(C) back on
(D) back out
Q.2 The President, along with the Council of Ministers, ___________ to visit India next
week.
Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.
(A) wish
(B) wishes
(C) will wish
(D) is wishing
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 1 of 76
Page 3
Q.3 An electricity utility company charges ₹ 7 per kWh (kilo watt-hour). If a 40-watt
desk light is left on for 10 hours each night for 180 days, what would be the cost of
energy consumption? If the desk light is on for 2 more hours each night for the 180
days, what would be the percentage-increase in the cost of energy consumption?
(A) ₹ 604.8; 10%
(B) ₹ 504; 20%
(C) ₹ 604.8; 12%
(D) ₹ 720; 15%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 2 of 76
desk light is left on for 10 hours each night for 180 days, what would be the cost of
energy consumption? If the desk light is on for 2 more hours each night for the 180
days, what would be the percentage-increase in the cost of energy consumption?
(A) ₹ 604.8; 10%
(B) ₹ 504; 20%
(C) ₹ 604.8; 12%
(D) ₹ 720; 15%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 2 of 76
Page 4
Q.4 In the context of the given figure, which one of the following options correctly
represents the entries in the blocks labelled (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), respectively?
N U F (i)
21 14 9 6
H L (ii) O
12 (iv) 15 (iii)
(A) Q, M, 12, and 8
(B) K, L, 10 and 14
(C) I, J, 10, and 8
(D) L, K, 12 and 8
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 3 of 76
represents the entries in the blocks labelled (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), respectively?
N U F (i)
21 14 9 6
H L (ii) O
12 (iv) 15 (iii)
(A) Q, M, 12, and 8
(B) K, L, 10 and 14
(C) I, J, 10, and 8
(D) L, K, 12 and 8
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 3 of 76
Page 5
Q.5 A bag contains Violet (V), Yellow (Y), Red (R), and Green (G) balls. On counting
them, the following results are obtained:
(i) The sum of Yellow balls and twice the number of Violet balls is 50.
(ii) The sum of Violet and Green balls is 50.
(iii) The sum of Yellow and Red balls is 50.
(iv) The sum of Violet and twice the number of Red balls is 50.
Which one of the following Pie charts correctly represents the balls in the bag?
(A)
V
10%
G R
40% 20%
Y
30%
(B)
G
30% V
40%
Y
20% R
10%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 4 of 76
them, the following results are obtained:
(i) The sum of Yellow balls and twice the number of Violet balls is 50.
(ii) The sum of Violet and Green balls is 50.
(iii) The sum of Yellow and Red balls is 50.
(iv) The sum of Violet and twice the number of Red balls is 50.
Which one of the following Pie charts correctly represents the balls in the bag?
(A)
V
10%
G R
40% 20%
Y
30%
(B)
G
30% V
40%
Y
20% R
10%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 4 of 76
Page 6
(C)
G
20% V
30%
Y
10%
R
40%
(D)
G
10% V
20%
Y
40% R
30%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 5 of 76
G
20% V
30%
Y
10%
R
40%
(D)
G
10% V
20%
Y
40% R
30%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 5 of 76
Page 7
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 “His life was divided between the books, his friends, and long walks. A solitary
man, he worked at all hours without much method, and probably courted his fatal
illness in this way. To his own name there is not much to show; but such was his
liberality that he was continually helping others, and fruits of his erudition are
widely scattered, and have gone to increase many a comparative stranger’s
reputation.”
(From E.V. Lucas’s “A Funeral”)
Based only on the information provided in the above passage, which one of the
following statements is true?
(A) The solitary man described in the passage is dead.
(B) Strangers helped create a grand reputation for the solitary man described in the
passage.
(C) The solitary man described in the passage found joy in scattering fruits.
(D) The solitary man worked in a court where he fell ill.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 6 of 76
Q.6 “His life was divided between the books, his friends, and long walks. A solitary
man, he worked at all hours without much method, and probably courted his fatal
illness in this way. To his own name there is not much to show; but such was his
liberality that he was continually helping others, and fruits of his erudition are
widely scattered, and have gone to increase many a comparative stranger’s
reputation.”
(From E.V. Lucas’s “A Funeral”)
Based only on the information provided in the above passage, which one of the
following statements is true?
(A) The solitary man described in the passage is dead.
(B) Strangers helped create a grand reputation for the solitary man described in the
passage.
(C) The solitary man described in the passage found joy in scattering fruits.
(D) The solitary man worked in a court where he fell ill.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 6 of 76
Page 8
Q.7 For the clock shown in the figure, if
O* = O Q S Z P R T, and
X* = X Z P W Y O Q ,
then which one among the given options is most appropriate for P* ?
(A) P U W R T V X
(B) P R T O Q S U
(C) P T V Q S U W
(D) P S U P R T V
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 7 of 76
O* = O Q S Z P R T, and
X* = X Z P W Y O Q ,
then which one among the given options is most appropriate for P* ?
(A) P U W R T V X
(B) P R T O Q S U
(C) P T V Q S U W
(D) P S U P R T V
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 7 of 76
Page 9
Q.8 Consider a five-digit number 𝑃𝑄𝑅𝑆𝑇 that has distinct digits 𝑃, 𝑄, 𝑅, 𝑆, and 𝑇, and
satisfies the following conditions:
𝑃<𝑄
𝑆>𝑃>𝑇
𝑅<𝑇
If integers 1 through 5 are used to construct such a number, the value of 𝑃 is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Q.9 A business person buys potatoes of two different varieties P and Q, mixes them in
a certain ratio and sells them at ₹ 192 per kg.
The cost of the variety P is ₹ 800 for 5 kg.
The cost of the variety Q is ₹ 800 for 4 kg.
If the person gets 8% profit, what is the P:Q ratio (by weight)?
(A) 5:4
(B) 3:4
(C) 3:2
(D) 1:1
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 8 of 76
satisfies the following conditions:
𝑃<𝑄
𝑆>𝑃>𝑇
𝑅<𝑇
If integers 1 through 5 are used to construct such a number, the value of 𝑃 is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Q.9 A business person buys potatoes of two different varieties P and Q, mixes them in
a certain ratio and sells them at ₹ 192 per kg.
The cost of the variety P is ₹ 800 for 5 kg.
The cost of the variety Q is ₹ 800 for 4 kg.
If the person gets 8% profit, what is the P:Q ratio (by weight)?
(A) 5:4
(B) 3:4
(C) 3:2
(D) 1:1
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 8 of 76
Page 10
Q.10 Three villages P, Q, and R are located in such a way that the distance PQ = 13 km,
QR = 14 km, and RP = 15 km, as shown in the figure. A straight road joins Q and
R. It is proposed to connect P to this road QR by constructing another road. What
is the minimum possible length (in km) of this connecting road?
Note: The figure shown is representative.
P
13 km 15 km
Q R
14 km
(A) 10.5
(B) 11.0
(C) 12.0
(D) 12.5
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 9 of 76
QR = 14 km, and RP = 15 km, as shown in the figure. A straight road joins Q and
R. It is proposed to connect P to this road QR by constructing another road. What
is the minimum possible length (in km) of this connecting road?
Note: The figure shown is representative.
P
13 km 15 km
Q R
14 km
(A) 10.5
(B) 11.0
(C) 12.0
(D) 12.5
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 9 of 76
Page 11
Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The rate of solvolysis for the following tertiary halides in 80% aqueous ethanol at
25 °C follows the order
(A) I < II < III
(B) II < III < I
(C) III < II < I
(D) II < I < III
Q. 12 The CORRECT order of boiling points for the hydrogen halides is
(A) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
(B) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(C) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(D) HI > HF > HBr > HCl
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 10 of 76
Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The rate of solvolysis for the following tertiary halides in 80% aqueous ethanol at
25 °C follows the order
(A) I < II < III
(B) II < III < I
(C) III < II < I
(D) II < I < III
Q. 12 The CORRECT order of boiling points for the hydrogen halides is
(A) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
(B) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(C) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(D) HI > HF > HBr > HCl
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 10 of 76
Page 12
Q. 13 The bond order in 𝑁22− species is
(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 3.5
Q. 14 The standard enthalpy of the reaction,
C (graphite) + H2 O (g) → CO (g) + H2 (g) is found to be +131.3 kJ mol-1
and the ∆𝑓 𝐻 0 value for CO (g) is ‒110.5 kJ mol-1.
The value of ∆𝑓 𝐻 0 (in kJ mol-1) for H2O (g) is
(The standard enthalpies of formation of elements in their reference states are zero
at all temperatures)
(A) +241.8
(B) 0.0
(C) −241.8
(D) +20.8
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 11 of 76
(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 3.5
Q. 14 The standard enthalpy of the reaction,
C (graphite) + H2 O (g) → CO (g) + H2 (g) is found to be +131.3 kJ mol-1
and the ∆𝑓 𝐻 0 value for CO (g) is ‒110.5 kJ mol-1.
The value of ∆𝑓 𝐻 0 (in kJ mol-1) for H2O (g) is
(The standard enthalpies of formation of elements in their reference states are zero
at all temperatures)
(A) +241.8
(B) 0.0
(C) −241.8
(D) +20.8
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 11 of 76
Page 13
Q. 15 The temperature dependence of reaction rates is generally given by the Arrhenius
equation. A plot of ln 𝑘𝑟 against 1/𝑇 is a straight line from which the pre-
exponential factor ‘A’ and the activation energy ‘𝐸𝑎 ’ can be determined.
The CORRECT option regarding this plot is
(A) Slope: − 𝐸𝑎 ⁄𝑅 ; Intercept on the y-axis: ln 𝐴
(B) Slope: + 𝐸𝑎 ⁄2.303𝑅 ; Intercept on the y-axis: A
(C) Slope: +𝐸𝑎 /𝑅; Intercept on the y-axis: A
(D) Slope: − 𝐸𝑎 ⁄2.303𝑅 ; Intercept on the y-axis: ln 𝐴
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 12 of 76
equation. A plot of ln 𝑘𝑟 against 1/𝑇 is a straight line from which the pre-
exponential factor ‘A’ and the activation energy ‘𝐸𝑎 ’ can be determined.
The CORRECT option regarding this plot is
(A) Slope: − 𝐸𝑎 ⁄𝑅 ; Intercept on the y-axis: ln 𝐴
(B) Slope: + 𝐸𝑎 ⁄2.303𝑅 ; Intercept on the y-axis: A
(C) Slope: +𝐸𝑎 /𝑅; Intercept on the y-axis: A
(D) Slope: − 𝐸𝑎 ⁄2.303𝑅 ; Intercept on the y-axis: ln 𝐴
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 12 of 76
Page 14
Q. 16 The isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from 𝑉𝑖 to 𝑉𝑓 at temperature,
T occurs in two ways.
Path I: a reversible isothermal expansion;
Path II: free expansion against zero external pressure
The CORRECT option for the values of ∆𝑈, 𝑞 and 𝑤 for Path I and Path II is
(A) Path I: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 > 0, 𝑤 < 0
Path II: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 = 0, 𝑤 = 0
(B) Path I: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 > 0, 𝑤 < 0
Path II: ∆𝑈 > 0, 𝑞 > 0, 𝑤 = 0
(C) Path I: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 < 0, 𝑤 > 0
Path II: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 > 0, 𝑤 < 0
(D) Path I: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 < 0, 𝑤 > 0
Path II: ∆𝑈 < 0, 𝑞 = 0, 𝑤 = 0
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 13 of 76
T occurs in two ways.
Path I: a reversible isothermal expansion;
Path II: free expansion against zero external pressure
The CORRECT option for the values of ∆𝑈, 𝑞 and 𝑤 for Path I and Path II is
(A) Path I: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 > 0, 𝑤 < 0
Path II: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 = 0, 𝑤 = 0
(B) Path I: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 > 0, 𝑤 < 0
Path II: ∆𝑈 > 0, 𝑞 > 0, 𝑤 = 0
(C) Path I: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 < 0, 𝑤 > 0
Path II: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 > 0, 𝑤 < 0
(D) Path I: ∆𝑈 = 0, 𝑞 < 0, 𝑤 > 0
Path II: ∆𝑈 < 0, 𝑞 = 0, 𝑤 = 0
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 13 of 76
Page 15
Q. 17 The CORRECT statement(s) regarding the given molecules is(are)
(A) Both I and II are achiral molecules.
(B) Both II and III are chiral molecules.
(C) IV is a chiral molecule.
(D) Both III and IV are chiral molecules.
Q.18 The CORRECT statement(s) about [Ni(CN)4 ]2− , [Ni(CO)4 ] and [NiCl4 ]2− is(are)
(Given: Atomic number of Ni: 28)
(A) Both [Ni(CN)4 ]2− and [Ni(CO)4 ] are square planar complexes.
(B) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− is diamagnetic and [NiCl4 ]2− is paramagnetic.
(C) Both [Ni(CO)4 ] and [NiCl4 ]2− are paramagnetic.
(D) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− is square planar and [NiCl4 ]2− is tetrahedral in shape.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 14 of 76
(A) Both I and II are achiral molecules.
(B) Both II and III are chiral molecules.
(C) IV is a chiral molecule.
(D) Both III and IV are chiral molecules.
Q.18 The CORRECT statement(s) about [Ni(CN)4 ]2− , [Ni(CO)4 ] and [NiCl4 ]2− is(are)
(Given: Atomic number of Ni: 28)
(A) Both [Ni(CN)4 ]2− and [Ni(CO)4 ] are square planar complexes.
(B) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− is diamagnetic and [NiCl4 ]2− is paramagnetic.
(C) Both [Ni(CO)4 ] and [NiCl4 ]2− are paramagnetic.
(D) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− is square planar and [NiCl4 ]2− is tetrahedral in shape.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 14 of 76
Page 16
Q.19 Consider the two 𝑝𝐾𝑎 values of valine as 2.32 and 9.62. The isoelectric point (pI)
of this amino acid is ______. (rounded off to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 15 of 76
of this amino acid is ______. (rounded off to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 15 of 76
Page 17
Q.20 – Q.27 Carry TWO marks Each
Q. 20 A few species are given in Column I. Column II contains the hybrid orbitals used
by the central atom of the species for bonding.
The CORRECT match for the species to their central atom hybridization is
(Given: Atomic numbers of B: 5; C: 6; O: 8; F: 9; P: 15; Cl: 17; I: 53)
Column I Column II
Species Hybrid orbitals used by the
central atom for bonding
i. I3− a. sp
ii. PCl3 b. sp2
iii. BF3 c. sp3
iv. CO2 d. sp3d
(A) i−d, ii−c, iii−b, iv−a
(B) i−a, ii−d, iii−b, iv−c
(C) i−d, ii−c, iii−a, iv−b
(D) i−d, ii−b, iii−c, iv−a
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 16 of 76
Q. 20 A few species are given in Column I. Column II contains the hybrid orbitals used
by the central atom of the species for bonding.
The CORRECT match for the species to their central atom hybridization is
(Given: Atomic numbers of B: 5; C: 6; O: 8; F: 9; P: 15; Cl: 17; I: 53)
Column I Column II
Species Hybrid orbitals used by the
central atom for bonding
i. I3− a. sp
ii. PCl3 b. sp2
iii. BF3 c. sp3
iv. CO2 d. sp3d
(A) i−d, ii−c, iii−b, iv−a
(B) i−a, ii−d, iii−b, iv−c
(C) i−d, ii−c, iii−a, iv−b
(D) i−d, ii−b, iii−c, iv−a
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 16 of 76
Page 18
Q. 21 For product formation from only one type of reactant (e.g. 𝐴 → product), the
CORRECT match for the order of the reaction (given in Column I) with the half-
life expression (given in Column II) is
([𝐴]0 is the initial concentration and 𝑘𝑟 is the rate constant)
Column I Column II
Order Half-life expression
i. Zero P. ln 2⁄
𝑘𝑟
[𝐴]0
ii. First Q. ⁄2𝑘
𝑟
iii. Second R. 1⁄
𝑘𝑟 [𝐴]0
2𝑘𝑟
S. ⁄[𝐴]
0
(A) i−R, ii−P, iii−S
(B) i−Q, ii−P, iii−R
(C) i−S, ii−R, iii−Q
(D) i−Q, ii−P, iii−S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 17 of 76
CORRECT match for the order of the reaction (given in Column I) with the half-
life expression (given in Column II) is
([𝐴]0 is the initial concentration and 𝑘𝑟 is the rate constant)
Column I Column II
Order Half-life expression
i. Zero P. ln 2⁄
𝑘𝑟
[𝐴]0
ii. First Q. ⁄2𝑘
𝑟
iii. Second R. 1⁄
𝑘𝑟 [𝐴]0
2𝑘𝑟
S. ⁄[𝐴]
0
(A) i−R, ii−P, iii−S
(B) i−Q, ii−P, iii−R
(C) i−S, ii−R, iii−Q
(D) i−Q, ii−P, iii−S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 17 of 76
Page 19
Q. 22 The CORRECT statement(s) for the given reactions is(are)
(A) P is formed as the major product in reaction I.
(B) P is formed as the major product in reaction II.
(C) Q is formed as the major product in reaction IV.
(D) R is formed as the major product in reaction III.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 18 of 76
(A) P is formed as the major product in reaction I.
(B) P is formed as the major product in reaction II.
(C) Q is formed as the major product in reaction IV.
(D) R is formed as the major product in reaction III.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 18 of 76
Page 20
Q. 23 Addition of a few drops of concentrated HCl to an aqueous solution of CoCl2
forms a dark blue complex X.
The CORRECT statement(s) for this reaction is(are)
(Given: Atomic number of Co: 27)
(A) X is a centrosymmetric complex.
(B) The oxidation state of cobalt does not change in this reaction.
(C) The number of unpaired electrons on cobalt in X and in CoCl2 (aqueous solution)
are the same.
(D) The spin only magnetic moment value for X is 3.87 BM.
Q. 24 The CORRECT statement(s) regarding biomolecules is(are)
(A) The N-terminal amino acid of a polypeptide can be identified by Edman’s reagent
(phenyl isothiocyanate).
(B) L-Threonine has only one chiral center.
(C) Cytosine is present both in RNA and DNA.
(D) A mixture of different amino acids can be separated by ion-exchange
chromatography.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 19 of 76
forms a dark blue complex X.
The CORRECT statement(s) for this reaction is(are)
(Given: Atomic number of Co: 27)
(A) X is a centrosymmetric complex.
(B) The oxidation state of cobalt does not change in this reaction.
(C) The number of unpaired electrons on cobalt in X and in CoCl2 (aqueous solution)
are the same.
(D) The spin only magnetic moment value for X is 3.87 BM.
Q. 24 The CORRECT statement(s) regarding biomolecules is(are)
(A) The N-terminal amino acid of a polypeptide can be identified by Edman’s reagent
(phenyl isothiocyanate).
(B) L-Threonine has only one chiral center.
(C) Cytosine is present both in RNA and DNA.
(D) A mixture of different amino acids can be separated by ion-exchange
chromatography.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 19 of 76
Page 21
Q. 25 Energy of the transition from 𝑛ℎ = 4 to 𝑛𝑙 = 2 for hydrogen atom is E × 103 cm-1.
Given: Rydberg constant for hydrogen: 1.097 x 107 𝑚−1.
Value of E is ______________. (rounded off to two decimal places)
Q. 26 A non-volatile solute has a molecular weight of 180 g mol-1. Assume that the solute
does not associate or dissociate in water, and the boiling-point constant
(ebullioscopic constant) of water is 0.51 K kg mol-1.
The amount (in g) of solute added to 500 g of water to elevate the boiling point by
0.153 K is ______. (answer in integer)
Q. 27 The standard potentials (𝐸 0 ) for the Fe3+/Fe and Fe3+/Fe2+ couples are −0.04 V
and +0.76 V, respectively.
Given: Faraday constant = 96500 C mol-1.
The value for 𝐸 0 (Fe2+/Fe), in V, is ____________. (rounded off to two decimal
places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 20 of 76
Given: Rydberg constant for hydrogen: 1.097 x 107 𝑚−1.
Value of E is ______________. (rounded off to two decimal places)
Q. 26 A non-volatile solute has a molecular weight of 180 g mol-1. Assume that the solute
does not associate or dissociate in water, and the boiling-point constant
(ebullioscopic constant) of water is 0.51 K kg mol-1.
The amount (in g) of solute added to 500 g of water to elevate the boiling point by
0.153 K is ______. (answer in integer)
Q. 27 The standard potentials (𝐸 0 ) for the Fe3+/Fe and Fe3+/Fe2+ couples are −0.04 V
and +0.76 V, respectively.
Given: Faraday constant = 96500 C mol-1.
The value for 𝐸 0 (Fe2+/Fe), in V, is ____________. (rounded off to two decimal
places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 20 of 76
Page 22
Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.28 Zinc is essential for the function of
(A) carboxypeptidase A.
(B) chlorophyll a.
(C) myoglobin.
(D) vitamin B12 .
Q.29 Which one of the following molecules captures CO2 in the C4 cycle?
(A) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate
(B) Oxaloacetate
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 21 of 76
Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.28 Zinc is essential for the function of
(A) carboxypeptidase A.
(B) chlorophyll a.
(C) myoglobin.
(D) vitamin B12 .
Q.29 Which one of the following molecules captures CO2 in the C4 cycle?
(A) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate
(B) Oxaloacetate
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 21 of 76
Page 23
Q.30 Which one of the following methods separates biomolecules based on their
hydrodynamic volumes?
(A) Anion-exchange chromatography
(B) Cation-exchange chromatography
(C) Size-exclusion chromatography
(D) Thin-layer chromatography
Q.31 Which one of the following restriction endonucleases is a blunt cutter?
(A) BamHI
(B) EcoRI
(C) HindIII
(D) EcoRV
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 22 of 76
hydrodynamic volumes?
(A) Anion-exchange chromatography
(B) Cation-exchange chromatography
(C) Size-exclusion chromatography
(D) Thin-layer chromatography
Q.31 Which one of the following restriction endonucleases is a blunt cutter?
(A) BamHI
(B) EcoRI
(C) HindIII
(D) EcoRV
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 22 of 76
Page 24
Q.32 Which one of the following DNA repair systems requires DNA glycosylases?
(A) Base-excision
(B) Direct
(C) Mismatch
(D) Nucleotide-excision
Q.33 Which one of the following ion channels opens to repolarize the neuronal
membrane when an action potential is generated?
(A) Ca2+ channel
(B) H + channel
(C) Na+ channel
(D) K + channel
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 23 of 76
(A) Base-excision
(B) Direct
(C) Mismatch
(D) Nucleotide-excision
Q.33 Which one of the following ion channels opens to repolarize the neuronal
membrane when an action potential is generated?
(A) Ca2+ channel
(B) H + channel
(C) Na+ channel
(D) K + channel
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 23 of 76
Page 25
Q. 34 Which one of the following is the most sensitive immunoassay?
(A) Immunoelectrophoresis
(B) Immunofluorescence
(C) Radial immunodiffusion
(D) Radioimmunoassay
Q.35 Which of the following statements about antibodies is/are correct?
(A) Different antibody classes have different effector functions.
(B) Each antibody chain consists of an amino-terminal constant region and a carboxy-
terminal variable region.
(C) Variable domains harbour complementarity-determining regions.
(D) All antibodies have same half-life.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 24 of 76
(A) Immunoelectrophoresis
(B) Immunofluorescence
(C) Radial immunodiffusion
(D) Radioimmunoassay
Q.35 Which of the following statements about antibodies is/are correct?
(A) Different antibody classes have different effector functions.
(B) Each antibody chain consists of an amino-terminal constant region and a carboxy-
terminal variable region.
(C) Variable domains harbour complementarity-determining regions.
(D) All antibodies have same half-life.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 24 of 76
Page 26
Q.36 – Q.46 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 Which one of the following molecules does NOT contain phosphoanhydride
bond(s)?
(A) Adenosine diphosphate
(B) Adenosine triphosphate
(C) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(D) Pyrophosphate
Q.37 For an enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, a competitive inhibitor
(A) increases both 𝐾𝑚 and 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 .
(B) decreases both 𝐾𝑚 and 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 .
(C) increases 𝐾𝑚 but does not affect 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 .
(D) decreases 𝐾𝑚 but does not affect 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 25 of 76
Q.36 Which one of the following molecules does NOT contain phosphoanhydride
bond(s)?
(A) Adenosine diphosphate
(B) Adenosine triphosphate
(C) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(D) Pyrophosphate
Q.37 For an enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, a competitive inhibitor
(A) increases both 𝐾𝑚 and 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 .
(B) decreases both 𝐾𝑚 and 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 .
(C) increases 𝐾𝑚 but does not affect 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 .
(D) decreases 𝐾𝑚 but does not affect 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 25 of 76
Page 27
Q.38 Fӧrster Resonance Energy Transfer does NOT depend on the
(A) relative orientation of donor and acceptor.
(B) fluorescence quantum yield of acceptor.
(C) distance between donor and acceptor.
(D) overlap between donor’s emission and acceptor’s absorption spectra.
Q.39 Phospholipid vesicles prepared in 50 𝑚𝑀 KCl were diluted in water. Based on
this information, statements P and Q are made.
P: The diluted vesicles will develop membrane potential.
Q: There is a K + concentration difference across the vesicular membrane.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) Both P and Q are true.
(B) P is true but Q is false.
(C) P is false but Q is true.
(D) Both P and Q are false.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 26 of 76
(A) relative orientation of donor and acceptor.
(B) fluorescence quantum yield of acceptor.
(C) distance between donor and acceptor.
(D) overlap between donor’s emission and acceptor’s absorption spectra.
Q.39 Phospholipid vesicles prepared in 50 𝑚𝑀 KCl were diluted in water. Based on
this information, statements P and Q are made.
P: The diluted vesicles will develop membrane potential.
Q: There is a K + concentration difference across the vesicular membrane.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) Both P and Q are true.
(B) P is true but Q is false.
(C) P is false but Q is true.
(D) Both P and Q are false.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 26 of 76
Page 28
Q.40 Peptide-binding cleft in MHC-I is formed by
(A) 𝛼1 and 𝛼2 domains.
(B) 𝛼1 and 𝛼3 domains.
(C) 𝛼1 domain and 𝛽2-microglobulin.
(D) 𝛼2 domain and 𝛽2-microglobulin.
Q.41 Which of the following peptides do/does NOT absorb ultraviolet light above
250 𝑛𝑚 wavelength?
(A) MQRTVWG
(B) YDEIGVL
(C) PLASNGK
(D) GSQTKRL
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 27 of 76
(A) 𝛼1 and 𝛼2 domains.
(B) 𝛼1 and 𝛼3 domains.
(C) 𝛼1 domain and 𝛽2-microglobulin.
(D) 𝛼2 domain and 𝛽2-microglobulin.
Q.41 Which of the following peptides do/does NOT absorb ultraviolet light above
250 𝑛𝑚 wavelength?
(A) MQRTVWG
(B) YDEIGVL
(C) PLASNGK
(D) GSQTKRL
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 27 of 76
Page 29
Q.42 Which of the following is/are peptide hormone(s)?
(A) Calcitonin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Serotonin
(D) Thyroxine
Q.43 Which of the following is/are heteropolysaccharide(s)?
(A) Chondroitin-4-sulfate
(B) Chitin
(C) Cellulose
(D) Heparin
Q.44 The equilibrium dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.74 × 10−5 𝑀. The 𝑝𝐾𝑎
of acetic acid (rounded off to one decimal place) is _____ .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 28 of 76
(A) Calcitonin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Serotonin
(D) Thyroxine
Q.43 Which of the following is/are heteropolysaccharide(s)?
(A) Chondroitin-4-sulfate
(B) Chitin
(C) Cellulose
(D) Heparin
Q.44 The equilibrium dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.74 × 10−5 𝑀. The 𝑝𝐾𝑎
of acetic acid (rounded off to one decimal place) is _____ .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 28 of 76
Page 30
Q.45 The DNA double helix measures 0.34 𝑛𝑚/𝑏𝑝. The diameter of a nucleosome core
particle is 11 𝑛𝑚. If the ratio of wrapped DNA length to nucleosome diameter is
4.51, the length of DNA around the nucleosome (to the nearest integer)
is _____ 𝑏𝑝.
Q.46 E. coli is grown exclusively in a medium containing 15NH4 Cl as the sole nitrogen
source. Subsequently, the cells were shifted to a medium containing 14NH4 Cl. The
molar ratio of hybrid DNA (15N-14N) to light DNA (14N-14N) after four generations
(rounded off to two decimal places) will be _____ .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 29 of 76
particle is 11 𝑛𝑚. If the ratio of wrapped DNA length to nucleosome diameter is
4.51, the length of DNA around the nucleosome (to the nearest integer)
is _____ 𝑏𝑝.
Q.46 E. coli is grown exclusively in a medium containing 15NH4 Cl as the sole nitrogen
source. Subsequently, the cells were shifted to a medium containing 14NH4 Cl. The
molar ratio of hybrid DNA (15N-14N) to light DNA (14N-14N) after four generations
(rounded off to two decimal places) will be _____ .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 29 of 76
Page 31
Botany (XL-R)
Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.47 Correctly match the names of the plant taxonomists (Group I) with the titles of
the books they authored (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) John Hutchinson (1) Classification of Flowering Plants
(Q) Adolf Engler and Karl Prantl (2) Evolution and Classification of
Flowering Plants
(R) Arthur Cronquist (3) Die Naturlichen Pflanzenfamilien
(S) Alfred Barton Rendle (4) The Families of Flowering Plants
(A) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
(B) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
(C) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
(D) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
Q.48 Which one of the following mature cell types is live but usually lacks nucleus?
(A) Phloem parenchyma
(B) Phloem companion
(C) Phloem sieve element
(D) Phloem-pole pericycle
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 30 of 76
Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.47 Correctly match the names of the plant taxonomists (Group I) with the titles of
the books they authored (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) John Hutchinson (1) Classification of Flowering Plants
(Q) Adolf Engler and Karl Prantl (2) Evolution and Classification of
Flowering Plants
(R) Arthur Cronquist (3) Die Naturlichen Pflanzenfamilien
(S) Alfred Barton Rendle (4) The Families of Flowering Plants
(A) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
(B) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
(C) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
(D) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
Q.48 Which one of the following mature cell types is live but usually lacks nucleus?
(A) Phloem parenchyma
(B) Phloem companion
(C) Phloem sieve element
(D) Phloem-pole pericycle
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 30 of 76
Page 32
Q.49 Correctly match the carnivorous plants (Group I) with the organs (Group II)
they modify to trap the prey.
Group I Group II
(P) Pitcher plant (Nepenthes) (1) Leaf
(Q) Bladderwort (Utricularia) (2) Fruit
(R) Sundew (Drosera) (3) Stem
(S) Venus flytrap (Dionaea) (4) Tendril
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-1
(B) P-1; Q-1; R-1; S-1
(C) P-2; Q-2; R-2; S-2
(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-1
Q.50 Which one of the following commercially important carbohydrates is naturally
produced only by the members of the plant kingdom?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Pectin
(C) Chitin
(D) Starch
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 31 of 76
they modify to trap the prey.
Group I Group II
(P) Pitcher plant (Nepenthes) (1) Leaf
(Q) Bladderwort (Utricularia) (2) Fruit
(R) Sundew (Drosera) (3) Stem
(S) Venus flytrap (Dionaea) (4) Tendril
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-1
(B) P-1; Q-1; R-1; S-1
(C) P-2; Q-2; R-2; S-2
(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-1
Q.50 Which one of the following commercially important carbohydrates is naturally
produced only by the members of the plant kingdom?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Pectin
(C) Chitin
(D) Starch
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 31 of 76
Page 33
Q.51 Which one of the following agents causes the necrotic ring spot disease in stone
fruits?
(A) Fungi
(B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Nematodes
Q.52 Identify the correct statement(s) with respect to plant disease.
(A) Hairy root disease in tobacco is caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(B) Loose smut of barley is caused by Ustilago nuda
(C) Stem rust of grape is caused by Plasmopara viticola
(D) Fire blight in pear is caused by Erwinia amylovora
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 32 of 76
fruits?
(A) Fungi
(B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Nematodes
Q.52 Identify the correct statement(s) with respect to plant disease.
(A) Hairy root disease in tobacco is caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(B) Loose smut of barley is caused by Ustilago nuda
(C) Stem rust of grape is caused by Plasmopara viticola
(D) Fire blight in pear is caused by Erwinia amylovora
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 32 of 76
Page 34
Q.53 Which of the following molecular approaches can be used to generate complete
knock-out of a target gene in plants?
(A) Homologous recombination
(B) CRISPR-Cas9
(C) Antisense RNA technique
(D) Activation tagging
Q.54 If an egg cell of a diploid plant species has 10 chromosomes, the expected
number of chromosomes in a double trisomic somatic cell of this species
would be _______________ (Answer in integer).
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 33 of 76
knock-out of a target gene in plants?
(A) Homologous recombination
(B) CRISPR-Cas9
(C) Antisense RNA technique
(D) Activation tagging
Q.54 If an egg cell of a diploid plant species has 10 chromosomes, the expected
number of chromosomes in a double trisomic somatic cell of this species
would be _______________ (Answer in integer).
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 33 of 76
Page 35
Q.55– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.55 In the history of photosynthetic research, the empirical reaction of photosynthesis
was first proposed for green plants (equation 1), followed by another reaction for
purple sulfur bacteria (equation 2), leading to a generalized equation for
photosynthesis (equation 3)
CO 2 + H 2 O ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2 O) + O 2 (equation 1)
CO 2 + 2H 2S ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2O) + H 2O + 2S (equation 2)
CO 2 + 2H 2 A ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2 O) + H 2O + 2A (equation 3)
where H2A in equation 3 is a generalized electron donor.
Which one of the following statements is DISPROVEN by equation 3?
(A) The source of oxygen produced in photosynthesis in green plants is CO2
(B) The source of oxygen produced in photosynthesis in green plants is H2O
(C) Light is essential in every form of photosynthesis
(D) Glucose is the end product in all forms of photosynthesis
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 34 of 76
Q.55 In the history of photosynthetic research, the empirical reaction of photosynthesis
was first proposed for green plants (equation 1), followed by another reaction for
purple sulfur bacteria (equation 2), leading to a generalized equation for
photosynthesis (equation 3)
CO 2 + H 2 O ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2 O) + O 2 (equation 1)
CO 2 + 2H 2S ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2O) + H 2O + 2S (equation 2)
CO 2 + 2H 2 A ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2 O) + H 2O + 2A (equation 3)
where H2A in equation 3 is a generalized electron donor.
Which one of the following statements is DISPROVEN by equation 3?
(A) The source of oxygen produced in photosynthesis in green plants is CO2
(B) The source of oxygen produced in photosynthesis in green plants is H2O
(C) Light is essential in every form of photosynthesis
(D) Glucose is the end product in all forms of photosynthesis
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 34 of 76
Page 36
Q.56 Consider a diploid plant species where the cells in the epidermis (the outermost
single cell layer) always divide in the anticlinal orientation. If one such cell within
the central zone of the shoot apical meristem (SAM) spontaneously becomes
tetraploid at the seedling stage, which one of the following cellular arrangements
would be most likely observed if the meristem is examined at the adult stage?
(A) Only one tetraploid cell in the epidermis
(B) Many tetraploid cells in the epidermis
(C) All cells in the entire SAM tetraploid
(D) All cells in the entire SAM diploid
Correctly match the photosynthetic pathways (Group I) with their first
Q.57
stable products (Group II) in respective plants (Group III)
Group I Group II Group III
(P) C3 cycle (1) 3-Phosphoglycerate (a) Wheat
(Q) C4 cycle (2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (b) Sugarcane
(R) CAM (3) Oxaloacetate (c) Pineapple
(A) P-1-a; Q-3-b; R-3-c
(B) P-1-a; Q-2-b; R-3-c
(C) P-1-b; Q-3-a; R-2-c
(D) P-1-b; Q-2-c; R-2-a
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 35 of 76
single cell layer) always divide in the anticlinal orientation. If one such cell within
the central zone of the shoot apical meristem (SAM) spontaneously becomes
tetraploid at the seedling stage, which one of the following cellular arrangements
would be most likely observed if the meristem is examined at the adult stage?
(A) Only one tetraploid cell in the epidermis
(B) Many tetraploid cells in the epidermis
(C) All cells in the entire SAM tetraploid
(D) All cells in the entire SAM diploid
Correctly match the photosynthetic pathways (Group I) with their first
Q.57
stable products (Group II) in respective plants (Group III)
Group I Group II Group III
(P) C3 cycle (1) 3-Phosphoglycerate (a) Wheat
(Q) C4 cycle (2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (b) Sugarcane
(R) CAM (3) Oxaloacetate (c) Pineapple
(A) P-1-a; Q-3-b; R-3-c
(B) P-1-a; Q-2-b; R-3-c
(C) P-1-b; Q-3-a; R-2-c
(D) P-1-b; Q-2-c; R-2-a
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 35 of 76
Page 37
Q.58 The following table summarizes the flowering time behavior (days to flower)
and the transcript levels in four genotypes of a plant species.
Genotype Days to Transcript level Transcript level
flower of gene A of gene B
Wild type 30 Normal Normal
a mutant 15 Nil Increased
b mutant 60 Normal Nil
ab double mutant 60 Nil Nil
Which one of the following genetic pathways best explains the observations
shown in the table?
(A) A gene activates B, which suppresses flowering transition
(B) A gene suppresses B, which promotes flowering transition
(C) B gene activates A, which suppresses flowering transition
(D) B gene suppresses A, which promotes flowering transition
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 36 of 76
and the transcript levels in four genotypes of a plant species.
Genotype Days to Transcript level Transcript level
flower of gene A of gene B
Wild type 30 Normal Normal
a mutant 15 Nil Increased
b mutant 60 Normal Nil
ab double mutant 60 Nil Nil
Which one of the following genetic pathways best explains the observations
shown in the table?
(A) A gene activates B, which suppresses flowering transition
(B) A gene suppresses B, which promotes flowering transition
(C) B gene activates A, which suppresses flowering transition
(D) B gene suppresses A, which promotes flowering transition
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 36 of 76
Page 38
Q.59 Correctly match the economically important specialized metabolites (Group I)
with their broad chemical classes (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) Azadirachtin (1) Monoterpene
(Q) Saponin (2) Alkaloid
(R) Gallocatechin (3) Triterpene glycoside
(S) Cocaine (4) Polyphenol
(T) Menthol (5) Triterpene
(A) P-5; Q-3; R-2; S-4; T-1
(B) P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1; T-5
(C) P-5; Q-3; R-4; S-2; T-1
(D) P-3; Q-5; R-4; S-2; T-1
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 37 of 76
with their broad chemical classes (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) Azadirachtin (1) Monoterpene
(Q) Saponin (2) Alkaloid
(R) Gallocatechin (3) Triterpene glycoside
(S) Cocaine (4) Polyphenol
(T) Menthol (5) Triterpene
(A) P-5; Q-3; R-2; S-4; T-1
(B) P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1; T-5
(C) P-5; Q-3; R-4; S-2; T-1
(D) P-3; Q-5; R-4; S-2; T-1
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 37 of 76
Page 39
Q.60 Correctly match the following Arabidopsis genes (Group I) and the biological
processes they primarily regulate (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) CLAVATA3 (1) Organ identity in flower
(Q) CONSTANS (2) Cell-type specification in root meristem
(R) SCARECROW (3) Meristem size in shoot
(S) AGAMOUS (4) Photoperiodic floral transition
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(B) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
(C) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(D) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 38 of 76
processes they primarily regulate (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) CLAVATA3 (1) Organ identity in flower
(Q) CONSTANS (2) Cell-type specification in root meristem
(R) SCARECROW (3) Meristem size in shoot
(S) AGAMOUS (4) Photoperiodic floral transition
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(B) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
(C) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(D) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 38 of 76
Page 40
Q.61 Correctly match the enzymes used as selectable markers (Group I) and the
chemicals used for their selection (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) Neomycin phosphotransferase (1) Bialaphos
(Q) Phosphinothricin acetyltransferase (2) Kanamycin
(R) Dihydrofolate reductase (3) Glyphosate
(S) 5-Enolpyruvyl shikimate 3-phosphate (4)
Methotrexate
synthase
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(B) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4
(C) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
Q.62 Which of the following sequential reactions correctly represent(s) the flow of
electrons from NADH to O2 in plant mitochondrial electron transport chain?
(A) NADH dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Succinate dehydrogenase →
Cytochrome bc1 → Cytochrome c → Cytochrome c oxidase
(B) NADH dehydrogenase → Succinate dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone →
Cytochrome c → Cytochrome bc1 → Cytochrome c oxidase
(C) NADH dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Alternative oxidase
(D) NADH dehydrogenase → Alternative oxidase → Ubiquinone
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 39 of 76
chemicals used for their selection (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) Neomycin phosphotransferase (1) Bialaphos
(Q) Phosphinothricin acetyltransferase (2) Kanamycin
(R) Dihydrofolate reductase (3) Glyphosate
(S) 5-Enolpyruvyl shikimate 3-phosphate (4)
Methotrexate
synthase
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(B) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4
(C) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
Q.62 Which of the following sequential reactions correctly represent(s) the flow of
electrons from NADH to O2 in plant mitochondrial electron transport chain?
(A) NADH dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Succinate dehydrogenase →
Cytochrome bc1 → Cytochrome c → Cytochrome c oxidase
(B) NADH dehydrogenase → Succinate dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone →
Cytochrome c → Cytochrome bc1 → Cytochrome c oxidase
(C) NADH dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Alternative oxidase
(D) NADH dehydrogenase → Alternative oxidase → Ubiquinone
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 39 of 76
Page 41
Q.63 If rabbits are introduced in an isolated grassland for the first time, which
of the following growth curves (shown using dashed line) is/are theoretically
possible population dynamics over time?
(P) (Q)
(R) (S)
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 40 of 76
of the following growth curves (shown using dashed line) is/are theoretically
possible population dynamics over time?
(P) (Q)
(R) (S)
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 40 of 76
Page 42
Q.64 Which of the following reactions in plants is/are catalyzed by the malic enzymes?
(A) Malate + NAD+ → Pyruvate + CO2 + NADH
(B) Malate + NAD+ ⇌ Oxaloacetate + NADH
(C) Malate ⇌ Fumarate
(D) Malate + NADP+ → Pyruvate + CO2 + NADPH
Q.65 In a genetic cross between a true-breeding tall parent bearing red flowers and a
true-breeding dwarf parent bearing white flowers, only tall plants with red
flowers are obtained in the F1 population. Considering these two traits segregate
independently, if one tall individual is selected from the F2 population, the
probability that it would be genotypically homozygous for plant height and
make red flowers is __________ (Round off to two decimal places).
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 41 of 76
(A) Malate + NAD+ → Pyruvate + CO2 + NADH
(B) Malate + NAD+ ⇌ Oxaloacetate + NADH
(C) Malate ⇌ Fumarate
(D) Malate + NADP+ → Pyruvate + CO2 + NADPH
Q.65 In a genetic cross between a true-breeding tall parent bearing red flowers and a
true-breeding dwarf parent bearing white flowers, only tall plants with red
flowers are obtained in the F1 population. Considering these two traits segregate
independently, if one tall individual is selected from the F2 population, the
probability that it would be genotypically homozygous for plant height and
make red flowers is __________ (Round off to two decimal places).
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 41 of 76
Page 43
Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.66 Which one of the following metabolites is associated with bacterial stringent
response?
(A) Cyclic di-GMP (CDG)
(B) Guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp)
(C) Cyclic-AMP (cAMP)
(D) Cyclic-GMP (cGMP)
Q.67 India is aiming to be free of tuberculosis by 2025. One of the key approaches
for this program is DOTS. Which one of the following options is the full form
of DOTS?
(A) Directly observed therapy short-course
(B) Directly observed tuberculosis short-course
(C) District operated therapy system
(D) Directly operated therapy short-course
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 42 of 76
Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.66 Which one of the following metabolites is associated with bacterial stringent
response?
(A) Cyclic di-GMP (CDG)
(B) Guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp)
(C) Cyclic-AMP (cAMP)
(D) Cyclic-GMP (cGMP)
Q.67 India is aiming to be free of tuberculosis by 2025. One of the key approaches
for this program is DOTS. Which one of the following options is the full form
of DOTS?
(A) Directly observed therapy short-course
(B) Directly observed tuberculosis short-course
(C) District operated therapy system
(D) Directly operated therapy short-course
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 42 of 76
Page 44
Q.68 Correctly match the bacterial type in Column I with their corresponding
environmental niche in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Psychrophile i. Pressure greater than 380 atm
Q. Barophile ii. Temperature between 15°C and 45°C
R. Mesophile iii. Temperature below 15°C
S. Halophile iv. pH less than 3.0
v. Salt concentration greater than 2M
(A) P - iii; Q - i; R - ii; S - v
(B) P - ii; Q - iii; R - i; S - v
(C) P - i; Q - iv; R - iii; S - v
(D) P - v; Q - iii; R - iv; S - i
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 43 of 76
environmental niche in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Psychrophile i. Pressure greater than 380 atm
Q. Barophile ii. Temperature between 15°C and 45°C
R. Mesophile iii. Temperature below 15°C
S. Halophile iv. pH less than 3.0
v. Salt concentration greater than 2M
(A) P - iii; Q - i; R - ii; S - v
(B) P - ii; Q - iii; R - i; S - v
(C) P - i; Q - iv; R - iii; S - v
(D) P - v; Q - iii; R - iv; S - i
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 43 of 76
Page 45
Q.69 Robert Koch used a meat-infused nutrient medium for which one of the
following purposes?
(A) To grow disease causing microorganisms.
(B) To demonstrate presence of microorganisms in air.
(C) To test the efficiency of sterilization approaches.
(D) To demonstrate antimicrobial activity of soil isolates.
Q.70 A penicillin sensitive Escherichia coli population is exposed to a lethal dose
(200 µg/ml) of penicillin. Assuming density-independent mortality, which
one of the following relationships would describe the number of surviving
bacteria (N) over time (T)?
(A) Exponential
(B) Linear
(C) Sigmoidal
(D) Parabolic
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 44 of 76
following purposes?
(A) To grow disease causing microorganisms.
(B) To demonstrate presence of microorganisms in air.
(C) To test the efficiency of sterilization approaches.
(D) To demonstrate antimicrobial activity of soil isolates.
Q.70 A penicillin sensitive Escherichia coli population is exposed to a lethal dose
(200 µg/ml) of penicillin. Assuming density-independent mortality, which
one of the following relationships would describe the number of surviving
bacteria (N) over time (T)?
(A) Exponential
(B) Linear
(C) Sigmoidal
(D) Parabolic
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 44 of 76
Page 46
Q.71 A bacterium obtains energy from a chemical source by the oxidation of reduced
𝑁𝑂2− , with 𝐶𝑂2 as the principal carbon source. Which one of the following
nutritional groups does this bacterium belong to?
(A) Photoautotroph.
(B) Photoheterotroph.
(C) Chemoautotroph.
(D) Chemoheterotroph.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 45 of 76
𝑁𝑂2− , with 𝐶𝑂2 as the principal carbon source. Which one of the following
nutritional groups does this bacterium belong to?
(A) Photoautotroph.
(B) Photoheterotroph.
(C) Chemoautotroph.
(D) Chemoheterotroph.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 45 of 76
Page 47
Q.72 The origin of the Escherichia coli chromosome on the genetic map is shown
below.
Bidirectional replication is a feature of this system and both replication forks
move at the same rate. Which one of the following sequences of replication
of the genes is correct?
(A) ABCDEFG
(B) AGBFCDE
(C) GAFBECD
(D) GAFEBCD
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 46 of 76
below.
Bidirectional replication is a feature of this system and both replication forks
move at the same rate. Which one of the following sequences of replication
of the genes is correct?
(A) ABCDEFG
(B) AGBFCDE
(C) GAFBECD
(D) GAFEBCD
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 46 of 76
Page 48
Q.73 Which of the following sites is/are the location(s) of ATP generation through
oxidative phosphorylation in Escherichia coli?
(A) Inner membrane only
(B) Outer membrane only
(C) Both outer membrane and inner membrane
(D) Mesosome
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 47 of 76
oxidative phosphorylation in Escherichia coli?
(A) Inner membrane only
(B) Outer membrane only
(C) Both outer membrane and inner membrane
(D) Mesosome
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 47 of 76
Page 49
Q.74 – Q.84 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.74 The adaptive immune response in an animal involves the generation of
antibodies against an invading bacterial pathogen. The following graph
represents antibody titer levels in a mammal exposed twice to the pathogen.
Which one of the following options correctly pairs antibodies to peak I
and peak II in the graph?
(A) Peak I - IgG; Peak II - IgM
(B) Peak I - IgM; Peak II - IgG
(C) Peak I - IgE; Peak II - IgG
(D) Peak I - IgG; Peak II - IgG
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 48 of 76
Q.74 The adaptive immune response in an animal involves the generation of
antibodies against an invading bacterial pathogen. The following graph
represents antibody titer levels in a mammal exposed twice to the pathogen.
Which one of the following options correctly pairs antibodies to peak I
and peak II in the graph?
(A) Peak I - IgG; Peak II - IgM
(B) Peak I - IgM; Peak II - IgG
(C) Peak I - IgE; Peak II - IgG
(D) Peak I - IgG; Peak II - IgG
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 48 of 76
Page 50
Q.75 Carl Woese established that short subunit rRNA sequences can be used to reveal
evolutionary relationships between various organisms. Based on this, which one
of the following options is the established phylogenetic arrangement of the three
domains of life?
(A) I
(B) IV
(C) II
(D) III
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 49 of 76
evolutionary relationships between various organisms. Based on this, which one
of the following options is the established phylogenetic arrangement of the three
domains of life?
(A) I
(B) IV
(C) II
(D) III
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 49 of 76
Page 51
Q.76 Correctly match the viruses listed in Column I with the nature of their
corresponding genetic materials listed in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Bacteriophage lambda i. dsDNA
Q. Bacteriophage M13 ii. ssDNA
R. Coronavirus iii. ssRNA
S. Reovirus iv. dsRNA
(A) P - i; Q - iv; R - iii; S - ii
(B) P - iv; Q - ii; R - i; S - iii
(C) P - i; Q - ii; R - iii; S - iv
(D) P - i; Q - iii; R - ii; S - iv
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 50 of 76
corresponding genetic materials listed in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Bacteriophage lambda i. dsDNA
Q. Bacteriophage M13 ii. ssDNA
R. Coronavirus iii. ssRNA
S. Reovirus iv. dsRNA
(A) P - i; Q - iv; R - iii; S - ii
(B) P - iv; Q - ii; R - i; S - iii
(C) P - i; Q - ii; R - iii; S - iv
(D) P - i; Q - iii; R - ii; S - iv
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 50 of 76
Page 52
Q.77 A culture of lac+ Escherichia coli is grown in a medium lacking lactose or any
other -galactoside. The response of the lac operon upon induction by lactose
can be monitored by measuring the levels of lac mRNA, -galactosidase enzyme
and permease enzyme. Which one of the following profiles correctly captures the
on-off response to lactose?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 51 of 76
other -galactoside. The response of the lac operon upon induction by lactose
can be monitored by measuring the levels of lac mRNA, -galactosidase enzyme
and permease enzyme. Which one of the following profiles correctly captures the
on-off response to lactose?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 51 of 76
Page 53
Q.78 Which option(s) correctly match(es) the structures in a bacterial cell (Column I)
with their corresponding functions (Column II).
Column I Column II
P. Cell wall i. Protection from osmotic stress
Q. Fimbriae ii. Attachment to surfaces
R. Flagella iii. Motility
S. Pili iv. Transfer of genetic material
(A) P - i; Q - ii; R - iii; S - iv
(B) P - i; Q - iii; R - iii; S - iv
(C) P - i; Q - iv; R - ii; S - iii
(D) P - ii; Q - iv; R - i; S - iii
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 52 of 76
with their corresponding functions (Column II).
Column I Column II
P. Cell wall i. Protection from osmotic stress
Q. Fimbriae ii. Attachment to surfaces
R. Flagella iii. Motility
S. Pili iv. Transfer of genetic material
(A) P - i; Q - ii; R - iii; S - iv
(B) P - i; Q - iii; R - iii; S - iv
(C) P - i; Q - iv; R - ii; S - iii
(D) P - ii; Q - iv; R - i; S - iii
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 52 of 76
Page 54
Q.79 Which of the following statements regarding micro-organisms is/are correct?
(A) The free-living bacterium Wolbachia is a human parasite.
(B) Myxococcus are a group of predatory bacteria.
(C) Dictyostelium is a slime mold that aggregates to form social groups.
(D) Actinomycetes in soil are involved in producing earthy odours.
Q.80 Which of the following is/are example(s) of animal-microbe mutualism?
(A) Human - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(B) Dog - Rabies lyssavirus
(C) Human - Lactobacillus plantarum
(D) Cow - Ruminococcus albus
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 53 of 76
(A) The free-living bacterium Wolbachia is a human parasite.
(B) Myxococcus are a group of predatory bacteria.
(C) Dictyostelium is a slime mold that aggregates to form social groups.
(D) Actinomycetes in soil are involved in producing earthy odours.
Q.80 Which of the following is/are example(s) of animal-microbe mutualism?
(A) Human - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(B) Dog - Rabies lyssavirus
(C) Human - Lactobacillus plantarum
(D) Cow - Ruminococcus albus
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 53 of 76
Page 55
Q.81 Which of the following reactions is/are catalyzed by aldolase?
(A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate + Glyceraldehye-3-phosphate → Fructose 1,6-
biphosphate
(B) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate + Erythrose-4-phosphate → Sedoheptulose-1,7-
biphosphate
(C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate → Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(D) Glyceraldehye-3-phosphate + Erythrose-4-phosphate → Sedoheptulose-1,7-
biphosphate
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 54 of 76
(A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate + Glyceraldehye-3-phosphate → Fructose 1,6-
biphosphate
(B) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate + Erythrose-4-phosphate → Sedoheptulose-1,7-
biphosphate
(C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate → Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(D) Glyceraldehye-3-phosphate + Erythrose-4-phosphate → Sedoheptulose-1,7-
biphosphate
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 54 of 76
Page 56
Q.82 Which option(s) correctly match(es) the Antibiotic with their corresponding
Target?
Antibiotic Target
P. Penicillin i. Ribosome
Q. Kanamycin ii. RNA polymerase
R. Rifampicin iii. DNA gyrase
S. Nalidixic acid iv. Transpeptidase
T. Ciprofloxacin
(A) P - iv; Q - i; R - ii; S - iii
(B) P - ii; Q - iv; R - i; S - iii
(C) P - iv; Q - i; R - ii; T - iii
(D) P - iv; Q - iii; R - ii; T - i
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 55 of 76
Target?
Antibiotic Target
P. Penicillin i. Ribosome
Q. Kanamycin ii. RNA polymerase
R. Rifampicin iii. DNA gyrase
S. Nalidixic acid iv. Transpeptidase
T. Ciprofloxacin
(A) P - iv; Q - i; R - ii; S - iii
(B) P - ii; Q - iv; R - i; S - iii
(C) P - iv; Q - i; R - ii; T - iii
(D) P - iv; Q - iii; R - ii; T - i
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 55 of 76
Page 57
Q.83 The doubling time of Escherichia coli is 30 minutes in a culture medium
containing glucose and yeast extract. Phage T7 has a life cycle of 20 minutes
and a burst size of 200 phage per infected E. coli cell. Phage absorption is
instantaneous and occurs at 1 multiplicity of infection (MOI). Bacteria infected
with multiple or single phage give the same burst. 5000 plaque forming units
of T7 phage are added to a culture of 2 × 107 E. coli cells.
Assuming normal division, the E. coli culture will lyse completely by _____ full
cycles of bacterial division.
(Answer in integer)
Q.84 A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) based diagnosis test was performed on a
bacterial sample targeting a specific gene. There are 3 copies of this gene in
the bacterial genome. Prior to DNA extraction, the bacteria were incubated to
allow one cycle of growth. 3072 amplicon copies were obtained after 9 cycles
of the PCR. Assume 100% efficiency at each step.
The initial bacterial count in the sample was _______.
(Answer in integer)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 56 of 76
containing glucose and yeast extract. Phage T7 has a life cycle of 20 minutes
and a burst size of 200 phage per infected E. coli cell. Phage absorption is
instantaneous and occurs at 1 multiplicity of infection (MOI). Bacteria infected
with multiple or single phage give the same burst. 5000 plaque forming units
of T7 phage are added to a culture of 2 × 107 E. coli cells.
Assuming normal division, the E. coli culture will lyse completely by _____ full
cycles of bacterial division.
(Answer in integer)
Q.84 A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) based diagnosis test was performed on a
bacterial sample targeting a specific gene. There are 3 copies of this gene in
the bacterial genome. Prior to DNA extraction, the bacteria were incubated to
allow one cycle of growth. 3072 amplicon copies were obtained after 9 cycles
of the PCR. Assume 100% efficiency at each step.
The initial bacterial count in the sample was _______.
(Answer in integer)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 56 of 76
Page 58
Zoology (XL-T)
Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.85 Which one of the following is a “brood parasite” ?
(A) Pigeon
(B) Sparrow
(C) Goose
(D) Cuckoo
Q.86 During the development of a mammalian embryo, “yolk sac” is formed by which
one of the following?
(A) Syncytiotrophoblast
(B) Primitive endoderm (hypoblast)
(C) Amniotic ectoderm
(D) Embryonic epiblast
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 57 of 76
Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.85 Which one of the following is a “brood parasite” ?
(A) Pigeon
(B) Sparrow
(C) Goose
(D) Cuckoo
Q.86 During the development of a mammalian embryo, “yolk sac” is formed by which
one of the following?
(A) Syncytiotrophoblast
(B) Primitive endoderm (hypoblast)
(C) Amniotic ectoderm
(D) Embryonic epiblast
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 57 of 76
Page 59
Q.87 The animals belonging to which one of the following phyla are characterized by
“segmented body” ?
(A) Annelida
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Echinodermata
(D) Porifera
Q.88 Which one of the following is a “post-zygotic” isolating mechanism of speciation?
(A) Behavioral isolation
(B) Fertilization failure
(C) Hybrid sterility
(D) Seasonal isolation
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 58 of 76
“segmented body” ?
(A) Annelida
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Echinodermata
(D) Porifera
Q.88 Which one of the following is a “post-zygotic” isolating mechanism of speciation?
(A) Behavioral isolation
(B) Fertilization failure
(C) Hybrid sterility
(D) Seasonal isolation
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 58 of 76
Page 60
Q.89 Desmosomes are
(A) intermediate filament-based cell adhesion complexes.
(B) protein synthesizing macromolecular complexes.
(C) subcellular organelles.
(D) DNA-protein complexes.
Q.90 The “foramen of Panizza” is found in which one of the following groups of animals?
(A) Fishes
(B) Crocodiles
(C) Frogs
(D) Dolphins
Q.91 Imagine a population of diploid species in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
The population has two alleles for a gene which are ‘a’ and ‘A’. The number of
individuals with ‘aa’ genotype in this population is 1 in 10000. The frequency of
the allele ‘A’ in the population is ______ (up to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 59 of 76
(A) intermediate filament-based cell adhesion complexes.
(B) protein synthesizing macromolecular complexes.
(C) subcellular organelles.
(D) DNA-protein complexes.
Q.90 The “foramen of Panizza” is found in which one of the following groups of animals?
(A) Fishes
(B) Crocodiles
(C) Frogs
(D) Dolphins
Q.91 Imagine a population of diploid species in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
The population has two alleles for a gene which are ‘a’ and ‘A’. The number of
individuals with ‘aa’ genotype in this population is 1 in 10000. The frequency of
the allele ‘A’ in the population is ______ (up to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 59 of 76
Page 61
Q.92 A PCR was setup to amplify a 500 nucleotides-long DNA. The dNTPs in the
reaction mixture were radiolabeled. The percentage (%) of radiolabeled single-
stranded DNA after three cycles will be ______ (up to one decimal place)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 60 of 76
reaction mixture were radiolabeled. The percentage (%) of radiolabeled single-
stranded DNA after three cycles will be ______ (up to one decimal place)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 60 of 76
Page 62
Q.93 – Q.103 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.93 Match the molecules in Column-I with their properties/functions mentioned in
Column-II
Column-I Column-II
P. IgM 1. Involved in antigen presentation
Q. IgE 2. Predominant antibody type in
various body secretions
R. IgA 3. Can pass through placenta
S. MHC 4. Associated with allergic reaction
5. Contains ten heavy and light chains
(A) P−3 ; Q−2 ; R−4 ; S−5
(B) P−5 ; Q−4 ; R−2 ; S−1
(C) P−2 ; Q−3 ; R−4; S−1
(D) P−5 ; Q−4 ; R−2 ; S−5
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 61 of 76
Q.93 Match the molecules in Column-I with their properties/functions mentioned in
Column-II
Column-I Column-II
P. IgM 1. Involved in antigen presentation
Q. IgE 2. Predominant antibody type in
various body secretions
R. IgA 3. Can pass through placenta
S. MHC 4. Associated with allergic reaction
5. Contains ten heavy and light chains
(A) P−3 ; Q−2 ; R−4 ; S−5
(B) P−5 ; Q−4 ; R−2 ; S−1
(C) P−2 ; Q−3 ; R−4; S−1
(D) P−5 ; Q−4 ; R−2 ; S−5
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 61 of 76
Page 63
Q.94 Match the following human diseases in Column-I with their causal organism in
Column-II
Column-I Column-II
P. Sleeping sickness 1. Trypanosoma cruzi
Q. Chagas disease 2. Trypanosoma brucei
R. Elephantiasis 3. Borrelia burgdorferi
S. Lyme disease 4. Wuchereria bancrofti
5. Rickettsia rickettsii
(A) P−3 ; Q−1 ; R−4 ; S−5
(B) P−1 ; Q−2 ; R−3 ; S−4
(C) P−2 ; Q−4 ; R−1 ; S−3
(D) P−2 ; Q−1 ; R−4 ; S−3
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 62 of 76
Column-II
Column-I Column-II
P. Sleeping sickness 1. Trypanosoma cruzi
Q. Chagas disease 2. Trypanosoma brucei
R. Elephantiasis 3. Borrelia burgdorferi
S. Lyme disease 4. Wuchereria bancrofti
5. Rickettsia rickettsii
(A) P−3 ; Q−1 ; R−4 ; S−5
(B) P−1 ; Q−2 ; R−3 ; S−4
(C) P−2 ; Q−4 ; R−1 ; S−3
(D) P−2 ; Q−1 ; R−4 ; S−3
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 62 of 76
Page 64
Q.95 Match the molecules in Column-I with their correct property/function in Column-
II
Column-I Column-II
P. RNase P 1. rRNA gene transcription
Q. RNA Polymerase-I 2. Gene silencing
R. siRNA 3. Cas9-mediated genome editing
S. Guide RNA 4. Ribozymes
5. tRNA gene transcription
(A) P−4 ; Q−5 ; R−2 ; S−3
(B) P−5 ; Q−1 ; R−3 ; S−4
(C) P−4 ; Q−1 ; R−2 ; S−3
(D) P−1 ; Q−3 ; R−4 ; S−2
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 63 of 76
II
Column-I Column-II
P. RNase P 1. rRNA gene transcription
Q. RNA Polymerase-I 2. Gene silencing
R. siRNA 3. Cas9-mediated genome editing
S. Guide RNA 4. Ribozymes
5. tRNA gene transcription
(A) P−4 ; Q−5 ; R−2 ; S−3
(B) P−5 ; Q−1 ; R−3 ; S−4
(C) P−4 ; Q−1 ; R−2 ; S−3
(D) P−1 ; Q−3 ; R−4 ; S−2
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 63 of 76
Page 65
Q.96 What would be the number of genotypes and phenotypes, respectively, from a cross
between genotypes AaBBCcDd and AaBBCcDd ? Assume independent assortment
and simple dominant-recessive relationship in each gene pair.
(A) 8 and 4
(B) 12 and 4
(C) 27 and 8
(D) 14 and 8
Q.97 Nucleosomes are made up of DNA and histones. Histones undergo various kind of
modifications by different groups of proteins. They are known as histone writers,
readers and erasers. Which of the following is/are histone writer(s)?
(A) Histone acetyl transferases
(B) Histone methyl transferases
(C) Histone deacetylases
(D) DNA methyl transferases
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 64 of 76
between genotypes AaBBCcDd and AaBBCcDd ? Assume independent assortment
and simple dominant-recessive relationship in each gene pair.
(A) 8 and 4
(B) 12 and 4
(C) 27 and 8
(D) 14 and 8
Q.97 Nucleosomes are made up of DNA and histones. Histones undergo various kind of
modifications by different groups of proteins. They are known as histone writers,
readers and erasers. Which of the following is/are histone writer(s)?
(A) Histone acetyl transferases
(B) Histone methyl transferases
(C) Histone deacetylases
(D) DNA methyl transferases
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 64 of 76
Page 66
Q.98 The expression of a gene is regulated by a transcription factor. Which of the
following techniques can be used to identify the region in its promoter where the
transcription factor binds?
(A) S1 nuclease mapping
(B) Chromatin immunoprecipitation followed by sequencing
(C) Electrophoretic mobility shift assay
(D) DNase I footprinting
Q.99 Which of the following animals in India are included under “critically endangered”
threat category as per the Red Data List of IUCN?
(A) Namdapha Flying Squirrel
(B) Indian Rhinoceros
(C) Nicobar Shrew
(D) Clouded Leopard
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 65 of 76
following techniques can be used to identify the region in its promoter where the
transcription factor binds?
(A) S1 nuclease mapping
(B) Chromatin immunoprecipitation followed by sequencing
(C) Electrophoretic mobility shift assay
(D) DNase I footprinting
Q.99 Which of the following animals in India are included under “critically endangered”
threat category as per the Red Data List of IUCN?
(A) Namdapha Flying Squirrel
(B) Indian Rhinoceros
(C) Nicobar Shrew
(D) Clouded Leopard
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Page 67
100. Which of the following statements in relation to cell movement during gastrulation
in Sea urchin is/are correct?
(A) Delamination leads to the formation of endoderm
(B) Ingression leads to the development of mesoderm
(C) Involution leads to the development of ectoderm
(D) Invagination leads to the development of endoderm
Q.101 Which of the following genetic disorders is/are caused by trinucleotide repeat
expansions?
(A) Huntington’s disease
(B) β-thalassemia
(C) Fragile X syndrome
(D) Cystic fibrosis
Q.102 The mother and the father of five children are carriers (heterozygous) of an
autosomal recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis. The probability of having
exactly three normal children among five is ______ (up to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 66 of 76
in Sea urchin is/are correct?
(A) Delamination leads to the formation of endoderm
(B) Ingression leads to the development of mesoderm
(C) Involution leads to the development of ectoderm
(D) Invagination leads to the development of endoderm
Q.101 Which of the following genetic disorders is/are caused by trinucleotide repeat
expansions?
(A) Huntington’s disease
(B) β-thalassemia
(C) Fragile X syndrome
(D) Cystic fibrosis
Q.102 The mother and the father of five children are carriers (heterozygous) of an
autosomal recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis. The probability of having
exactly three normal children among five is ______ (up to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 66 of 76
Page 68
Q.103 An enzyme, which follows Michaelis-Menten equation, catalyzes the reaction
A→B. When enzyme and substrate concentrations are 15 nM and 10 µM,
respectively, the reaction velocity is 5 µMs−1. If Km for the substrate A is 5 µM, the
kinetic efficiency of the enzyme will be _______×106 M−1s−1 (in integer)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 67 of 76
A→B. When enzyme and substrate concentrations are 15 nM and 10 µM,
respectively, the reaction velocity is 5 µMs−1. If Km for the substrate A is 5 µM, the
kinetic efficiency of the enzyme will be _______×106 M−1s−1 (in integer)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 67 of 76
Page 69
Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.104– Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.104 Which of the following contains the phytonutrient allicin?
(A) Grape
(B) Cauliflower
(C) Garlic
(D) Chilli
Q.105 Which mold is responsible for the characteristic blue marbling in blue-veined
cheese?
(A) Rhizopus oryzae
(B) Penicillium roqueforti
(C) Aspergillus niger
(D) Penicillium camemberti
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 68 of 76
Q.104– Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.104 Which of the following contains the phytonutrient allicin?
(A) Grape
(B) Cauliflower
(C) Garlic
(D) Chilli
Q.105 Which mold is responsible for the characteristic blue marbling in blue-veined
cheese?
(A) Rhizopus oryzae
(B) Penicillium roqueforti
(C) Aspergillus niger
(D) Penicillium camemberti
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 68 of 76
Page 70
Q.106 Which genus of bacteria does NOT have cell wall?
(A) Lactobacillus
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) Escherichia
Q.107 Which of the following pigment does NOT have pro-vitamin A activity?
(A) -Carotene
(B) -Cryptoxanthin
(C) Lycopene
(D) -Carotene
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 69 of 76
(A) Lactobacillus
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) Escherichia
Q.107 Which of the following pigment does NOT have pro-vitamin A activity?
(A) -Carotene
(B) -Cryptoxanthin
(C) Lycopene
(D) -Carotene
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Page 71
Q.108 Identify the analysis that must be performed FIRST to judge ‘cleanliness’ of
spice/herb powders.
(A) Acid-insoluble ash content
(B) Pesticide residue levels
(C) Volatile oil content
(D) Mycotoxin levels
Q.109 If there is a delay in oil extraction after bran is separated from the brown rice, the
quality of rice bran oil deteriorates. Identify the suitable CAUSE and EFFECT for
the deterioration in oil quality.
(A) Lipase activity; increase in FFA
(B) Oil hydrolysis; decrease in FFA
(C) Lipase activity; decrease in FFA
(D) Bran stabilization; decrease in lipase activity
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 70 of 76
spice/herb powders.
(A) Acid-insoluble ash content
(B) Pesticide residue levels
(C) Volatile oil content
(D) Mycotoxin levels
Q.109 If there is a delay in oil extraction after bran is separated from the brown rice, the
quality of rice bran oil deteriorates. Identify the suitable CAUSE and EFFECT for
the deterioration in oil quality.
(A) Lipase activity; increase in FFA
(B) Oil hydrolysis; decrease in FFA
(C) Lipase activity; decrease in FFA
(D) Bran stabilization; decrease in lipase activity
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 70 of 76
Page 72
Q.110 Among the following, which is/are the process(es) that lead to generation of new
fats from existing ones?
(A) Transesterification
(B) Degumming
(C) Hydrogenation
(D) Winterization
Q.111 The true density and bulk density of wheat grains are 1280 kg/m3 and 740 kg/m3,
respectively. The porosity of the grains is ____. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 71 of 76
fats from existing ones?
(A) Transesterification
(B) Degumming
(C) Hydrogenation
(D) Winterization
Q.111 The true density and bulk density of wheat grains are 1280 kg/m3 and 740 kg/m3,
respectively. The porosity of the grains is ____. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 71 of 76
Page 73
Q.112 – Q.122 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.112 Identify the gas composition (in percent) suitable for packaging cured meat under
MAP conditions.
(A) O2 = 0; CO2 = 50; N2 = 50
(B) O2 = 50; CO2 = 0; N2 = 50
(C) O2 = 0; CO2 = 0; N2 = 100
(D) O2 = 50; CO2 = 50; N2 = 0
Q.113 Which of the following sequence of events occurs during formation of egg-white
gel?
Assume: PN: Native protein; PD: Denatured protein;
PA: Aggregated protein; PG: Protein gel
→: forward reaction; : reversible reaction; ∆: heating; ∇: cooling
∆ ∇ ∇
(A) PN ↔ PD ↔ PA↔ PG
(B) ∆ ∆ ∆
PN ↔ PD → PA→ PG
(C) ∆ ∇
PN ↔ PD → PG
(D) ∆ ∆
PN ↔ PA → PG
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 72 of 76
Q.112 Identify the gas composition (in percent) suitable for packaging cured meat under
MAP conditions.
(A) O2 = 0; CO2 = 50; N2 = 50
(B) O2 = 50; CO2 = 0; N2 = 50
(C) O2 = 0; CO2 = 0; N2 = 100
(D) O2 = 50; CO2 = 50; N2 = 0
Q.113 Which of the following sequence of events occurs during formation of egg-white
gel?
Assume: PN: Native protein; PD: Denatured protein;
PA: Aggregated protein; PG: Protein gel
→: forward reaction; : reversible reaction; ∆: heating; ∇: cooling
∆ ∇ ∇
(A) PN ↔ PD ↔ PA↔ PG
(B) ∆ ∆ ∆
PN ↔ PD → PA→ PG
(C) ∆ ∇
PN ↔ PD → PG
(D) ∆ ∆
PN ↔ PA → PG
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 72 of 76
Page 74
Q.114 In canning and retorting of foods, which of the following is the correct expression
of Ball process time (B)?
Assume: tp = processor’s process time; tc = come-up time
(A) B = tp + 0.42 tc
(B) B = tp + 0.30 tc
(C) B = tp + 0.50 tc
(D) B = tp + 0.25 tc
Q.115 Which of the following is the most suitable flexible packaging laminate for dry
fruits?
(A) PET/LDPE
(B) PS/LDPE
(C) BOPP/LDPE
(D) Nylon/LDPE
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 73 of 76
of Ball process time (B)?
Assume: tp = processor’s process time; tc = come-up time
(A) B = tp + 0.42 tc
(B) B = tp + 0.30 tc
(C) B = tp + 0.50 tc
(D) B = tp + 0.25 tc
Q.115 Which of the following is the most suitable flexible packaging laminate for dry
fruits?
(A) PET/LDPE
(B) PS/LDPE
(C) BOPP/LDPE
(D) Nylon/LDPE
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 73 of 76
Page 75
Q.116 Identify the CORRECT sequence of operations for dressing of poultry.
(A) Slaughtering and bleeding → scalding → defeathering → eviscerating → chilling
(B) Slaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → scalding → eviscerating → chilling
(C) Slaughtering and bleeding → eviscerating → defeathering → scalding →chilling
(D) Slaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → eviscerating → scalding → chilling
Q.117 Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE for a package of gamma-
irradiated (7.5 kGy) whole chicken?
(A) Nutritional quality of the product deteriorates after irradiation.
(B) Spores of C. botulinum can survive in the irradiated product.
(C) ‘Radura’ symbol does not ensure safety of the irradiated product for consumption.
(D) Energy needed for the irradiation process is much higher than that required for
freezing of the product.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 74 of 76
(A) Slaughtering and bleeding → scalding → defeathering → eviscerating → chilling
(B) Slaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → scalding → eviscerating → chilling
(C) Slaughtering and bleeding → eviscerating → defeathering → scalding →chilling
(D) Slaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → eviscerating → scalding → chilling
Q.117 Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE for a package of gamma-
irradiated (7.5 kGy) whole chicken?
(A) Nutritional quality of the product deteriorates after irradiation.
(B) Spores of C. botulinum can survive in the irradiated product.
(C) ‘Radura’ symbol does not ensure safety of the irradiated product for consumption.
(D) Energy needed for the irradiation process is much higher than that required for
freezing of the product.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 74 of 76
Page 76
Q.118 Match the following food products in Column I with their corresponding processes
in Column II.
Column I Column II
P Idli 1 Baking
Q Parboiled rice 2 Fermentation
R Soda beverage 3 Gelatinization
S Cookies 4 Carbonation
(A) P-2;Q-3;R-4;S-1
(B) P-3;Q-2;R-4;S-1
(C) P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
(D) P-2;Q-3;R-1;S-4
Q.119 Which of the following is/are inhibitor(s) of enzymatic browning in peeled
potatoes?
(A) Citric acid
(B) EDTA
(C) Mannitol
(D) Ascorbic acid
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 75 of 76
in Column II.
Column I Column II
P Idli 1 Baking
Q Parboiled rice 2 Fermentation
R Soda beverage 3 Gelatinization
S Cookies 4 Carbonation
(A) P-2;Q-3;R-4;S-1
(B) P-3;Q-2;R-4;S-1
(C) P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
(D) P-2;Q-3;R-1;S-4
Q.119 Which of the following is/are inhibitor(s) of enzymatic browning in peeled
potatoes?
(A) Citric acid
(B) EDTA
(C) Mannitol
(D) Ascorbic acid
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 75 of 76
Page 77
Q.120 Match the following enzymes in Column I with their applications in Column II.
Column I Column II
P -Glucanase 1 Fruit juice clarification
Q - and -Amylases 2 Bread making
R Pectinase 3 Meat tenderization
S Papain 4 Brewing
(A) P-3;Q-1;R-2;S-4
(B) P-4;Q-2;R-1;S-3
(C) P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
(D) P-1;Q-2;R-3;S-4
Q.121 The F121 value of a known microorganism with Z value of 11 °C is 2.4 min for
99.9999% inactivation. For a 12D inactivation of the said microorganism at
143 °C, the F value (in min) is _____. (rounded off to 3 decimal places)
Q.122 In a typical grinding operation, 80% of the feed material passes through a sieve
opening of 4.75 mm; whereas, 80% of the ground product passes through 0.5 mm
opening. If the power required to grind 2 tonnes/h of the feed material is
3.8 kW, the work index of the material is _______. (rounded off to 2 decimal
places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 76 of 76
Column I Column II
P -Glucanase 1 Fruit juice clarification
Q - and -Amylases 2 Bread making
R Pectinase 3 Meat tenderization
S Papain 4 Brewing
(A) P-3;Q-1;R-2;S-4
(B) P-4;Q-2;R-1;S-3
(C) P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
(D) P-1;Q-2;R-3;S-4
Q.121 The F121 value of a known microorganism with Z value of 11 °C is 2.4 min for
99.9999% inactivation. For a 12D inactivation of the said microorganism at
143 °C, the F value (in min) is _____. (rounded off to 3 decimal places)
Q.122 In a typical grinding operation, 80% of the feed material passes through a sieve
opening of 4.75 mm; whereas, 80% of the ground product passes through 0.5 mm
opening. If the power required to grind 2 tonnes/h of the feed material is
3.8 kW, the work index of the material is _______. (rounded off to 2 decimal
places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 76 of 76
Page 78
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Document Details
| Board / Org | IIT |
| Exam | GATE |
| Type | Question Paper |
| Pages | 78 |
| Updated | 30 Apr 2026 |