GATE 2025 Question Paper Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF)

GATE
2025
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.

General Aptitude
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 Despite his initial hesitation, Rehman’s _________ to contribute to the success of
the project never wavered.

Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

(A) ambivalence

(B) satisfaction

(C) resolve

(D) revolve

Page 1 of 35

Q.2 Bird : Nest :: Bee : _______

Select the correct option to complete the analogy.

(A) Kennel

(B) Hammock

(C) Hive

(D) Lair

Page 2 of 35

Q.3 If 𝑃𝑒 𝑥 = 𝑄𝑒 −𝑥 for all real values of 𝑥, which one of the following statements is
true?

(A) 𝑃=𝑄=0

(B) 𝑃=𝑄=1

(C) 𝑃 = 1; 𝑄 = −1

(D) 𝑃
=0
𝑄

Page 3 of 35

Q.4 The paper as shown in the figure is folded to make a cube where each square
corresponds to a particular face of the cube. Which one of the following options
correctly represents the cube?

Note: The figures shown are representative.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 4 of 35

Q.5 Let 𝑝1 and 𝑝2 denote two arbitrary prime numbers. Which one of the following
statements is correct for all values of 𝑝1 and 𝑝2 ?

(A) 𝑝1 + 𝑝2 is not a prime number.

(B) 𝑝1 𝑝2 is not a prime number.

(C) 𝑝1 + 𝑝2 + 1 is a prime number.

(D) 𝑝1 𝑝2 + 1 is a prime number.

Page 5 of 35

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 Based only on the conversation below, identify the logically correct inference:

“Even if I had known that you were in the hospital, I would not have gone there to
see you”, Ramya told Josephine.

(A) Ramya knew that Josephine was in the hospital.

(B) Ramya did not know that Josephine was in the hospital.

(C) Ramya and Josephine were once close friends; but now, they are not.

(D) Josephine was in the hospital due to an injury to her leg.

Page 6 of 35

Q.7 If IMAGE and FIELD are coded as FHBNJ and EMFJG respectively then, which
one among the given options is the most appropriate code for BEACH ?

(A) CEADP

(B) IDBFC

(C) JGIBC

(D) IBCEC

Page 7 of 35

Q.8 Which one of the following options is correct for the given data in the table?

Iteration (i) 0 1 2 3

Input (I) 20 −4 10 15

Output (X) 20 16 26 41

Output (Y) 20 −80 −800 −12000

(A) 𝑋(𝑖) = 𝑋(𝑖 − 1) + 𝐼(𝑖); 𝑌(𝑖) = 𝑌(𝑖 − 1)𝐼(𝑖); 𝑖>0

(B) 𝑋(𝑖) = 𝑋(𝑖 − 1)𝐼(𝑖); 𝑌(𝑖) = 𝑌(𝑖 − 1) + 𝐼(𝑖); 𝑖>0

(C) 𝑋(𝑖) = 𝑋(𝑖 − 1)𝐼(𝑖); 𝑌(𝑖) = 𝑌(𝑖 − 1)𝐼(𝑖); 𝑖>0

(D) 𝑋(𝑖) = 𝑋(𝑖 − 1) + 𝐼(𝑖); 𝑌(𝑖) = 𝑌(𝑖 − 1)𝐼(𝑖 − 1); 𝑖>0

Page 8 of 35

Q.9 In the given figure, PQRS is a square of side 2 cm and PLMN is a rectangle. The
corner L of the rectangle is on the side QR. Side MN of the rectangle passes through
the corner S of the square.

What is the area (in cm2) of the rectangle PLMN?

Note: The figure shown is representative.

N

P S

M

Q L R

(A) 2√2

(B) 2

(C) 8

(D) 4

Page 9 of 35

Q.10 The diagram below shows a river system consisting of 7 segments, marked P, Q, R,
S, T, U, and V. It splits the land into 5 zones, marked Z1, Z2, Z3, Z4, and Z5. We
need to connect these zones using the least number of bridges. Out of the following
options, which one is correct?

Note: The figure shown is representative.

Z2 Z3
R
V

P T
Q Z4

Z1 U
S Z5

(A) Bridges on P, Q, and T

(B) Bridges on P, Q, S, and T

(C) Bridges on Q, R, T, and V

(D) Bridges on P, Q, S, U, and V

Page 10 of 35

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 The solution of the following differential equation represents

𝑑𝑦 𝑦 + 1
=
𝑑𝑥 𝑥

(A) a straight line

(B) a parabola

(C) an ellipse

(D) a hyperbola

Q.12 2 8 11 3
If [ −1 ] be the eigenvector of the matrix [ 4 −1 3], then the corresponding
1 −4 10 6
eigenvalue is

(A) −12

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D) 9

Page 11 of 35

Q.13 The value of 𝛼 for which the Euler method with step size ℎ = 0.1 provides
𝑦(1.1) = 1.2 for the following initial value problem is

𝑑𝑦
= −2𝑥𝑦 𝛼 , 𝑦(1) = 2
𝑑𝑥

(A) −2

(B) −1

(C) 1

(D) 2

Q.14 The fibre which does NOT contain 1,4-glycosidic bonds is

(A) Polynosic

(B) Lyocell

(C) Silk

(D) Ramie

Page 12 of 35

Q.15 The fibre forming polymer which contains aromatic group in the main chain is

(A) Poly(ethylene terephthalate)

(B) Polypropylene

(C) Polyacrylonitrile

(D) Ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene

Q.16 The purpose of top comb in a cotton comber is to

(A) remove the leading hooks

(B) guide the fibre fringe to detaching rollers

(C) control the fibre stream while piecing

(D) straighten the trailing end of fibres

Page 13 of 35

Q.17 Wider setting between cylinder and flat results in higher

(A) fibre rupture

(B) flat strips

(C) neps in sliver

(D) trailing hooks in sliver

Q.18 Profile reed is used in

(A) Projectile loom

(B) Rapier loom

(C) Shuttle loom

(D) Air-jet loom

Page 14 of 35

Q.19 Amongst the following, the component which is NOT a part of single-bed warp
knitting machine, is

(A) Guide bar

(B) Needle bar

(C) Sinker

(D) Heald shaft

Q.20 In fibrograph, 2.5% span length (l) means

(A) 2.5% of the fibres are shorter than l

(B) 2.5% of the fibres are longer than l

(C) 2.5% of the mean length

(D) 2.5% of the effective length

Page 15 of 35

Q.21 High drape coefficient of fabric indicates

(A) soft fabric

(B) flexible fabric

(C) stiff fabric

(D) low strength fabric

Q.22 For dyeing of a polyester/cotton blended fabric in solid shade, the correct
combination of dyes is

(A) disperse and reactive

(B) basic and reactive

(C) acid and reactive

(D) vat and basic

Page 16 of 35

Q.23 Carbonization is a pretreatment process for

(A) Cotton

(B) Wool

(C) Flax

(D) Jute

Q.24 Amongst the following, the exothermic transition(s) is/are

(A) glass transition

(B) crystallization

(C) melting

(D) sublimation

Page 17 of 35

Q.25 Amongst the following interface(s) in a carding machine, carding action takes
place in

(A) Feed roller and Licker-in

(B) Licker-in and Cylinder

(C) Cylinder and Doffer

(D) Cylinder and Flats

Q.26 Cone winding machines equipped with electronic yarn clearers remove the
following defect(s) from the spun yarn

(A) imperfections

(B) objectionable faults

(C) long hairs

(D) vegetable matters

Page 18 of 35

Q.27 The parameter(s) required to convert load-elongation curve to stress-strain curve
of a yarn is/are

(A) initial linear density of yarn

(B) linear density of yarn at break

(C) gauge length of yarn

(D) length of yarn at break

Q.28 Amongst the following, the chromophore(s) is/are

(A) Anthraquinone

(B) Azo

(C) Phthalocyanine

(D) Mono-chloro triazine

Page 19 of 35

Q.29 Consider the partial differential equation

𝜕 2 𝑢 1 𝜕𝑢
= + sin 𝑥 , 𝑘 > 0
𝜕𝑥 2 𝑘 𝜕𝑡
Amongst the following, the correct statement(s) for the above equation is/are

(A) It is homogeneous

(B) It is linear

(C) It is of degree 1

(D) It is of order 2

Q.30 The diameter of a fibre is assumed to be a continuous random variable (𝑋) with
probability density function

𝑓(𝑥) = 6𝑥(1 − 𝑥), 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 1

If 𝑃(𝑋 < 𝛽) = 𝑃(𝑋 > 𝛽), then the value of 𝛽 (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is
________________.

Q.31 In the first heating cycle of a differential scanning calorimetry (DSC) experiment,
an as-spun Nylon 6 fibre showed an enthalpy change of 40 J/g during cold
crystallization and an enthalpy change of 150 J/g during melting. If the heat of
fusion of 100% crystalline Nylon 6 is 240 J/g, the percentage degree of crystallinity
of as-spun Nylon 6 fibre (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is __________.

Page 20 of 35

Q.32 A blowroom line has three beaters, each having a trash removal efficiency (cleaning
index) of 30%. The trash removal efficiency (%) of the blowroom line (rounded off
to 1 decimal place) is __________.

Q.33 A woven fabric has weft yarn of 24 tex and pick density of 25 per cm. It is desired
to replace only the weft with a 6 tex yarn of same packing density. The pick density
per cm required to keep the fabric cover same (answer in integer) is ___________.

Q.34 The twist in a 36 Ne cotton yarn is 15 tpi. The twist multiplier (TM) in cotton system
of the yarn (correct to 1 decimal place) is __________.

Q.35 The molarity (moles per litre) of 34% (w/v) H2O2 aqueous solution (answer in
integer) is _____________.

Page 21 of 35

Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.36 A fibre of length 𝑙 is to be divided into two pieces. Multiplying the square of the
length of one piece with the cube of the length of other piece yields the greatest
possible product value. Amongst the following, the correct combination of the
lengths is

(A) 2𝑙 3𝑙
and
5 5

(B) 𝑙 3𝑙
and
4 4

(C) 𝑙 2𝑙
and
3 3

(D) 𝑙 𝑙
and
2 2

Q.37 For a textile industry, the revenue of selling 𝑥 ton of yarn is 𝑅(𝑥) = 4𝑥 and the cost
of producing 𝑥 ton of yarn is 𝐶(𝑥) = 10 + 2𝑥 + 3𝑥 2/3. The industry decided to
calculate the break-even (when revenue is equal to the cost) for 𝑥 ton of yarn using
Newton-Rapson method. Assuming the initial break-even of 8 ton, the break-even
(ton) after the first iteration is

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 12

(D) 14

Page 22 of 35

Q.38 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [p] and Reason
[r].

[p]: The melting temperature of polyester (PET) fibres is higher than that of
Nylon 6 fibres

[r]: The hydrogen bonding in PET is stronger than that in Nylon 6

(A) Both [p] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [p]

(B) Both [p] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [p]

(C) Both [p] and [r] are false

(D) [p] is true but [r] is false

Q.39 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [p] and Reason
[r].

[p]: The tenacity of a polymeric fibre depends on the strain rate

[r]: Under mechanical deformation polymeric fibre exhibits both elastic as well as
viscous response

(A) Both [p] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [p]

(B) Both [p] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [p]

(C) Both [p] and [r] are false

(D) [p] is true but [r] is false

Page 23 of 35

Q.40 Group I indicates type of spun yarns and group II indicates yarn characteristics.
Match the yarns with their characteristics.

Group I Group II

P. Ring 1. Yarn is stiff and has nearly
twistless yarn core

Q. Rotor 2. Yarn is strong and has helical
structure

R. Friction (open end) 3. Yarn is bulky and has wrapper
fibres

S. Air-jet 4. Yarn is bulky and has very poor
fibre migration

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Page 24 of 35

Q.41 Amongst the following, the correct sequence of drives from main shaft to bobbins
in a roving frame is

(A) Main shaft → Twist change gears → Cone drums → Planetary gears → Bobbins

(B) Main shaft → Draft change gears → Cone drums → Planetary gears → Bobbins

(C) Main shaft → Draft change gears → Planetary gears → Cone drums → Bobbins

(D) Main shaft → Twist change gears → Planetary gears → Cone drums → Bobbins

Page 25 of 35

Q.42 Group I lists the components of the weaving machine and Group II lists their
functions. Match the component with its function.

Group I Group II

P Conjugate/matched cams 1 Driving the cloth roller with slip
drive

Q Worm and worm wheel 2 Continuous positive take up
motion

R Friction clutch device 3 Motion of sley in rapier loom

S Lease rod 4 Separation of the warp sheet
forming the shed

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Page 26 of 35

Q.43 A series of plain knitted fabrics has varying stitch length (ℓ). The fabrics are
composed of cotton yarns having same packing density but differing in linear
density (𝑇). The ratio between tightness factor and areal density of the fabrics is
proportional to

(A) ℓ2
√𝑇

(B) 1
ℓ2 √𝑇

(C) ℓ
√𝑇

(D) 1
√𝑇

Q.44 If melting, pyrolysis and combustion temperatures of polyester fibre are denoted by
Tm, Tp and Tc respectively, then the correct order of temperatures is

(A) Tm < Tc < Tp

(B) Tm < Tp < Tc

(C) Tp < Tc < Tm

(D) Tp < Tm < Tc

Page 27 of 35

Q.45 Group I indicates chemical agents and group II indicates their functions. Match
the agent with its function.

Group I Group II

P. BTCA (Butane tetra carboxylic 1. Crease recovery
acid)

Q. Sodium hydrosulphite 2. Sequestration

R. THPC (Tetrakis hydroxyl 3. Flame retardancy
methyl phosphonium chloride)

S. EDTA (Ethylene diamine tetra 4. Reduction
acetic acid)

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

Page 28 of 35

Q.46 Amongst the following, the correct statement(s) for regenerated cellulosic fibres
is/are

(A) Degree of polymerization of Lyocell is higher than that of viscose

(B) Degree of crystallinity of Lyocell is lower than that of viscose

(C) Spinning dope of Lyocell is an aqueous solution

(D) Wet strength of Lyocell is lower than that of viscose

Q.47 Amongst the following, the machine(s) that remove(s) neps is/are

(A) Comber

(B) Blowroom

(C) Roving frame

(D) Card

Page 29 of 35

Q.48 Amongst the following, producing a dense fabric in a weaving machine require(s)

(A) higher sley eccentricity

(B) higher basic warp tension

(C) lower cloth fell displacement at the time of beat up

(D) stronger warp yarn

Q.49 Amongst the following, the instrument(s) used for measurement of neps in cotton
fibre tuft is/are

(A) HVI (High Volume Instrument)

(B) Evenness tester

(C) Fibrograph

(D) AFIS (Advanced Fibre Information System)

Page 30 of 35

Q.50 Amongst the following, the parameter(s) relevant to fibre fineness measurement
using vibration method, is/are

(A) length of the fibre specimen

(B) natural fundamental frequency of vibration of the fibre specimen

(C) breaking load of the fibre specimen

(D) tension applied on the fibre specimen

Q.51 Amongst the following, the correct reason(s) for high pilling tendency in a woven
fabric is/are

(A) high twist level in the yarn

(B) low twist level in the yarn

(C) finer and stronger fibres in the yarn

(D) weak and brittle fibres in the yarn

Page 31 of 35

Q.52 Consider a cationic and an anionic softener both having linear alkyl chains. Upon
application on cotton fabric, the orientation of the softener molecules on fabric can
be described by the following statement(s)

(A) The ionic part of the cationic softener will be close to the fabric surface and the
alkyl chain will be oriented away

(B) The ionic part of the anionic softener will be close to the fabric surface and the alkyl
chain will be oriented away

(C) The ionic part of the cationic softener will be oriented away from the fabric surface
and the alkyl chain will be close to the fabric

(D) The ionic part of the anionic softener will be oriented away from the fabric surface
and the alkyl chain will be close to the fabric

Q.53 A cotton fabric is printed using resist style with a reactive dye for ground colour
and a chemical resist agent. Amongst the following, the correct statement(s) is/are

(A) Printing is followed by dyeing

(B) Dyeing is followed by printing

(C) The resist is acidic in nature

(D) The resist is alkaline in nature

Page 32 of 35

Q.54 Let 𝑋 be a Poisson distributed random variable with parameter 𝜆(> 0) such that it
satisfies the equation

𝑃(𝑋 = 1) = 3𝑃(𝑋 = 3) − 𝑃(𝑋 = 2)

Then, the value of 𝜆 (answer in integer) is __________________.

Q.55 If 𝑢(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = 𝑥 2 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 𝑧 + 𝑧 2 𝑥, the value of

𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
+ +
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑧

at the point (1,1,1) is (answer in integer) _______________.

Q.56 A circular hollow polyester fibre with a tenacity of 0.02 N/tex breaks at 0.2 N. If
the density of polyester is 1.38 g/cm3 and the inner diameter of the fibre is 40 µm,
the outer diameter (µm) of the fibre (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is
_______________.

Q.57 A polymer melt being extruded through a spinneret hole of circular cross-section
exhibits a die-swell ratio of 2.2. The extrusion velocity and volumetric flow rate
during this extrusion process are 20 m/min and 2.6 × 10−8 m3/s, respectively. The
maximum diameter (mm) of the extruded melt after exit from the spinneret hole
(rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _______________.

Page 33 of 35

Q.58 A chute feed system feeds a fibre batt of linear density 300 g/m to a card. The waste
extracted by the card is 5% and the total mechanical draft is 100. The linear density
(ktex) of card sliver (correct up to 2 decimal places) is _________.

Q.59 A spun yarn made of circular polyester fibres of 10 µm diameter is cut normal to
the yarn axis. If the helix angle of a fibre is 40, then the area (µm2) of that fibre
projected on the cut-section of the yarn (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is
____________.

Q.60 A needlepunching machine has two needle boards which operate sequentially at the
same frequency to produce nonwoven with 200 punches/cm2. Each needle board
has 40000 needles per meter width. If the delivery speed of the machine is 80 m/min,
then the frequency (strokes/min) of each needle board (answer in integer) is
__________.

Q.61 In a projectile weaving machine, the projectile travels through the shed at an average
speed of 24 m/s taking 2/3rd of the loom cycle. If the efficiency of the weaving
machine is 90%, the weft insertion rate (m/min) is (answer in integer) _________.

Page 34 of 35

Q.62 The breaking strain of a yarn is 1.5. If the stress (σ) and the strain (𝜀) of the yarn are
related as, 𝜎 = 1.5𝜀 2 , then the work factor of the yarn (rounded off to 2 decimal
places) is ___________.

Q.63 In a tensile test, a 50 tex yarn specimen of 500 cm length extends by 10% at
600 cN. The length of the yarn after the removal of the load is 525 cm. The elastic
recovery (%) of the yarn (answer in integer) is ___________.

Q.64 In water vapour transmission test of a fabric by evaporative dish method, the initial
mass of the dish is 198 g. After 20 h of test, the mass of the dish becomes 188 g.
The inner and outer diameters of the dish are 6.5 cm and 6.9 cm, respectively. The
water vapour transmission rate (g/m2/h) of the fabric (rounded off to 2 decimal
places) is ___________.

For crease resist finishing of cotton, 70 gpl aqueous solution of DMDHEU
Q.65 (molecular weight - 178) is applied by padding. If the DMDHEU is available as
50 % (w/v) aqueous solution, then the required amount of DMDHEU solution (ml)
for preparation of 1000 ml padding liquor (answer in integer) is _______________.

Page 35 of 35

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