HTET 2024 Question Paper Level 2 Mathematics

izFke 10 feuV esa vH;FkhZ viuh iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad dk feyku vks-,e-
,e-vkj-
vkj- mÙkj i=d ds Øekad ls vo'; dj ysAa ;fn vks-,e-
,e-vkj-
vkj- mÙkj i=d o iz'u&iqfLrdk
ds Øekad fHkUu gSa ;k dksbZ i`"B missing ;k misprint gks rks dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysAa

Sub. Code No. – 5210 Level – 2
[ TGT – For Classes : VI to VIII ]
Exam., 2024
SET – A MATHEMATICS iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad ,oa vks-,e-vkj- Øekad
Question-Booklet Serial No. & O. M. R. Serial No.
bl iz'u&iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet – 48 No. of Questions – 150 Time – 2.30 hours

vuqØekad ¼vadksa es½a / Roll No. (In Figures) ...................................................................................................................................................................
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa es½a / Roll No. (In Words) .....................................................................................................................................................................
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke / Name of Examination Centre ........................................................................................................................................................
vH;FkhZ dk uke / Name of Candidate ..........................................................................................................................................................................
vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj / Signature of Candidate fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj / Signature of Invigilator

........................................................................... .........................................................................

vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u& u&iqfLrdk
Lrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+us rFkk mÙkj i=d esa vius fooj.k Hkjus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&iqfLrdk o mÙkj i=d
dh Øe la[;k xyr vafdr gksa ;k dksbZ i`"B missing ;k misprint gks rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysAa blds blds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok
Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2.30 ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ dks
iz'u&iq
u&iqfLrdk esa fn, x, fdlh Hkh iz'u eas dksbZ =qfV gksus dk langs gks rks blds fy, fy, vH;fFkZ;kas dks ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr izfrosnu nsus ds fy, volj fn;k
tk,xkA vr% vH;FkhZ fu/kkZfjr volj ds nkSjku bl lEcU/k eas viuk izfrosnu cksMZ dk;kZy; eas ntZ djok ldrs gSAa bl volj ds ckn] bl lEcU/k esa izkIr
izfrosnuksa ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
tk,xkA
;fn fdlh iz'u esa fgUnh o vaxzsth ek/;e esa fHkUurk gS rks vaxtsz h ek/;e dk iz'u Bhd ekuk tk,xkA
If there is any variance between Hindi and English Version of any question then English Version would be considered correct.
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funs'Z k / Instructions for the Candidates :–
1. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i=d bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks iz'u&iqfLrdk i<+us dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy
IokbaV iSu ls fooj.k HkjsAa / The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet. When you are directed to read the Question Booklet, take
out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2.30 ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u&iqfLrdk esa 150 iz'u gSAa dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA / The test is of 2.30 hours duration and consists of
150 questions. There is no negative marking.
3. vius fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij fu'kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu dk iz;ksx djsAa vH;FkhZ iz'u&iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsAa / Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/darkening responses in the
Answer Sheet. The candidate should remain careful in handling the question paper and in darkening the responses on the answer
sheet.
4. izFke 10 feuV es]a ;g Hkh lqfuf'pr dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSAa vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k iz'u&iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B
missing ;k misprint gks rks vH;FkhZ nwljh iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds fy, i;Zo{s kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,¡A / Within first 10 minutes,
also ensure that your Question Booklet Serial No. and Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of discrepancy or any page
missing/misprint in test booklet, then the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both
the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

5. ysoy&2 [ d{kk VI ls VIII ds fy, ] 5. Level–2 [ For Classes VI to VIII ]
Hkkx&I % cky fodkl o f'k{kk 'kkL= [ç'u 1 ls ç'u 30] PART–I : Child Development and
Pedagogy [Qn. 1 to Qn. 30]
Hkkx&II % Hkk"kk,¡ % [ç'u 31 ls ç'u 60]
PART–II : Languages : [Qn. 31 to Qn. 60]
¼fgUnh % 15 iz'u o vaxzsth % 15 iz'u½
(Hindi : 15 Qn. & English : 15 Qn.)
Hkkx&III % lkekU; v/;;u % [ç'u 61 ls ç'u 90]
PART–III : General Studies : [Qn. 61 to Qn. 90]
¼ek=kRed ;ksX;rk % 10 iz'u] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk % 10 iz'u] lkekU; (Quantitative Aptitude : 10 Qn, Reasoning
Kku ,oa vfHkKku % 10 iz'u½ Ability : 10 Qn, G. K. & Awareness : 10 Qn.)
Hkkx&IV % xf.kr [ç'u 91 ls ç'u 150] PART–IV : Mathematics [Qn. 91 to Qn. 150]

[ uksV % d`i;k bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funs'Z kksa dks i<+Asa / Please read other remaining instructions given on the last page of this booklet. ]

jQ dk;Z ds fy, [FOR ROUGH WORK]

[3/A]
Hkkx – I / PART – I
cky fodkl o f'k{kk'kkL= / CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fØ;k dks vkjEHk djus] 1. Which out of the following is the
tkjh j[kus vkSj fu;fer djus dh çfØ;k process of arousing, sustaining and
dkSu-lh gS \ regulating activity ?

(1) vfHk#fp (2) vfHk/kkj.kk (1) Interest (2) Opinion

(3) vfHko`fÙk (4) vfHkçsj.kk (3) Attitude (4) Motivation

2. vf/kxe ¼lh[kuk½ ds laca/k esa dkSu-lk 2. Which is not an appropriate
mi;qDr dFku ugha gS \ statement regarding learning ?

(1) lh[kuk ,d lkoZHkkSfed çfØ;k gSA (1) Learning is universal process.

(2) lh[kuk O;ogkj esa ifjorZu ugha gSA (2) Learning is not the change in
behaviour.

(3) lh[kuk lek;kstu esa lgk;d gSA (3) Learning helps in adjustment.

(4) lh[kuk ,d fLFkfr ls nwljh fLFkfr esa (4) Learning is transferable from
LFkkukarfjr fd;k tk ldrk gSA one situation to another.

3. ^^ckyd dk fodkl flj ls vkjEHk gksdj 3. "The development of child starts
iSj dh fn'kk esa gksrk gSA** çLrqr dFku from the head and moves towards
fodkl ds fdl fl)kar ls lEcfU/kr gS \ the feet." The given statement is
related to which theory of
development ?
(1) fodkl fn'kk dk fl)kar
(1) Principle of Development
Direction
(2) fodkl Øe dk fl)kar
(2) Principle of Development
Sequence
(3) fujUrj fodkl dk fl)kar
(3) Principle of Continuous
Development
(4) ijLij lEcU/k dk fl)kar
(4) Principle of Interrelation

[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[4/A]

4. fuEu esa ls dkSu ekWMfyax lEçR;; ls 4. In the following who is related to
lEcfU/kr gS \ modeling concept ?

(1) flxe.M Ýk;M (1) Sigmund Freud

(2) FkkWuZMkbd (2) Thorndike

(3) vYcVZ c.Mqjk (3) Albert Bandura

(4) fxyQksMZ (4) Guilford

5. ,xzkfQ;k dgrs gSa % 5. Agraphia is :

(1) blesa jksxh esa i<+us dh {kerk lekIr (1) In this the patient loses the
gks tkrh gSA ability to read.

(2) blesa jksxh esa vius fopkjksa dks (2) In this the patient does not
fy[kdj vfHkO;Dr djus dh {kerk have the ability to express his
ugha gksrh gSA thoughts in writing.

(3) blesa jksxh esa lk/kkj.k tksM-+ ?kVko djus (3) In this the patient does not
dh {kerk ugha gksrh gSA have the ability to do simple
addition and subtraction.

(4) blesa jksxh esa oLrqvksa dk uke ysus esa (4) In this the patient is found to be
v{kerk ikbZ tkrh gSA unable to name the objects.

6. ,d ikjEifjd dgkor ds vuqlkj] ^tc 6. According to a traditional saying,
ykseM+h lHkh ç;kl djus ds ckn Hkh vaxwjksa 'when the fox could not reach the
rd ugha igq¡p ldh] rks mlus dgk] ^vaxwj grapes despite all it's efforts, it
[kV~Vs gSaA* ;g mnkgj.k gS % said that the grapes are sour.' This
is an example of :

(1) çR;kgkj dk (1) Withdrawal

(2) ;kSfDrdhdj.k dk (2) Rationalization

(3) ç{ksi.k dk (3) Projection

(4) çfrxeu dk (4) Regression

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[5/A]

7. eSLyks ds vko';drk inkuqØe fl)kar ds 7. According to the need hierarchy
vuqlkj] fupys Lrj dh çFke vk/kkjHkwr theory of Maslow, basic need at
vko';drk ekuh x;h gS % bottom level's is considered :
(1) lac)rk (1) Belongingness
(2) nSfgd vko';drk (2) Physiological Need
(3) vkRe-flf) (3) Self-Actualization
(4) lqj{kk (4) Security

8. ^^vki Nk= dks d{kk esa cSBk ldrs gks fdUrq 8. "You can make a student to sit in
Kku xzg.k ds fy, ck/; ugha dj ldrsA** the class but can't force him to
bl dFku dh iqf"V lh[kus ds fdl fu;e acquire knowledge." This statement
ls gksrh gS \ is confirmed by which law of
learning ?
(1) rRijrk ds fu;e ls (1) by the law of Readiness
(2) vH;kl ds fu;e ls (2) by the law of Exercise
(3) vuH;kl ds fu;e ls (3) by the law of Disuse
(4) çHkko ds fu;e ls (4) by the law of Effect

9. lq/kkj fo|ky;ksa dk lEçR;; gS % 9. The concept of reformatory school
is :
(1) ekufld eUn ckydksa ds fy, (1) for mentally retarded children
(2) çfrHkk'kkyh ckydksa ds fy, (2) for gifted children
(3) fo'ks"k vijk/kh ckydksa ds fy, (3) for juvenile delinquent
children
(4) lkekU; ckydksa ds fy, (4) for normal children

10. VkWyeSu ds fl)kar dk laca/k gS % 10. Tolman's theory related to :
(1) ÅtkZ 'kfDr ls (1) Energy system
(2) dSFksDlst ls (2) Cathexes
(3) VksiksykWth ls (3) Topology
(4) fodkl dh voLFkkvksa ls (4) Development stages

[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[6/A]

11. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa] ewy ço`fÙk lac) 11. In which of the following, instinct
laosx ls esy ugha [kkrh \ does not match with related
emotion ?
(1) gkL; − vkeksn
(1) Laughter − Amusement
(2) Self-Abasement − Feeling of
(2) vkReghurk − Js"Brk dh Hkkouk
superiority

(3) lkewfgdrk − ,dkdhiu (3) Gregariousness − Feeling of
loneliness
(4) fuo`fÙk − ?k`.kk
(4) Repulsion − Disgust

12. fi;kts ds vuqlkj] ewrZ lafØ;kRed voLFkk 12. According to Piaget, concrete
gS % operational stage is :

(1) 0 ls 2 o"kZ rd (1) 0 to 2 years

(2) 7 ls 11 o"kZ rd (2) 7 to 11 years

(3) 11 ls 12 o"kZ rd (3) 11 to 12 years

(4) 12 o"kZ ls vkxs rd (4) above 12 years

13. dksgyj us fl) fd;k fd vf/kxe % 13. Kohler proved that learning is :

(1) mn~nhiu ,oa çfrfØ;kvksa dk laca/k gSA (1) bonding of stimulus and
responses.

(2) ifjfLFkfr ds fofHkUu Hkkxksa dk (2) the perception of different part
çR;{khdj.k gSA of situation.

(3) ,d Lok;Ùk ;kn`fPNd xfrfof/k gSA (3) an autonomous random activity.

(4) lEiw.kZ ifjfLFkfr dk çR;{khdj.k gSA (4) the whole situation perception.

14. lEc) çfrfØ;k fl)kar nsu gS % 14. Conditioned Response Theory
given by :

(1) ikoykso (2) fLduj (1) Pavlov (2) Skinner

(3) FkkWuZMkbd (4) dksgyj (3) Thorndike (4) Kohler

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[7/A]

15. ,d N% lky dh ckfydk dh ekufld vk;q 15. The mental age of a 6 (six) years
7.5 o"kZ ¼7 o"kZ 6 ekg½ gSA mldh cqf) old girl is 7.5 (seven years six
yfC/k gksxh % months) years, her I. Q. will be :

(1) 125 (2) 90 (1) 125 (2) 90
(3) 75 (4) 140 (3) 75 (4) 140

16. ----------- ds vykok fuEufyf[kr 16. Following are the stages of
dksg~ycxZ ds uSfrd fodkl ds fl)kar dh Kohlberg's theory except ……… .
voLFkk,¡ gSaA
(1) :f<+xr (1) Conventional

(2) çkd~:f<+xr (2) Pre-conventional
(3) laosnh xked (3) Sensori Motor

(4) i'pkr~ :f<+xr (4) Post-conventional

17. lh[kus ds oØ esa iBkj bafxr djrk gS % 17. Plateau in the learning curve
indicates :

(1) dkedkth ifjfLFkfr;k¡ vuqdwy gSa (1) Working conditions are
favourable

(2) dksbZ Fkdku ugha gS (2) No fatigue

(3) dk;Z ljy gS (3) Task is simple

(4) #fp dh gkfu ¼deh½ (4) Loss of interest

18. ^^lh[kuk] vko';drk dh iwfrZ dh çfØ;k ds 18. "Learning takes place through a
}kjk gksrk gSA** dFku ls lEcfU/kr vf/kxe process of need reduction." The
fl)kar gS % learning theory related to the
statement is :

(1) vUrnZ`f"V fl)kar (1) Insight theory

(2) fØ;kçlwr vf/kxe fl)kar (2) Operant conditioned theory
(3) lEc) çfrfØ;k fl)kar (3) Conditioned response theory

(4) çcyu fl)kar (4) Reinforcement theory

[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[8/A]

19. ltZu'khyrk ds iks"k.k ,oa lao/kZu gsrq 19. Who postulated the Brain Storming
efLr"d m}syu fof/k dk çfriknu fdlus Method for fostering and boosting
fd;k \ creativity ?
(1) ek;lZ us (2) VkWjsUl us (1) Myres (2) Torance
(3) vkWlcuZ us (4) xkWMZu us (3) Osborn (4) Gordon

20. ^lkaosfxd cqf)* dk lEçR;; loZçFke fn;k 20. The concept of 'emotional
x;k % intelligence' was given by :
(1) MSu xksyeSu }kjk (1) Dan Golman
(2) tkWu es;j rFkk ihVj lsyksos }kjk (2) Peter Salovay and John Mayer
(3) VkWyeSu }kjk (3) Tolman
(4) VeZu }kjk (4) Terman

21. n`f"Vckf/kr fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh f'k{kk ds fy, 21. ………… is not necessary for the
----------- vko';d ugha gSA education of visually impaired
students.
(1) NksVs v{kjksa esa Nih iqLrdsa (1) Books in small letters
(2) JO; dSlsV (2) Audio cassette
(3) dkxt ij czsy ikB~;lkexzh (3) Brail text material on the paper
(4) xf.kr i<+kus ds fy, vcsdl (4) Abacus for teaching of
Mathematics

22. fd'kksj ckyd ,oa ckfydkvksa ds lUnHkZ esa 22. The most appropriate group of
lcls mi;qDr lewg gS % qualities in reference of adolescent
boys and girls is :
(1) vkn'kZoknh] Js"B lek;kstu] (1) Ideal, Good adjustment, Self-
vkRelEeku respect
(2) vewrZ fpUru] rkfdZdrk] fu.kZ; 'kfDr (2) Abstract thinking, Reasoning,
Decision-making
(3) fujh{k.k] foæksg dh Hkkouk] nksgjkus dh (3) Observation, Feeling of revolt,
ço`fÙk Habit of repetition
(4) n'kZu] lqlek;kstu] lekt-lsok dh (4) Philosophy, Good adjustment,
Hkkouk Feeling of social service

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[9/A]

23. vkuqoaf'kdrk cM+h Hkwfedk fuHkkrh gS % 23. Heredity plays the greatest role in
the :
(1) lkekftd fodkl esa (1) Social Development
(2) vk/;kfRed fodkl esa (2) Spiritual Development
(3) 'kkjhfjd fodkl esa (3) Physical Development
(4) lkaLÑfrd fodkl esa (4) Cultural Development

24. vUrn`Zf"V vf/kxe i)fr ds çfriknd dkSu 24. Who was the exponent of the
Fks \ method of Insight learning ?
(1) FkkWuZMkbd (2) dksgyj (1) Thorndike (2) Kohler
(3) Msfol (4) fLduj (3) Davis (4) Skinner

25. Lih;jeSu dk cqf) lEcU/kh fl)kar gS % 25. Theory of Intelligence given by
Spearman is :
(1) ,d-rÙo fl)kar (1) One factor theory
(2) f}-rÙo fl)kar (2) Two factor theory
(3) f=-vk;keh fl)kar (3) Three factor theory
(4) cgqrÙo fl)kar (4) Multi-factor theory

26. v/;kid dks d{kk esa lekos'kh okrkoj.k dk 26. Teacher needs to create an
l`tu djus ds fy, % inclusive environment in the
classroom :
(1) fof'k"V ckydksa dks 'kSf{kd fØ;kdykiksa (1) special children should be
ls nwj j[kuk pkfg,A kept away from educational
activities.
(2) fof'k"V ckydksa ds vf/kdkj ,oa lEeku (2) the rights and dignity of
dks lqjf{kr j[kuk pkfg,A special children should be
protected.
(3) fof'k"V ckydksa dks lkekU; ckydksa ls (3) special children should be
ghu le>uk pkfg,A considered as inferior to
normal children.
(4) lkekU; Nk=ksa ds e/; fof'k"V ckydksa (4) special children should be
dks uhpk fn[kkuk pkfg,A looked down upon among
normal students.
[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[ 10 / A ]

27. lrr ,oa O;kid ewY;kadu esa ^O;kid* ls 27. In continuous and comprehensive
rkRi;Z gS % evaluation, 'comprehensive' means :

(1) lHkh fo"k;ksa ds ewY;kadu ls (1) by evaluation of all subjects
(2) dsoy 'kSf{kd {ks= ds ewY;kadu ls (2) by evaluation of only
educational field

(3) x`gdk;Z ds ewY;kadu ls (3) by homework evaluation

(4) 'kSf{kd o lg'kSf{kd {ks= ds fodkl ds (4) by evaluating the development
ewY;kadu ls of educational and co-
educational field

28. ^^fodkl ds fdlh Hkh iM+ko ij dksbZ Hkh 28. "Any thing can be taught at any stage
oLrq fl[kkbZ tk ldrh gSA** vfHkO;fDr gS % of development." Expressed by :
(1) vklqcsy dh (1) Ausubel

(2) czwuj dh (2) Bruner

(3) fi;kts dh (3) Piaget
(4) xsus dh (4) Gagne

29. fdlus vf/kxe ds ç;kl ,oa =qfV fl)kar ds 29. Who experimented on 'cat' with
lanHkZ esa ^fcYyh* ij ç;ksx fd;k \ reference to trial and error theory
of learning ?

(1) ikoykso us (2) fLduj us (1) Pavlov (2) Skinner

(3) FkkWuZMkbd us (4) fxyQksMZ us (3) Thorndike (4) Guilford

30. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lh O;fDrRo ekiu dh 30. Which of the following is not a
ç{ksih fof/k ugha gS \ projective method of personality
measurement ?
(1) lkgp;Z rduhdh (1) Association technique
(2) jpuk rduhdh (2) Construction technique
(3) thou bfrgkl (3) Case study
(4) iwfrZ rduhdh (4) Completion technique

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 11 / A ]
Hkkx – II / PART – II
Hkk"kk ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ / LANGUAGES (HINDI & ENGLISH)
fgUnh (HINDI)
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A

31. leJqr fHkUukFkZd 'kCn ^euqtkr & euqtkn* 35. fdl 'kCn esa ^dq* milxZ dk iz;ksx ugha
dk Øe'k% lgh vFkZ pqfu, % gqvk gS \
(1) euq"; dks [kkus okyk] euq"; ls iSnk (1) dqtu
gqvk
(2) dqekj
(2) euq ls mRiUu gqvk] vÝhdh fuoklh
(3) euq ls mRiUu] euq"; dks [kkus okyk (3) dqps"Vk
(4) euqt dk iq=] euqt ls laca/k j[kus (4) dqefr
okyk
funsZ'k % ¼iz'u la[;k 36 ls 38½ ds mÙkj
32. fdl fodYi esa foykse&;qXe lgh ugha gS \ v/kksfyf[kr x|ka'k dks i<+dj nhft, %
(1) oSeuL; & lkSeuL; gesa bl ckr dks le>uk gksxk fd ;q) dh
(2) vfHkekuh & fujfHkekuh vuqifLFkfr gh 'kkafr dh ifjHkk"kk ugha gSA cq) us
(3) vH;FkhZ & izR;FkhZ ftl 'kkafriw.kZ lekt dh ifjdYiuk dh Fkh] mleas
(4) LokFkhZ & fuLLokFkZ lekurk dk og lans'k Hkh 'kkfey Fkk] tks gesa bl
ckr dk vglkl djkrk gS fd euq"; dks euq"; ls
33. rRle&rn~Hko 'kCnkas ds lanHkZ esa vuqi;qDr i`Fkd~ fn[kkus dk gj iz;kl euq";rk dk 'k=q gSA
fodYi pqfu, % ,sls izR;sd iz;kl dks foQy cukuk euq";ksfpr rks
(1) xrZ & xM~<k gS] ,d 'krZ Hkh gS euq"; ds :i esa thus dhA
(2) t`fEHkdk & tok¡bZ gekjh fpark ;g gksuh pkfg, fd gesa Lo;a dks
(3) peZpVd & pexknM+ euq"; dSls cuk,¡ ,oa dSls euq"; cuk, j[ksaA euq";
(4) ifjdwV & ijdksVk cuus dk vFkZ gS & vius Hkhrj nwljs dh ihM+k dks
le>us dk vglkl txkuk] vius Hkhrj d#.kk dk
34. ^i;kZ;okph* dh n`f"V ls vlqesfyr dks og Hkko txkuk] tks gesa nwljs ls tksM+rk gSA
pqfu, % NksVs&NksVs iqy cukus gksaxs gesa nwljs ls tqM+us ds
(1) rjax & ÅfeZ] ohfp] dYyksy fy, & d#.kk dk iqy] eS=h dk iqy] lekurk dk
(2) rjf.k & ukSdk] nzks.kh] djoky iqy] fo"kerk feVkus okyk iqy -------A ,slk
(3) rksrk & jDrrqaM] dhj] lqXxk le>dj gh ge ekuoksfpr vkpj.k dk ea= viuk
(4) ;ksfu & viR;iFk] tUeoReZ] jfrdqgj ldrs gSa] izcq) cu ldrs gSAa

[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[ 12 / A ]

36. ys[kd ds vuqlkj 'kkafr dh ifjHkk"kk ugha 41. izR;; dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi pqfu, %
gS % (1) bZ & nzkSinh] tkudh] okYehfd
(1) ;q) dh vuqifLFkfrA (2) ; & ekgkRE;] oS/kO;] ikSyLR;
(2) 'kkafriw.kZ lekt dh ifjdYiukA (3) rj & egÙkj] o`gÙkj] n`<rj
(3) ftlesa lekurk dk lans'k lfEefyr gksA (4) ,; & Hkkfxus;] ikFks;] oSurs;
(4) Lo;a dks euq"; cukukA
42. fuEu eas ls vlaxr dks pqfu, %
37. ys[kd ds vuqlkj euq"; cuus dk D;k vFkZ (1) va] v% & v;ksxokg /ofu;k¡
gS \
(2) M+] <+ & mfR{kIr /ofu;k¡
(1) cq)ksifn"V jkg dk vuuqxkehA
(2) euq"; dks euq"; ls i`Fkd~ fn[kkukA (3) 'k] "k] l & Li'kZ la?k"khZ
(3) nwljs dh ihM+k dks le>us dk Hkko (4) ,s] vkS & v/kZ lao`r
txkukA
(4) izcq) ekuoksfpr vkpj.kA 43. fuEu esa ls ^f'k{k.k&lw=* ugha gS %
(1) iw.kZ ls va'k dh vksj
38. x|ka'k eas iz;qDr inksa dh O;kdjf.kd (2) izsj.kk ls rdZ dh vksj
foospuk ds lanHkZ esa vlaxr dFku pqfu, % (3) LFkwy ls lw{e dh vksj
(1) vuqifLFkfr & nks milxZ (4) mi;qZDr lHkh
(2) euq";rk & tkfrokpd laKk
(3) izR;sd & vO;;hHkko lekl 44. xr fodYi pqfu, %
vlaxr
(4) fo"kerk & O;atu laf/k (1) leqnz esa yxus okyh vkx & nkokuy
(2) yksd&izpfyr ckr] ftlds oDrk dk
39. leLrin ,oa lekl foxzg dh n`f"V ls irk u gks & fdaonUrh
vlaxr fodYi pqfu, % (3) i'kqvksa }kjk tqxkyh djus dh izfØ;k &
(1) yksdfiz; & vf/kdj.k rRiq#"k ikxqj
(2) iou ls pyus okyh pDdh & iupDdh (4) ftlds ifr us nwljk fookg dj fy;k
(3) uo;qod & uo gS tks ;qod gks & v/;w<k
(4) ijh{kkHkou & ijh{kk ds fy, Hkou
45. fuEu esa ls iz{ksfir f'k{k.k lgk;d lkexzh
40. ;.k~ laf/k dh n`f"V ls laxr fodYi pqfu, % ugha gS %
(1) tkR;fHkeku = tkrh + vfHkeku (1) nwjn'kZu
(2) i;qZ"k.k = ifj + Å"k.k (2) fQYe LVªhi
(3) of/oPNk = o/kq + bPNk
(3) vksojgsM izkstsDVj
(4) egSUnztkfyd = egk + ,sUnztkfyd
(4) fQYe

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 13 / A ]
vaxzsth / ENGLISH
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

46. Complete the sentence with the 50. Which one of the following is not a
correct option : teaching aid in developing
Multilinguistic resource …………. . listening skills ?
(1) will increase the level of (1) Use of phonetic dictionary
learner participation (2) Gramophones
(2) will decrease the level of (3) Television
learner participation (4) Film & film strips
(3) is poor compared to any
Direction : (Q. No. 51 to 60) :
standardized text-book
(4) deprives the teacher's role as a Read the following passage and answer
facilitator the questions that follow :
I worked for a brief while in a
47. Fill in the blank with the correct college in Delhi, and among my more
option : uncomfortable memories is a language
Multimedia materials for teaching exercise, I gave a group of eight
undergraduates: I asked them to imagine
are ……………. .
that they had already graduated and
(1) LSRW lesson wanted them to write an application for a
(2) grammar, syntax and lexicon suitable job. Seven of the eight students
(3) text, image, audio, video and wrote applications for the jobs of clerks.
animation Even in one of the good universities, and
(4) phonetic, phonemic lessons in a college that had a reputation for its
academic standards, the system had
48. Which one of the following is the first snuffed out all youthful ambition.
step in teaching formal grammar ? Even the highest youthful ambition in
the prestigious colleges is to pass the
(1) comparison & generalization competitive examination for appointments
(2) collection and presentation of in the administrative services, and there
examples are colleges that are more proud of the
(3) application of rules bureaucrats among their alumni than of
(4) motivation and testing of any scholars, scientists or leaders of
previous knowledge opinion. And these latter, understandably,
are a small number. Students derive the
meanness of their ambitions from the
49. Fill in the blank with the correct meanness of the goals that the colleges
option : propose to themselves. And of the most
Stress, intonation and rhythm can ambitious, as well as of the least, among
be taught through ……………. . the students, it could be said that they
(1) skimming think more of what society will do to or for
(2) scanning them, than of what they would be able to
do for and to society. This is an excellent
(3) drills of various types apprenticeship for joining the ranks of
(4) transcription hirelings or of the unemployed.
[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[ 14 / A ]
51. How long did the author work in a
56. Fill in the blank with the correct
Delhi College ?
option :
(1) long time (2) short time
The thinking of the most ambitious
(3) three years (4) seven years and the least ambitious is ….……. .
(1) uncommon (2) alike
52. What exercise did the author give
the students ? (3) dissimilar (4) for the society
(1) a comprehension passage 57. Identify the statement which is
(2) precis writing true :
(3) expansion of a poem (1) The college where the author
(4) a language exercise worked in Delhi had a
reputation for its academic
standards.
53. Seven out of the eight students
(2) The students, who were asked
wanted to become …………… . to do the language exercise
(1) scholars were graduates.
(2) bureaucrats (3) All colleges produce scientists,
(3) clerks scholars and leaders of
opinion.
(4) scientists (4) The language exercise is
stored in the author's less
54. What according to the author is the comfortable memories.
highest ambition of students in
good colleges ? 58. Fill in the blank with the correct
(1) to qualify for administrative option :
services Another word for "snuffed out"
is ……………. .
(2) to become leaders of opinion
(1) smelled (2) instilled
(3) to teach (3) encouraged (4) killed
(4) to practice medicine
59. Choose the opposite of "former"
55. In the sentence "And these latter from the passage :
understandably are a small (1) least (2) latter
number", what does "these latter" (3) already (4) most
refer to ?
60. Fill in the blank with the correct
(1) clerks, doctors & engineers option :
(2) bureaucrats, scholars and "Alumni" in the passage
clerks means ……………. .
(1) unsuccessful students
(3) scholars, scientists and leaders
(2) successful students
of opinion
(3) bureaucrats
(4) only administrators (4) old students

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 15 / A ]
Hkkx – III / PART – III
lkekU; v/;;u / GENERAL STUDIES
ek=kRed ;ksX;rk] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk rFkk lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku / Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning
Ability and G. K. & Awareness
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

61. vlaxr dks Kkr dhft;s % 61. Find the odd one :

(1) vk;r (2) oxZ (1) Rectangle (2) Square
(3) ?ku (4) f=Hkqt (3) Cube (4) Triangle

62. ,d oLrq dks 153 #i;s esa cspus ij ,d 62. By selling an item for Rs. 153, a
O;fDr dks 10% dh gkfu gksrh gSA 20% man gets loss of 10%. For how
ykHk izkIr djus ds fy;s mls fdruh jkf'k much should he sell them to get
esa cspuk pkfg, \ profit of 20% ?

(1) 204 #i;s (2) 214 #i;s (1) Rs. 204 (2) Rs. 214

(3) 220 #i;s (4) 170 #i;s (3) Rs. 220 (4) Rs. 170

63. A, B, C, D vkSj E ,d o`Ùkkdkj est ds 63. A, B, C, D and E are sitting around
pkjksa vksj dsUnz dh vksj eq¡g djds cSBs gq;s a circular table facing the centre.
gSaA E vkSj B ds chp dsoy A gSA D, B Only A is between E and B. D is to
ds ,dne ck;ha vksj gSA C ds ,dne ck;ha the immediate left of B. Who is to
vksj dkSu gS \ the immediate left of C ?

(1) E (2) D (1) E (2) D

(3) B (4) A (3) B (4) A

64. 'ks[kj mÙkj fn'kk dh vksj 10 ehVj pyrk 64. Shekhar walks 10 metres towards
gSA fQj og nf{k.k fn'kk dh vksj 6 ehVj North. Then he walks 6 metres
pyrk gSA fQj og iwoZ fn'kk dh vksj towards South. Then he walks
3 ehVj pyrk gSA og vius izkjfEHkd fcUnq 3 metres towards East. How far is
ls vc fdruk nwj gS \ he from his starting point ?
(1) 7 ehVj (2) 6 ehVj (1) 7 metres (2) 6 metres

(3) 5 ehVj (4) 4 ehVj (3) 5 metres (4) 4 metres

[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[ 16 / A ]

65. fuEu la[;k Js.kh dk vxyk in gksxk % 65. Next term of the following number
series will be :

5, 6, 9, 15, 25, ? 5, 6, 9, 15, 25, ?

(1) 35 (1) 35

(2) 37 (2) 37

(3) 40 (3) 40

(4) 41 (4) 41

66. lfpu dey ls fBxuk ijUrq jke ls yEck 66. Sachin is shorter than Kamal, but
gSA eksgu lcls yEck gSA v#.k] dey ls taller than Ram. Mohan is the
FkksM+k lk fBxuk vkSj lfpu ls FkksM+k yEck tallest. Arun is a little shorter than
gSA bu ik¡p O;fDr;ksa esa nwljk lcls yEck Kamal and a little taller than
dkSu gS \ Sachin. Who is the second tallest
among these five persons ?

(1) lfpu (1) Sachin

(2) v#.k (2) Arun

(3) jke (3) Ram

(4) dey (4) Kamal

67. P, Q dh cgu gSA R, Q dh ekrk gSA S, 67. P is Q's sister. R is Q's mother. S is
R dk firk gSA T, S dh ekrk gSA P, S ls R's father. T is S's mother. How is P
fdl izdkj lEcfU/kr gS \ related to S ?

(1) iq=h (1) Daughter

(2) cgu (2) Sister

(3) nknh (3) Grandmother

(4) nksgrh (4) Granddaughter

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 17 / A ]

68. ;fn ZIP = 300 vkSj ZAN = 400 gks] rks 68. If ZIP = 300 and ZAN = 400, then
ZOO = ZOO =

(1) 250 (2) 350 (1) 250 (2) 350

(3) 200 (4) 500 (3) 200 (4) 500

69. fuEu o.kZ Js.kh esa yqIr in Kkr dhft;s % 69. Find the missing term in the
following letter series :

AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL

(1) FMJ (1) FMJ

(2) GMJ (2) GMJ

(3) GNJ (3) GNJ

(4) FNK (4) FNK

70. ;fn 'kCn CYBERNETICS ds lHkh o.kksZa 70. If the letters in the word
dks o.kZekyk ds Øe esa iqu% O;ofLFkr fd;k CYBERNETICS are rearranged in
tkrk gS] rks iqu% O;ofLFkr djus ds ckn the alphabetical order, which
dkSu&lk o.kZ e/; esa gksxk \ letter will be in the middle in order
after rearrangement ?

(1) E (2) I (1) E (2) I

(3) N (4) R (3) N (4) R

1
71. 113 ?ku ehVj vk;ru okys xksys dk 71. The diameter of a sphere whose
7 1
volume is 113 cubic metres is :
O;kl gS % 7

(1) 3 ehVj (1) 3 metres

(2) 6 ehVj (2) 6 metres

(3) 7 ehVj (3) 7 metres

(4) 14 ehVj (4) 14 metres

[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[ 18 / A ]

72. ;fn leo`Ùkkdkj csyu dk O;kl 28 lseh gS 72. If the diameter of a right circular
vkSj bldh Å¡pkbZ 20 lseh gS] rks dqy cylinder is 28 cm and its height is
i`"Bh; {ks=Qy cjkcj gS % 20 cm, then the total surface area is
equal to :

(1) 1760 lseh2 (2) 1232 lseh2 (1) 1760 cm2 (2) 1232 cm2
(3) 1496 lseh2 (4) 2992 lseh2 (3) 1496 cm2 (4) 2992 cm2

73. ,d leprqHkqZt dk ifjeki 52 lseh gSA 73. The perimeter of the rhombus is
;fn blds ,d fod.kZ dh yEckbZ 24 lseh 52 cm. If one of the diagonal is 24 cm,
gS] rks leprqHkqZt dk {ks=Qy cjkcj gS % the area of the rhombus is equal to :

(1) 240 lseh
2 2
(1) 240 cm

(2) 120 lseh
2 2
(2) 120 cm
(3) 180 lseh
2 2
(3) 180 cm

(4) 90 lseh
2 2
(4) 90 cm

74. ,d leo`Ùkh; 'kadq dh f=T;k vkSj Å¡pkbZ esa 74. The radius and the height of right
5 : 12 dk vuqikr gSA ;fn bldk vk;ru circular cone are in the ratio 5 : 12.
314 ehVj3 gS] rks blds vk/kkj dk O;kl If its volume is 314 metre3, the
cjkcj gS (π = 3.14) : diameter of its base is equal to
(π = 3.14) :

(1) 10 ehVj (1) 10 metres
(2) 5 ehVj (2) 5 metres

(3) 20 ehVj (3) 20 metres

(4) 15 ehVj (4) 15 metres

75. sec (90° – A) – cot A cos (90° – A) tan (90° – A) 75. The value of
dk eku gS % sec (90° – A) – cot A cos (90° – A) tan (90° – A)

is :
(1) tan A (2) cot A
(1) tan A (2) cot A
(3) cos A (4) sin A (3) cos A (4) sin A

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 19 / A ]

76. ;fn ,d ehukj dh Å¡pkbZ 2 3 ehVj gS 76. If the height of a tower is 2 3
vkSj bldh Nk;k dh yEckbZ 2 ehVj gS] rks metres and the length of its
lw;Z dk mUu;.k dks.k cjkcj gS % shadow is 2 metres, then the angle
of elevation of sun is equal to :

(1) 30° (1) 30°

(2) 45° (2) 45°

(3) 60° (3) 60°

(4) 75° (4) 75°

77. 20% pØo`f) C;kt ij ,d /kujkf'k 77. The least number of complete
U;wure fdrus iw.kZ o"kksZa esa nqxquk ls vf/kd years, in which a sum of money put
gks tk;sxh \ at 20% compound interest will be
more than doubled, is :

(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

78. 11 ls 50 rd ,slh fdruh la[;k,¡ gSa tks 78. How many numbers from 11 to 50
7 ls iw.kZr;k foHkkftr gksrh gSa ijUrq 3 ls are there which are exactly
ugha \ divisible by 7 but not by 3 ?

(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 7 (3) 5 (4) 7

4 4 4 4
 3  1  3  1
1  −  2  1  −  2 
 4  3  4  3
79. 2 2
dk oxZewy cjkcj gS % 79. The square root of
2 2
 3  1  3  1
1  −  2  1  −  2 
 4  3  4  3
is equal to :
11 1 11 1
(1) 2 (2) 2 (1) 2 (2) 2
12 12 12 12
11 1 11 1
(3) 3 (4) 3 (3) 3 (4) 3
12 12 12 12
[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[ 20 / A ]

80. X ,d dk;Z dks 6 fnu esa iw.kZ dj ldrk 80. X can do a work in 6 days and Y
gS vkSj Y blh dk;Z dks 8 fnu esa iw.kZ dj can do same work in 8 days. With
ldrk gSA Z dh lgk;rk ls rhuksa feydj the help of Z, all three finished the
bl dk;Z dks 3 fnu esa iw.kZ dj nsrs gSaA work in 3 days. If they altogether
;fn rhuksa dks dqy 2000 #i;s dk;Z got Rs. 2000 after completing the
lekfIr ij izkIr gq;s] rks Z dk Hkkx gS % work, then Z gets :
(1) 200 #i;s (2) 250 #i;s (1) Rs. 200 (2) Rs. 250
(3) 400 #i;s (4) 500 #i;s (3) Rs. 400 (4) Rs. 500

81. gfj;k.kk dk dkSu&lk ftyk gfj;k.kk ds lkr 81. Which district of Haryana shares its
ftyksa ls viuh lhek lk>k djrk gS \ boundaries with Seven districts of
Haryana ?
(1) vackyk (1) Ambala
(2) iapdqyk (2) Panchkula
(3) dq#{ks= (3) Kurukshetra
(4) than (4) Jind

82. egkHkkjr ds vuqlkj fuEufyf[kr eas ls 82. As per Mahabharata, who among
fdlus jksgrd ij ,d lSU; vfHk;ku dk the following led an expedition to
usr`Ro fd;k \ Rohtak ?
(1) Hkh"e (1) Bhishma
(2) vtqZu (2) Arjuna
(3) Hkhe (3) Bhim
(4) udqy (4) Nakul

83. iatkc ,oa gfj;k.kk mPp U;k;ky; ds eq[; 83. The Chief Justice of Punjab and
U;k;k/kh'k gSa % Haryana High Court is :

(1) U;k;ewfrZ 'khy ukxw (1) Justice Sheel Nagu
(2) U;k;ewfrZ jfo'kadj >k (2) Justice Ravishankar Jha

(3) U;k;ewfrZ _rq ckgjh (3) Justice Ritu Bahri

(4) U;k;ewfrZ d`".k eqjkjh (4) Justice Krishna Murari

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 21 / A ]

84. gfj;k.kk yksd lsok vk;ksx ds xBu dks 84. Identify the composition of Haryana
fpfÖr dhft, % Public Service Commission :

(1) v/;{k ,oa pkj lnL; (1) Chairman and four members
(2) v/;{k ,oa rhu lnL; (2) Chairman and three members

(3) v/;{k ,oa ik¡p lnL; (3) Chairman and five members

(4) v/;{k ,oa N% lnL; (4) Chairman and six members

85. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlus 2023 dk vtqZu 85. Who among the following received
iqjLdkj izkIr fd;k gS \ Arjuna Award of 2023 ?

(1) nh{kk Mkxj (1) Diksha Dagar

(2) fous'k QksxkV (2) Vinesh Phogat

(3) cchrk dqekjh (3) Babita Kumari

(4) jhfrdk gwMk (4) Reetika Hooda

86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk oU; tho 86. Which of the following Wild Life
vHk;kj.; iapdqyk esa vofLFkr gS \ Sanctuaries is located in Panchkula ?

(1) fNyfNyk vHk;kj.; (1) Chhilchhila Sanctuary

(2) chj f'kdkjxkg vHk;kj.; (2) Bir Shikargah Sanctuary

(3) ukgj vHk;kj.; (3) Nahar Sanctuary

(4) dkijokl vHk;kj.; (4) Kaparwas Sanctuary

87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ftyk f'kokfyd 87. Which of the following districts
fodkl ,tsUlh ds vUrxZr ugha vkrk \ does not come under the Shivalik
Development Agency ?

(1) vackyk (1) Ambala

(2) iapdqyk (2) Panchkula

(3) ;equkuxj (3) Yamuna Nagar

(4) dq#{ks= (4) Kurukshetra

[ Level-2 / 5210 ] P. T. O.

[ 22 / A ]

88. ykMok dk fl[k ljnkj tks izFke 88. The Sikh Chieftain of Ladawa who
vkaXy&ejkBk ;q) ds nkSjku vaxzstksa ds fo#) fought against British during the
yM+k % First Anglo-Maratha war :

(1) xq#nhr flag (1) Gurdit Singh
(2) yky flag (2) Lal Singh

(3) Hkkst flag (3) Bhoj Singh

(4) euksgj flag (4) Manohar Singh

89. Hkknkudksa ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr dFkukas dks 89. Read the following statements
if<+, % about Bhadanakas :
(A) 12oha lnh ds nkSjku os xq#xzke ,oa (A) During 12th century they were
jsokM+h ds {ks=kas ij 'kklu dj jgs FksA ruling over the area of
Gurugram & Rewari.

(B) mUgksaus pkSgku 'kkld i`Fohjkt&III dks (B) They defeated Chauhan ruler
ijkftr fd;kA Prithviraj-III.

lgh dwV dk p;u dhft, % Choose the correct code :
(1) dsoy dFku (A) lR; gSA (1) Only statement (A) is true.

(2) dsoy dFku (B) lR; gSA (2) Only statement (B) is true.

(3) u rks dFku (A) u gh dFku (B) (3) Neither statement (A) nor
lR; gSA statement (B) is true.
(4) nksuksa dFku lR; gSaA (4) Both the statements are true.

90. fLFkj ewY;ksa ij 2023-24 eas gfj;k.kk dh 90. Per Capita Income of Haryana
izfr O;fDr vk; gS % during 2023-24 on constant prices is :

(1) 3,25,759/– (1) 3,25,759/–

(2) 1,85,490/– (2) 1,85,490/–
(3) 1,63,285/– (3) 1,63,285/–

(4) 1,04,550/– (4) 1,04,550/–

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 23 / A ]
Hkkx – IV / PART – IV
xf.kr / MATHEMATICS
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. 18, 24 o 60 dk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z 91. The least common multiple of 18,
¼y0 l0 i0½ gksxk % 24, 60 will be :

(1) 120 (1) 120

(2) 240 (2) 240

(3) 360 (3) 360

(4) 480 (4) 480

 1  1  1  1   1  1  1  1 
92. 1 −  1 −  1 − .......... .1 −  92. 1 −  1 −  1 − .......... .1 − 
 5  6  7  100   5  6  7  100 
cjkcj gS % is equal to :

(1) 0 (1) 0

1 1
(2) (2)
125 125
1 1
(3) (3)
25 25
1
(4) 1
50 (4)
50
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93. ;fn 6, 4, 7, P vkSj 10 dk ek/; 8 gS] rks 93. If the mean of 6, 4, 7, P and 10 is 8,
what is the value of P ?
P dk eku D;k gS \
(1) 11
(1) 11
(2) 12
(2) 12
(3) 13
(3) 13
(4) 14
(4) 14

94. fuEufyf[kr vk¡dM+ksa dh ekf/;dk D;k gS \ 94. What is the median of following
data ?
25, 34, 31, 23, 22, 26, 35, 28, 20, 32 25, 34, 31, 23, 22, 26, 35, 28, 20, 32
(1) 22 (1) 22
(2) 27 (2) 27
(3) 25 (3) 25
(4) 20 (4) 20

95. ( x − y )( x + y )( x 2 + y 2 )( x 4 + y 4 ) 95. ( x − y )( x + y )( x 2 + y 2 )( x 4 + y 4 )
cjkcj gS % is equal to :
(1) x 16 − y 16 (1) x 16 − y 16
(2) x 8 + y 8 (2) x 8 + y 8
(3) x 8 − y 8 (3) x 8 − y 8
(4) x 16 + y 16 (4) x 16 + y 16
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96. ,d yac o`Ùkkdkj csyu ds vk/kkj dk 96. The area of the base of a right

{ks=Qy 154 lseh2 vkSj Å¡pkbZ 15 lseh circular cylinder is 154 cm2 and its

gSA csyu dk vk;ru D;k gS \ height is 15 cm. What is the

volume of cylinder ?

(1) 2310 lseh3 (1) 2310 cm3

(2) 5720 lseh3 (2) 5720 cm3

(3) 1780 lseh3 (3) 1780 cm3

(4) 3803 lseh3 (4) 3803 cm3

97. ;fn sec θ – cosec θ = 0 gks] rks 97. If sec θ – cosec θ = 0, then the
(sec θ + cosec θ) dk eku fdruk gksxk \ value of (sec θ + cosec θ) will be :

3 3
(1) (1)
2 2

2 2
(2) (2)
3 3

(3) 0 (3) 0

(4) 2 2 (4) 2 2

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98. lhls ds ,d Bksl ?ku ls fdruh xksykdkj 98. How many spherical bullets can be

xksfy;k¡ cukbZ tk ldrh gSa ftldk fdukjk made out of solid cube of lead

44 lseh gS] izR;sd xksyh dk O;kl 4 lseh whose edge measures 44 cm, each

gS \ bullet being 4 cm in diameter ?

(1) 1500 (1) 1500

(2) 2541 (2) 2541

(3) 1161 (3) 1161

(4) 2270 (4) 2270

99. ,d fØdsV eSp esa ,d cYysckt 40 xsanksa 99. In a cricket match, a batsman hits
esa ls 8 ckj pkSdk yxkrk gS] bldh D;k a boundary 8 times out of 40 balls
izkf;drk gS fd mlus pkSdk ugha ekjk \ he plays. What is the probability
that he didn't hit a boundary ?

(1) 0.2 (1) 0.2

(2) 0.3 (2) 0.3

(3) 0.6 (3) 0.6

(4) 0.8 (4) 0.8
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100. la[;kvksa 2, 2, 4, 5 vkSj 12 ds fy;s 100. For numbers 2, 2, 4, 5 and 12.
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS \ Which of the following statement
is true ?
(1) ek/; = ek/;d (1) Mean = Median
(2) ek/; < cgqyd (2) Mean < Mode
(3) ek/; > cgqyd (3) Mean > Mode
(4) cgqyd = ek/;d (4) Mode = Median

5+ 3 5− 3 5+ 3 5− 3
101. + dk eku gS % 101. The value of + is :
5− 3 5+ 3 5− 3 5+ 3
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 8 (2) 8
(3) 9 (3) 9
(4) 10 (4) 10

102. ,d 'kadq dh f=T;k vkSj fr;Zd Å¡pkbZ dk 102. The radius and slant height of a
vuqikr 4 : 7 gSA ;fn bldk oØ lrg cone are in the ratio of 4 : 7. If its
{ks=Qy 792 lseh2 gS] rks bldh f=T;k D;k curved surface area is 792 cm2.
gS \ What is its radius ?
(1) 2 lseh (1) 2 cm
(2) 5 lseh (2) 5 cm
(3) 11 lseh (3) 11 cm
(4) 12 lseh (4) 12 cm

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103. 2 gS % 103. 2 is :

(1) ifjes; la[;k (1) Rational Number

(2) izkÑr la[;k (2) Natural Number

(3) vifjes; la[;k (3) Irrational Number

(4) iw.kkZad la[;k (4) Integer Number

104. P, Q vkSj R feydj ,d dk;Z dks 30 fnuksa 104. P, Q and R together can complete
esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA ;fn P, Q vkSj R dh a work in 30 days. If the ratio of
n{krk dk vuqikr Øe'k% 20 : 15 : 12 gS] efficiency of P, Q and R is 20 : 15 : 12
rks R vdsys mlh dk;Z dks fdrus fnuksa esa respectively, then in how many
iwjk dj ldrk gS \ days R can alone complete the
same work ?
195 195
(1) (1)
2 2
235 235
(2) (2)
2 2
225 225
(3) (3)
2 2
215 215
(4) (4)
2 2

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105. ;fn a=4 rFkk b = 6 gks] rks 105. If a = 4 and b = 6 , then the value
a a
4 b 2 − a2 dk eku gksxk % of 4 b 2 − a2 will be :
4 4

(1) 8 2 (1) 8 2

(2) 28 (2) 28

(3) 12 (3) 12

(4) 3 (4) 3

106. ,d Bksl csyu dk vk;ru 448 π lseh3 106. The volume of a solid cylinder is
vkSj Å¡pkbZ 7 lseh gSA bldk ik'oZ i`"Bh; 448 π cm3 and height 7 cm. What
{ks=Qy D;k gS \ is its lateral surface area ?
(1) 754 lseh
2 2
(1) 754 cm
(2) 866 lseh
2 2
(2) 866 cm
(3) 539 lseh
2 2
(3) 539 cm
(4) 352 lseh
2 2
(4) 352 cm

107. 1 ls 50 rd dh yxkrkj la[;kvksa dk 107. The sum of consecutive numbers
;ksxQy gS % from 1 to 50 is :
(1) 1250 (1) 1250
(2) 1275 (2) 1275
(3) 1225 (3) 1225
(4) 1255 (4) 1255

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108. ,d nqdkunkj ,d mRikn ij ` 3750 108. A shopkeeper marks a product at
vafdr djrk gSA og bls 20% NwV ij ` 3750. He sells it at a 20%
csprk gS vkSj fQj Hkh ` 250 dk ykHk discount and still makes a profit of
dekrk gSA mRikn ds vafdr ewY; vkSj ` 250. What is the difference
ykxr ewY; ds chp varj gS % between the marked price and the
cost price of the product ?

(1) 750 (1) 750

(2) 500 (2) 500

(3) 1000 (3) 1000

(4) 1050 (4) 1050

109. 21 lseh f=T;k okys o`Ùk esa] ,d pki dsanz 109. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc
ij 60° dk dks.k cukrk gS] pki dh yackbZ subtends an angle of 60° at the
gS % centre. The length of the arc is :

(1) 20 lseh (1) 20 cm

(2) 21 lseh (2) 21 cm

(3) 22 lseh (3) 22 cm

(4) 25 lseh (4) 25 cm
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110. 24, 30 o 54 dk egÙke lekiorZd 110. The Highest Common Factor (HCF)
¼e0 l0 i0½ gksxk % of 24, 30, 54 will be :

(1) 2 (1) 2

(2) 3 (2) 3

(3) 5 (3) 5

(4) 6 (4) 6

111. ,d yac o`Ùkh; 'kadq dk O;kl 8 lseh gS 111. The diameter of a right circular

rFkk vk;ru 48 π lseh3 gS] rks bldh cone is 8 cm and its volume is

Å¡pkbZ gS % 48 π cm3. What is its height ?

(1) 25 lseh (1) 25 cm

(2) 21 lseh (2) 21 cm

(3) 9 lseh (3) 9 cm

(4) 15 lseh (4) 15 cm

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112. 2 dk eku n'keyo ds 3 LFkkuksa rd 112. The value of 2 upto 3 decimal
gS % places is :
(1) 1.410 (1) 1.410
(2) 1.412 (2) 1.412
(3) 1.414 (3) 1.414
(4) 1.413 (4) 1.413

113. funsZ'kkad v{kksa ds chp ds dks.k dh eki 113. The measure of the angle between
gS % the coordinate axes is :
(1) 0° (1) 0°
(2) 90° (2) 90°
(3) 180° (3) 180°
(4) 360° (4) 360°

114. izFke 50 izkÑr la[;kvksa esa ls nks la[;k,¡ 114. Two numbers are chosen from the
pquh tkrh gSaA nksuksa la[;kvksa ds vHkkT; first 50 natural numbers. What is
gksus dh izkf;drk gS % the probability of both the
numbers being prime ?
17
(1) 17
245 (1)
245
19 19
(2) (2)
245 245
21 21
(3) (3)
245 245
23 23
(4) (4)
245 245

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115. ;fn θ U;wudks.k gks vkSj tan θ + cot θ = 2 115. If θ is an acute angle and
gks] rks tan 5 θ + cot10 θ dk eku fdruk tan θ + cot θ = 2, then the value of
gksxk \ tan 5 θ + cot10 θ is :
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 4 (3) 4
1 1
(4) (4)
2 2

116. x 3 − 7 x + 6 ds xq.ku[kaM gSa % 116. The factors of x 3 − 7 x + 6 are :

(1) x(x – 6) (x – 1) (1) x(x – 6) (x – 1)
(2) (x2 – 6) (x – 1) (2) (x2 – 6) (x – 1)

(3) (x + 1) (x + 2) (x – 3) (3) (x + 1) (x + 2) (x – 3)

(4) (x – 1) (x + 3) (x – 2) (4) (x – 1) (x + 3) (x – 2)

117. usgk ds firk us ^` 360 esa 3 ntZu isaflysa 117. Neha's father bought 3 dozen
[kjhnhaA 7 isaflyksa dh dher D;k gS \ pencils for ` 360. What is the cost
of 7 pencils ?
(1) ` 70 (1) ` 70
(2) ` 80 (2) ` 80
(3) ` 75 (3) ` 75
(4) ` 60 (4) ` 60

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118. ;fn (x – 3),d xq.ku[kaM gS 118. If (x – 3) is a factor of x 2 − ax − 15,
x − ax − 15 dk] rks a = ?
2
then a = ?
(1) –2 (1) –2

(2) 5 (2) 5

(3) –5 (3) –5
(4) 3 (4) 3

119. 4000 dh vkcknh okys ,d xkao esa izfrfnu 119. A village having a population of
150 yhVj ikuh dh vko';drk gksrh gSA 4000 requires 150 liters of water
blesa 20 eh × 15 eh × 6 eh eki dh ,d per day. It has a tank measuring
Vadh gSA bl Vadh dk ikuh fdrus fnuksa rd 20 m × 15 m × 6 m, for how
pysxk \ many days will the water of this
tank last ?

(1) 10 fnu (1) 10 days

(2) 7 fnu (2) 7 days

(3) 3 fnu (3) 3 days

(4) 1 fnu (4) 1 day

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[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

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120. ;fn 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 + 5 3 + 63 = 441 120. If 13 + 2 3 + 3 3 + 4 3 + 5 3 + 6 3 = 441,
gks] rks 23 + 43 + 63 + 8 3 + 103 + 123 then the value of
dk eku gS % 3 3 3 3 3
2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 12 is : 3

(1) 3528 (2) 3529 (1) 3528 (2) 3529
(3) 3600 (4) 3728 (3) 3600 (4) 3728

121. ;fn (x + 1) vkSj (x – 2), 121. If (x + 1) and (x – 2) are factors of
x + ax − bx − 6 ds xq.ku[kaM gSa] rks
3 2 x 3 + ax 2 − bx − 6, then find the
Øe'k% a vkSj b dk eku Kkr dhft, % values of a and b respectively :
(1) 2, 3
(1) 2, 3
(2) 3, 5 (2) 3, 5
(3) 5, 3 (3) 5, 3
(4) 2, 5 (4) 2, 5

122. 35 lseh fr;Zd Å¡pkbZ okyh ckYVh ds Åij 122. The radius of the top and bottom of
vkSj uhps dh f=T;k,¡ 25 lseh vkSj 8 lseh a bucket of slant height 35 cm are
gSaA ckYVh dh oØ lrg gS % 25 cm and 8 cm. The curved
surface of the bucket is :

(1) 3630 lseh2 (1) 3630 cm2

(2) 3500 lseh2 (2) 3500 cm2

(3) 3750 lseh2 (3) 3750 cm2

(4) 4000 lseh2 (4) 4000 cm2

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123. ,d Bksl ?ku dks leku vk;ru okys nks 123. A solid cube is cut into two
?kukHkksa esa dkVk tkrk gSA fn;s x;s ?ku vkSj cuboids of equal volumes. What is
?kukHk ds dqy lrg {ks=Qy dk vuqikr the ratio of total surface area of the
D;k gS \ given cube and that of one of the
cuboids ?
(1) 1 : 2 (1) 1 : 2
(2) 3 : 2 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 5 (3) 3 : 5
(4) 4 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

124. ;fn 2 = 1.414 gks] rks n'keyo ds 3 124. If 2 = 1.414, then the value of
LFkkuksa rd 3 ÷ 6 dk eku gS % 3 ÷ 6 upto three places of
decimal is :
(1) 0.414 (1) 0.414
(2) 0.702 (2) 0.702
(3) 0.413 (3) 0.413
(4) 0.707 (4) 0.707

125. ;fn lehdj.k 10 x − 9 y = 12 dk gy 125. If ( 2 K − 1, K ) is a solution of the
( 2 K − 1, K ) gS] rks K = ? equation 10 x − 9 y = 12 , then K = ?
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4

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126. ;fn O;atd x + 1 x + a2 ,d iw.kZ oxZ 126. If expression x + 1 x + a 2 is a
4 4

gS] rks 'a' dk eku gS % perfect square, then what is the
value of 'a' ?
1
(1) ±
18 1
(1) ±
18
1
(2) ± 1
8 (2) ±
8
1
(3) − 1
5 (3) −
5
1 1
(4) (4)
4 4

127. 38 × 38 × 38 + 34× 34× 34 127. The value of :
38 × 38 + 34× 34 + 28 × 28 38× 38× 38+ 34× 34× 34
+ 28× 28×28− 38× 34× 84 38× 38+ 34× 34+ 28× 28
− 38× 34− 34×28− 38× 28 + 28× 28×28− 38× 34× 84
dk eku gS % − 38× 34− 34× 28− 38× 28
is :

(1) 200 (2) 100 (1) 200 (2) 100

(3) 150 (4) 110 (3) 150 (4) 110

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128. ;fn ( x − 3)2 + ( y − 5)2 + ( z − 4)2 = 0, 128. If ( x − 3)2 + ( y − 5)2 + ( z − 4)2 = 0,
2
y2 z2 x 2 y2 z2
rks x + + dk eku gksxk % then the value of + +
9 25 16 9 25 16
will be :
(1) 12 (1) 12
(2) 9 (2) 9
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 1 (4) 1

129. ,d cSx esa 1 #i;k] 50 iSls rFkk 10 iSls 129. A bag contain 1 rupee coins, 50 paise
ds flDds gSAa flDdksa dh la[;k 3 : 4 : 5 ds coins and 10 paise coins. The
vuqikr esa gSA ;fn dqy jkf'k `187 gS] 50 number of coins are in the ratio of
iSls ds flDdksa dh la[;k gS % 3 : 4 : 5. If the total amount is `187,
the number of 50 paise coins is :
(1) 136 (1) 136
(2) 170 (2) 170
(3) 180 (3) 180
(4) 200 (4) 200

;fn 2 x = 3 y = 6 − z gks] rks  1 + 1 +1
x y −z
130. 130. If 2 = 3 = 6 , then the value of
 x y z  1 1 1
 + +  will be :
dk eku gksxk % x y z
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
3 1 3 1
(3) (4) − (3) (4) −
2 2 2 2

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[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 39 / A ]

131. (125)−2 / 3 dk eku gksxk % 131. The value of (125)−2 / 3 will be :

1 1
(1) (1)
25 25

1 1
(2) (2)
125 125

1 1
(3) (3)
625 625

1 1
(4) (4)
3125 3125

132. gy dhft, 9 – 8.5 × 0.6 ÷ 5 + 1 = ? 132. Solve : 9 – 8.5 × 0.6 ÷ 5 + 1 = ?
(1) 9.99 (1) 9.99
(2) 8.89 (2) 8.89
(3) 9.88 (3) 9.88
(4) 8.98 (4) 8.98

133. 5 5 / 3 ÷ 5 2 / 3 × 5 −1 dk eku gksxk % 133. The value of 5 5 / 3 ÷ 5 2 / 3 × 5 −1 will
be :
(1) 0 (1) 0
(2) 1 (2) 1
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 10 (4) 10
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134. lekarj Js.kh 3, 8, 13, 18, …. dk dkSu&lk 134. Which term of the Arithmetic

in 78 gS \ Progression 3, 8, 13, 18, …. is 78 ?

(1) 16ok¡ (1) 16th
(2) 13ok¡ (2) 13th
(3) 12ok¡ (3) 12th
(4) 10ok¡ (4) 10th

a b a b
135. ;fn + = 1, a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0, rks 135. If + = 1, a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0, then the
b a b a
a 3 + b 3 dk eku gS % value of a 3 + b 3 is :

(1) –2 (2) –1 (1) –2 (2) –1

(3) 1 (4) 0 (3) 1 (4) 0

136. 2 2 2.......... ..∞ dk eku gS % 136. The value of 2 2 2.......... ..∞ is :

(1) 1 (1) 1

(2) 3 (2) 3

(3) 2 (3) 2

(4) 5 (4) 5

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137. ,d f=Hkqt dh nks Hkqtk,¡ 8 lseh vkSj 137. What will be the area of a triangle,
two sides of which are 8 cm and
11 lseh gSa rFkk ifjf/k 32 lseh gS] rks
11 cm and the perimeter is 32 cm ?
f=Hkqt dk {ks=Qy D;k gksxk \
(1) 84 cm2
(1) 84 lseh2

(2) 9 15 lseh2 (2) 9 15 cm2

(3) 8 30 lseh2 (3) 8 30 cm2

3
(4) lseh2 (4)
3
cm2
4 4

138. ,d yM+dk vius ?kj ls iwoZ dh vksj 24 138. A boy travels 24 km towards east
fdeh dh ;k=k djrk gS] fQj og ck;ha from his house, then he turned his
vksj eqM+rk gS vkSj 10 fdeh dh nwjh r; left and covers another 10 km.
djrk gS] mldk dqy foLFkkiu gS % What is his total displacement ?

(1) 22 fdeh (1) 22 km

(2) 23 fdeh (2) 23 km

(3) 25 fdeh (3) 25 km

(4) 26 fdeh (4) 26 km
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139. ;fn prqHkqZt ABCD ds dks.k A, B, C 139. The angle of quadrilateral

vkSj D dk vuqikr 3 : 7 : 6 : 4 gS] rks ABCD, taken in order, are in the

ABCD ,d gS % ratio 3 : 7 : 6 : 4, then ABCD is a :

(1) lef}ckgq f=Hkqt (1) Isosceles triangle

(2) leprqHkqZt (2) Rhombus

(3) lekarj prqHkqZt (3) Parallelogram

(4) leyac prqHkqZt (4) Trapezium

140. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh fHkUu vkjksgh 140. Which of the following fractions
Øe esa gSa \ are in ascending order ?
7 9 8 11 7 9 8 11
(1) , , , (1) , , ,
11 14 13 15 11 14 13 15
9 11 7 8 9 11 7 8
(2) , , , (2) , , ,
14 15 13 13 14 15 13 13
8 7 9 11 8 7 9 11
(3) , , , (3) , , ,
13 11 14 15 13 11 14 15
7 8 11 9 7 8 11 9
(4) , , , (4) , , ,
11 13 15 14 11 13 15 14

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141. "kV~Hkqt ds ckg~; dks.k D;k gksaxs \ 141. What will be the exterior angles of

a hexagon ?

(1) 7.2° (1) 7.2°

(2) 60° (2) 60°

(3) 54° (3) 54°

(4) 108° (4) 108°

142. A, B & C are the three angles of a
142. A, B vkSj C ,d f=Hkqt ds rhu dks.k gSaA
triangle. If A – B = 15°, B – C = 30°,
;fn A – B = 15°, B – C = 30° gks] rks
then ∠A, ∠B and ∠C = ?
∠A, ∠B vkSj ∠C = ?

(1) ∠A = 80°, ∠B = 65°, ∠C = 35°
(1) ∠A = 80°, ∠B = 65°, ∠C = 35°

(2) ∠A = 30°, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 90° (2) ∠A = 30°, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 90°

(3) ∠A = 40°, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 80° (3) ∠A = 40°, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 80°

(4) ∠A = 90°, ∠B = 40°, ∠C = 50° (4) ∠A = 90°, ∠B = 40°, ∠C = 50°

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[ 44 / A ]

143. (2 : 3), (5 : 6) rFkk (8 : 9) dk fefJr 143. What will be the compound
vuqikr D;k gksxk \ proportion of (2 : 3), (5 : 6) and
(8 : 9) ?
(1) 1 : 2 (1) 1 : 2
(2) 20 : 27 (2) 20 : 27
(3) 15 : 9
(3) 15 : 9
(4) 40 : 81
(4) 40 : 81

144. ;fn ,d okLrfod la[;k gS] rks
x 144. If x is a real number, then the
x − x + 1 dk fuEure eku gksxk %
2
minimum value of x 2 − x + 1 will
be :
(1) 0 (1) 0
3 3
(2) (2)
4 4
(3) 1 (3) 1
1 1
(4) (4)
4 4

145. ;fn gks] rks
(x + y):(x − y) = 7 : 3 145. If ( x + y ) : ( x − y ) = 7 : 3 , then ratio
( x + y ) : ( x − y ) dk vuqikr gksxk %
2 2 2 2
of ( x 2 + y 2 ) : ( x 2 − y 2 ) will be :
(1) 19 : 20 (1) 19 : 20
(2) 29 : 21 (2) 29 : 21
(3) 39 : 29 (3) 39 : 29
(4) 40 : 21 (4) 40 : 21

jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg / Space For Rough Work

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

[ 45 / A ]

146. ,d ?kukHk dk vk;ke 1 : 2 : 3 ds vuqikr 146. The dimensions of a cuboid are in

esa gS vkSj bldk dqy lrg {ks=Qy the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 and its total

88 oxZ ehVj gS] rks vk;ke D;k gSa \ surface area is 88 m2. What are the

dimensions ?
(1) 2 eh, 4 eh vkSj 6 eh (1) 2 m, 4 m, and 6 m
(2) 3 eh, 6 eh vkSj 9 eh (2) 3 m, 6 m and 9 m
(3) 2 eh, 3 eh vkSj 6 eh (3) 2 m, 3 m and 6 m
(4) 6 eh, 8 eh vkSj 10 eh (4) 6 m, 8 m and 10 m

2 2
 1
147. If  x +  = 3, then the value of
1
147. ;fn x +  = 3 gks] rks (x 72
+
 x  x
x 66 + x 54 + x 36 + x 24 + x 6 + 1) dk ( x 72 + x 66 + x 54 + x 36 + x 24 + x 6 + 1)
eku gS % is :
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

148. fn;k x;k gS ∠POR = 3x vkSj ∠QOR 148. Given ∠POR = 3x and ∠QOR = 2x + 10°.
= 2x + 10°, ;fn POQ ,d ljy js[kk If POQ is a straight line, then the
gS] rks x dk eku gS % value of x is :
(1) 30° (2) 36° (1) 30° (2) 36°
(3) 17° (4) 34° (3) 17° (4) 34°

jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg / Space For Rough Work

[ Level-2 / 5210] P. T. O.

[ 46 / A ]

149. ;fn O(p/3, 4) fcanq P(–6, 5) vkSj 149. If O(p/3, 4) is the midpoint of the
Q(–2, 3) dks tksM+us okys js[kk[kaM dk line segment joining the points
e/; fcanq gS] P dk eku gS % P(–6, 5) and Q(–2, 3), then the
value of P is :

(1) 7/2 (1) 7/2

(2) –12 (2) –12

(3) 4 (3) 4

(4) –4 (4) –4

150. ∆ABC ,d ledks.k f=Hkqt gS] ftldk 150. ∆ABC is a right-angled triangle,

dks.k B ledks.k gSA ;fn AB = 5 lseh right angled at B. If AB = 5 cm and
vkSj BC = 5 lseh gS] rks AC D;k BC = 5 cm, then AC will be :
gksxk \
(1) 6.171 lseh (1) 6.171 cm
(2) 7.171 lseh (2) 7.171 cm
(3) 6.071 lseh (3) 6.071 cm
(4) 7.071 lseh (4) 7.071 cm

jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg / Space For Rough Work

[ Level-2 / 5210 ]

jQ dk;Z ds fy, [FOR ROUGH WORK]

6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be given by
iw.kZr;k Hkjuk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % darkening complete circle using Black ball point pen as shown
1  3 4 below :
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn mÙkj okys [kkus dks 1  3 4
fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given below :
   
    

;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk mÙkj xyr ekuk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a wrong
tk,xkA answer.

7. jQ dk;Z iz'u&iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij gh djsAa / Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the
Question Booklet for the same.

8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i=d ij gh vafdr djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwod
Z vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA /
The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. Whitener (white fluid) is not
allowed for changing answers.

9. izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr fodYi ds fy, OMR mÙkj i=d ij dsoy ,d o`Ùk dks gh iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsAa
,d ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk ldrk gSA / Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the most
appropriate answer is to be darkened completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is
not allowed to be changed.

10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,¡A vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku
ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa / The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray mark on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.

11. iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djs]a D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa [iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks
NksM+dj] nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k
miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA / Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no
circumstances [except for discrepancy in Question Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No., another set of Question Booklet will not
be provided.]

12. iz'u&iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gLrk{kj pkVZ esa fy[ksAa / The candidates should write the correct Number as
given in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Signature Chart.

13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izo's k i= vkSj igpku i= ds vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~;&lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby
Qksu] bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA / Candidates are not allowed to carry any
textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit
Card and Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.

14. i;Zo{s kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk izo's k dkMZ [jksy ua0] vkSj igpku i= fn[kk,¡A / Each candidate must show on demand his/her
Admit Card [Roll No.] and identity card to the Invigilator.

15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k i;Zo{s kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMAs+a / No candidate, without special permission of the Center
Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.

16. dk;Zjr i;Zo{s kd dks viuk mÙkj i=d fn, fcuk ,oa gLrk{kj pkVZ ij nksckjk gLrk{kj fd, fcuk vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy ugha NksMa+sxAs ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ us
nwljh ckj gLrk{kj pkVZ ij gLrk{kj ugha fd, rks ;g ekuk tk,xk fd mlus mÙkj i=d ugha ykSVk;k gS vkSj ;g vuqfpr lk/ku dk ekeyk ekuk tk,xkA
OMR mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij lHkh vH;fFkZ;ksa }kjk ck;sa gkFk ds vaxB
w s dk fu'kku
fu'kku yxk;k tkuk gSA vaxBw s dk fu'kku yxkrs le; bl ckr dk
/;ku j[kk tk, fd L;kgh lgh ek=k esa gh yxkbZ tk, vFkkZr~ L;kgh dh ek=k u rks cgqr vf/kd gks o u gh cgqr deA / The candidates should not
leave the Examination Room/Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and signing the Signature
Chart twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Signature Chart second time will be deemed not to have handed over the
Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. All candidates have to affix left hand thumb impression on the OMR
answer sheet at the place specified which should be properly inked i.e. they should not be either over inked or dried in
nature.

17. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA / Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
18. ijh{kk d{k@gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy,] vH;FkhZ foojf.kdk esa nh xbZ izfØ;k@fn'kk&funs'Z k o cksMZ ds lHkh fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa dk fo'ks"k /;ku j[ksAa vuqfpr lk/kuksa
ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QSlyk cksMZ ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj gksxkA / The candidates are governed by Guidelines/Procedure given in the
Information Bulletin, all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of
unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.

19. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u djsAa / No part of the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be
detached under any circumstances.

20. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zo{s kd dks vo'; lkSia nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk bl iz'u&iqfLrdk dks ys tk ldrs
gSAa / On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The candidates
are allowed to take away this Question Booklet with them.