JKSSEE 2023 Question Paper Class 11

FOR JKSSEE PREPARATION

JKSSEE 2023 Question
Paper Class 11
EXAM YEAR TYPE

JKSSEE 2023 Question Paper

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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m J&K SAINIK SCHOOL MANASBAL . c JKSSEE 2023 Question Paper Class 11

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T E S T B O O K L E Ta - X I
Test Booklet No.

ROLL NUMBER

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Name of the Candidate:

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a of the Candidate:
Signature

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Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 280
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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE
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1. This booklet comprises of Four sections (32 Pages) comprising of 140
Questions with Section A - 50 (Mathematics), B -35 (Reasoning), C -30
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(Science), D -25 (English). Each Question has 2 Marks for correct Answer.

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2. A separate OMR sheet will be provided to mark the correct answer at the

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proper place on the OMR sheet.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball pen to fill your OMR sheet. Use of Pencil is not
allowed.
4. For every Question there are four probable answers out of which only one
most appropriate / correct. The candidate is required to select the correct
answer and darken the bubble against the correct option provided against
each Question in the OMR sheet. For example, if your Question no. 10 is C,
fill the bubble like this;
B C
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A D

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c. o 5. Overwriting, erasing or cutting on OMR is not allowed. m
s e Using of correction

s em 6. Rough work must be done only on this Booklet at gthelapotion specified for the
fluid/whitener is also not allowed on OMR.

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same.
7. The time allowed is 150 minutes.
8. There is no Negative marking.
9. A candidate is eligible for admission if he secures a minimum of 25% marks
in each Section and 40% marks in aggregate of all the Sections. However,
admission will be based on relative merit of candidate followed by medical
fitness and verification of requisite documents.
Signature of Invigilator Signature of Centre Superintendent

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 32

SECTION A: MATHEMATICS
(Total Questions - 50 Max Marks –100)
Q No. 1. The number of prime numbers less than 50 is

a) 13 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16

Q No. 2. 1 is a

a) Prime number b) Composite number

c) Both prime and composite d) Neither prime nor composite

Q No. 3. Assume that 1056 = 25 × 3𝑥 × 11𝑦 . Then (𝑥, 𝑦) =

a) (1,2) b) (1, 1) c) (2,1) d) (2,2)

Q No. 4. Assume that 1036 = 22 × 5𝑎 × 71 × 371 and 1036 = 2𝑏 × 7𝑐 × 371 . Then

a) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = 2, 𝑐 = 1 b) 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 1, 𝑐 = 1

c) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = 1, 𝑐 = 1 d) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = 2, 𝑐 = 2

Q No. 5. The degree of the polynomial 𝑝(𝑥 ) = 0 𝑥 3 + 0 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 1 is

a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0

Q No. 6. Which of the following is not an irrational number?

a) √2 b) √3 c) √4 d) √5

Q No. 7. Let 𝑝(𝑥) be a polynomial whose zeros are 1, −2. Then the zeros of the
polynomial 𝑝(𝑥 + 1) are

a) 1, −2 b) 0, −3 c) 2, −1 d) 2, −2

Q No. 8. The number of quadratic polynomials having zeros 1, −2 is

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Infinity

Q No. 9. The degree of zero polynomial is

a) 0 b) 1

c) Any positive integer d) Not defined

Q No. 10. Let 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 be real numbers and let the expression 𝑝(𝑥 ) = 𝑎 𝑥 2 + 𝑏 𝑥 + 𝑐 be a
quadratic polynomial. Then which of the following is always true.

a) 𝑎 and 𝑏 are always nonzero b) Not both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are zero

c) 𝑎, 𝑏 and c are always non zero d) 𝑎 ≠ 0

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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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a the expression 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0
Q No. 11. Let 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 be real numbers and let
represents a linear equation. Then which of the following is always
correct.

a) 𝑎 and 𝑏 are always nonzero b) Not both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are zero

c) 𝑎, 𝑏 and c are always non zero d) 𝑎 ≠ 0

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Q No. 12. Assume that the straight lines represented by pair of linear equations 𝑥 +
m . c
.
3𝑦 = 6 andco 2𝑥 − 𝛼𝑦 = 12 intersect at a unique point. Then which ofsthe
e m
s em is correct.
following
g l a
g laa) 𝛼 = −6 a
a
b) 𝛼 ≠ −6

c) 𝛼 must be a positive real number

d) 𝛼 must be a negative real number

Q No. 13. The lines represented by linear equations 𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 6 and 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 12

m
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intersect

a) On 𝑋 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠
e m b) On 𝑌 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠

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c) At origin d) Nowhere

Q No. 14. Twice the square of aa number is two more than three times the number.
Then the absolute value (Modulus) of the integral value of the number is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Q No. 15. Assume that the roots of the quadratic equation 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 𝛼 = 0 are real
and equal. Then the value of 𝛼 is
m d) 2
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1 1
c) 3
c.QoNo. 16. Assume the graphs of pair of linear equations 𝑎 𝑥 +s𝑏em
a) 3 b) 2

e m l a 𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 and 1 1 1

las 𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑏 𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 Intersect at origin. Then which of the afollowing
g
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2 2 2 is true.

a) 𝑐1 = 𝑐2 = 1 b) 𝑐1 ≠ 𝑐2

c) 𝑐1 = 𝑐2 = 0 d) 𝑎1 𝑏1 = 𝑎2 𝑏2

Q No. 17. The number of two digit numbers divisible by 4 is

a) 24 b) 22 c) 21 d) 20

Q No. 18. 1 + 2 + 3 + ⋯ + 100 =
m .
.co s e m
em a
a) 5500 b) 5005 c) 5050 d) 5000
s l
l a ag
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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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Q No. 19. The sum of first 22 terms of arithmetic progression 8, 3, −2, … is

a) −979 b) −970 c) −991 d) −901

Q No. 20. The 𝑛𝑡ℎ term 𝑎𝑛 of an arithmetic progression with first term 𝑎 and
common difference 𝑑 is 𝑎𝑛 =

a) 𝑎 + 𝑛𝑑 b) 𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑

c) 𝑛 + 𝑎𝑑 d) 𝑛 + (𝑎 − 1)𝑑

Q No. 21. Let 𝑎 = Sum of zeros of 𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 10 and 𝑏 = Product of zeros of

𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 1. Then 𝑎 + 𝑏 =

a) 7 b) 10 c) −6 d) −7

Q No. 22. Consider the quadratic polynomial 𝑝(𝑥 ) = 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐. Let = 𝑏2 − 4𝑎𝑐 < 0 .
Then the graph of 𝑝(𝑥) intersect 𝑋 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠 at

a) Two points b) Exactly at one point

c) No points d) Infinite number of points

Q No. 23. Consider the following statements

Statement I: If two triangles have same area, then they must be similar.

Statement II: If two triangles are similar, then they must have same area.

Then

a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

b) Statement I is false but Statement II is correct

c) Both statements are false

d) Both statements are correct

Q No. 24. Assume ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝐷𝐸𝐹 and 𝐴𝐵 = 4cm, 𝐷𝐸 = 6cm, 𝐸𝐹 = 9cm and 𝐹𝐷 = 12cm.
Then the perimeter of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is equal to

a) 18 cm b) 16 cm c) 14 cm d) 20 cm

Q No. 25. Which of the following is not a similarity criterion for two triangles?

a) SSS b) AAA

c) SAS d) ASA

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a points on it. Then which of the
Q No. 26. Let 𝐶 be a circle and 𝑃, 𝑄 be two distinct
following is always true

a) Tangents at 𝑃 and 𝑄 never meet.

b) Tangents at 𝑃 and 𝑄 always meet at one point.

c) Tangents at 𝑃 and 𝑄 need not meet.
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d) All of the above

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Q No. 27. If tan 𝐴 = , then 2 sin 𝐴 cos 𝐴 =
g l a
a
3

g l a
a a)
3
4
b) 10
9 19
c) 20 d)
24
25

Q No. 28. (1 + cot 𝑥 − cosec 𝑥)(1 + tan 𝑥 + sec 𝑥 ) =

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) 2

Q No. 29. Choose the correct option

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a) For all values of 𝜃, sin2 𝜃 − cos 2 𝜃 = −1
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c
b) For all values of 𝜃, sin 𝜃 + cos. 𝜃 = 0
em
2 2

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c) For all values of 𝜃, sinl𝜃a< cos 𝜃
a g 2 2
d) There exist 𝜃, such that sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃 = −1

Q No. 30. sec2 𝜃 − tan2 𝜃 =

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) 2

Q No. 31. Suppose we throw a die, what is the probability that a composite number

m
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will appear
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1 1

s
a) 3 b) 2 d) 0 c) 1

s em Q No. 32. A card is chosen from a pack of well shuffled pack
g l a of 52 cards. Then the
g la a
a probability of card is not a red ace is
25 24 23 21
a) 26 b) 25 c) 26 d) 20

Q No. 33. Sushil tosses three coins simultaneously, then the probability of at least
one head.
1 1 1 7
a) 4
m b) 2 c) 8 d) 8
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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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Q No. 34. Two dice are thrown, then the probability that sum of numbers that
appear on the top of the dice is 9 is
1 1 1 5
a) 34 b) 12 c) 9 d) 36

Q No. 35. The probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays and 53 Mondays is
1 2 1 1
a) 7 b) 7 c) 52 d) 50

Q No. 36. If for an event 𝐸, 𝑃(𝐸) = 0.001. Then 𝑃(𝑛𝑜𝑡 𝐸) =

a) 0.99 b) 0.909 c) 0.999 d) 0.099

Q No. 37. The probability that a leap year has 52 Sundays is
1 2 3 5
a) 7 b) 7 c) 7 d) 7

Q No. 38. The distance of a point (3, 6) from 𝑋 −axis is

a) 3 b) 6 c) 2 d) 9

Q No. 39. The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the
points 𝐴(−1,7)and 𝐵(4, −3) in the ratio 3: 2 is

a) (2,1) b) (1,2) c) (3,1) d) (1,3)

Q No. 40. The perimeter of a triangle joining the points (0, 0), (2,0) and (1,1) is

a) 2 units b) 2√2 units

c) 2 + 2√2 units d) 2 + √2 units

Q No. 41. Consider the following statements

Statement I: Let 𝑥 be a real number. Then √𝑥 2 = 𝑥.

Statement II: If 𝑥 and 𝑦 are real numbers, then |𝑥 − 𝑦| gives distance between 𝑥 and
𝑦.

Then

a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

b) Statement I is false but Statement II is correct.

c) Both statements are false

d) Both statements are correct.

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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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a
Q No. 42. If 𝑀𝑜𝑑𝑒 = 2 and 𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛 = 7. Then 𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 =
16 17 14 2
a) 3 b) 3 c) 3 d) 3

Q No. 43. The median of the data 9,7,8,14,16,21 is

a) 10 b) 11 c) 11.5 d) 12.3

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Q No. 44. In a circle of diameter 42 𝑐𝑚, an arc subtends an angle of 30𝑜 at the
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center. The length of arc is

emcm d)22la
s
a s
a) 11
lSuppose
b) 21 cm c)12 cm
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cm

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Q No. 45. circumference of a circle is equal to perimeter of a square. Then
22
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎(𝐶𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒): 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎(𝑆𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒) = (Take 𝜋 = 7 )

a) 2: 3 b) 10: 11 c) 11: 10 d) 14: 11

Q No. 46. Area of a Sector of a circle with radius 𝑟 and angle 𝜃 =
𝜃 𝜃
a) 360 𝜋𝑟 2 b) 360 2𝜋𝑟
m
𝜃
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c) 360 𝜋𝑟
e d) None of these
as
Q No. 47. The approximate areaglof the sector of a circle with radius 4 𝑐𝑚 and of
𝑜
a
angle 30 (Take 𝜋 = 3.14) is

a) 3.17 𝑐𝑚2 b) 4.19 𝑐𝑚2

c) 7.26 𝑐𝑚2 d) 9.15 𝑐𝑚2

Q No. 48. The surface area of a sphere of radius 𝑟 is

m
.co
a) 𝜋𝑟 2 b) 4𝜋𝑟 2
m
m .co c) 2𝜋𝑟 2
sd)em
2𝜋𝑟

s e Q No. 49. The arithmetic mean of first 𝑛 odd numbers is gla
g la a
a a)
𝑛
b)
𝑛(𝑛+1)
2 2

c) 𝑛 d) 𝑛2

Q No. 50. The volumes of two spheres are in the ration 64: 27. The ratio of their
curved surface area is

m .
c. o
a) 4: 3 b) 16: 9 c) 32: 27 d) 8: 9
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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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SECTION B: INTELLIGENCE / REASONING
(Total Question – 35 Max Marks – 70)
Directions: In each of the questions (Q No. 51 to Q No. 53), select a figure from
amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of
figure (?) would complete the pattern.

Q No. 51. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

Q No. 52. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

Q No. 53. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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Directions: (Q No. 54 to Q No. 56), Choose athe correct alternative that will
continue the same pattern and replace the question mark/s (?) in the
given series.

Q No. 54. 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ?

a) 42 b) 43 c) 51 d) 52
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Q No. 55. 1, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001
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a) 101 . s e
e m b) 110 c) 111
a
d) None of these
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Q No. 56. l20, ag
g
19, 16, 17, 13, 14, 11, ?, ?
a a) 10, 10 b) 10, 11 c) 13, 14 d) 13, 16

Q No. 57. Vimla starts for office every day at 9 am and reaches exactly on time if
she drives at her usual speed of 40 km/hr. She is late by 6 minutes if
she drives at 35 km/hr. One day, she covers two-thirds of her distance to
office in one-thirds of her usual time to reach office, and then stops for 8
m
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minutes. The speed, in km/hr, at which she should drive the remaining

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distance to reach office exactly on time is: m
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ag
a) 27 b) 28 c) 29 c) 26

Q No. 58. A circular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown below.
How will it appear when opened?

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s e g la
g la a
a

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s em l a
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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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Q No. 59. A square sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown below.
How will it appear when opened?

Directions: In the given questions (Q No. 60 and Q No. 61), the day of a particular
date is already given and you are required to find out the day on the
following date based on the former information given to you.

Q No. 60. On 8th November 2006, Wednesday falls. Find out what was the day of
the week on 8th January 2009.

a) Thursday b) Saturday c) Sunday d) Monday

Q No. 61. On 8th February 2005, it was Tuesday. Find out the day of the week on
the 8th February 2004.

a) Sunday b) Monday c) Tuesday d) Wednesday

Direction: In the below questions (Q No. 62 and Q No. 63), you are given the
various information and you need to find the angle of the clock with
respect to minute hand, hour hand, or second hand.

Q No. 62. Suppose a clock started at noon. When the minute hand is 10 past 5
than the hour hand has turned through

a) 140° b) 155° c) 160° d) 170°

Q No. 63. Find the time between 2 and 3 o’clock when the hands of a clock will be
together.

a) 10 9/11 minutes b) 10 10/11 minutes

c) 8 minutes d) 10 6/11 minutes

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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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se g la
Q No. 64. From the given answer figures select thea one in which the question figure
is hidden/embedded in the same direction.

Question Figure

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m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

Q No. 65. In a certain code language, OPERATION is written as NODQBUJPO. How
is SNVISBLE written in that code?
m
.co
a) JOWJTJCMF b) JOWJTHAKD
c) HMUHTJCMF
e m d) HMUHTHAKD

l as= 23 and CAT = 24, then how will you code
ag
Q No. 66. If in a certain code, BAT
BALL?
a) 27 b) 28 c) 32 d) 120
Q No. 67. Study the following letters and their corresponding digit codes followed by
certain conditions of coding and answer the question given below them
by finding out which of the digit combinations given in (a), (b), (c) and (d)
is the coded form of the letter - group given.
om
om . c
c. Letter P N A J I R E
s 7 emB U K

s em Code 5 l a
la Conditions: ag
3 9 1 4 6 2 0 8

ag
(1) IF both the first and the last letters in the group are vowels, both should be
coded as .
(2) If both the first and the last letters in the group are consonant, both should be
coded as #.

m .
c. o
a) RBUKAE # 70892 b) 670892
e m
c) 670982
em
d) 607892
l as
l as ag
ag
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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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Q No. 68. If "cook" is called 'butler", "butler" is called "manager? 'manager' is called
'teacher, 'teacher' is called 'clerk' and 'clerk' is called 'principal who will
teach in a class?
a) Cook b) Butler c) Manager d) Clerk
Q No. 69. In a below mentioned question, a word is represented by only one set of
numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers
given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in
the two given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix Ist are numbered
from 0 to 4 and those of Matrix IInd from 5 to 9. A letter from these
matrices can be represented first by its row and then the column number
e.g., in the matrices for questions 1 to 4, M can be represented by 14, 21,
etc; 0 can be represented by 20, 32, etc. Similarly, you have to identify
the correct set for the word given in each question.

a) EAST 44, 32, 21, 03 b) 32, 31, 02, 04
c) 20, 43, 33, 11 d) 13, 12, 14, 10
Q No. 70. Meena walks 14 meters towards West, then turns to her right and walks
14 meters and then turns to her left and walks 10 meters. Again turning
to her left, she walks 14 meters. What is the shortest distance between
her starting point and the present position?
a) 10 b) 24 c) 28 d) 38
Q No. 71. In the given figure, B is 300 km Eastward of A and C is 400 km North of
A. D is exactly in the middle of C and B, the distance between C and D is:

a) 250km b) 300km c) 2502√km d) 350km

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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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Q No. 72. Study the following Information carefullyaand answer the question:

(i) Six children B/ D/ C, M, J and K are split into two groups of three each
and are made to stand in two rows in such a way that a child in one row is
exactly facing a child in the other row.

(ii) M is not at the ends of any row and is to the right of J, who is facing C. K
m
.co
is to the left of D, who is facing M.
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.co
Which of the following groups of children is in the same row?
m s e m
s e g l a
l a
a) BDC b) BMD c) MJK
a
d) None of these

ag. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
Q No. 73
below:

(i) 'P # Q' means 'P is the father of Q'.

(ii) 'P + Q' means 'P is the mother of Q'.

m
(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is the brother of Q'.
o
c
(iv) 'P % Q' means 'P is the sister.of Q'.
e m
If A + B - C % D # E, then A is D's a
l s
a) Father a g b) Sister

c) Grandfather d) Grandmother

Q No. 74. A number series is given, after the series, bellow it in the next line, a
number is given and is followed by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e). You have to
complete the series starting with the given number, following the pattern
m
m of the given series.
.co
m .co s e m
la
2, 9, 57, 337, 1681 3, (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
s e g
g la Which number will come in place of (e)? a
a a) 32416 b) 4231

c) 13441 d) 6392

Q No. 75. Find the number of ways of selecting 4 letters from the word
EXAMINATION.

m .
c. o
a) 136 b) 126 c) 252 d) 525

e m
em l as
las ag
g
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JKSSEE-23 XI-2023
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Q No. 76. There are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to consider the two statements to be true, even if they seen to
be at variance at the commonly known facts. You have to decide which of
the given conclusions definitely follows from the given statements.

You are to give your answer as: (a) if only I follows; (b) if only conclusion II follows;
(c) if either I or II follows; (d) if neither I nor II.

Statement:

All boys are mothers.

All mothers are fathers.

Conclusions:

I. All mother are boys.

II. All boys are fathers.

a) If only I follows b) If only conclusion II follows

c) If either I or II follows d) If neither I nor II follows

Q No. 77. Which number is in the square, ellipse and triangle?

a) 1 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

Q No. 78. Find the missing number.

a) -30 b) 13 c) 18 d) 30

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Q No. 79. Find the odd man out. a
a) ACDF b) FGKL c) HIVW d) TUOP

Q No. 80. A statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to decide which alternative among the given options follow from the
given statement.

o m
Statements: The eligibility for admission to the course is minimum second class
m . c
. co degree. However, the candidates who have appeared forsthe
Master’s
e m
m year examination of Master’s degree can also apply.
efinal l a
s g
la I. All candidates who are yet to get their Master’s degree willa be there
a g
Conclusions:
in the list of selected candidates.

II. All candidates having obtained second class Master’s degree will
be there in the list of selected candidates.

a) Only conclusion I follows b) Only conclusion II follows

om
c) Either I or II follows d) Neither I nor II follows

. c
m
Q No. 81. Read the following statements carefully and answer the question based

s e
on it.
l a
ofgfive persons A, B, C, D and E.
In a group a

(i) A and C are Intelligent in English and Reasoning.
(ii) B and C are Intelligent in English and General Awareness.
(iii) E and D are Intelligent in Arithmetic and Interview.
(iv) E is intelligent in Interview. Reasoning and Arithmetic.
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(v) B and D are intelligent in Arithmetic and General Awareness?

.co e m
Who is intelligent in English, Arithmetic and General Awareness?
s
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l a a) A b) B c) C
a
d) D

ag Q No. 82. The two expression on either side of the sign (=) will have the same value
if two terms on either side or on the same side are interchanged. The
correct terms to be inter-changed have been given as one of the four
alternatives under each expressions. Find the correct alternative. Select
the correct set of symbols which will fit in the given equation 5 0 3 5 =
20.
m b) −, +, ×| .
a) ×, ×, ×|
.co c) ×, +, ×| d) +, −, ×|
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Q No. 83. Five words are given. Which of them will come at the third position if all
of them are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary?

a) Sack b) Shame

c) Sick d) Show

Q No. 84. Four words have been given of which three are alike in same way and one
is different, choose out the ODD one.

a) Treachery b) Morbid

c) Deceit d) Swindle

Q No. 85. The following problem is based on pattern completion test. A figure
is given whose one part/quarter is missing or left blank with some
choices, you are required to select the best choice which completes the
figure.

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SECTION C: SCIENCE
(Total Question – 30 Max Marks – 60)

Directions (Q No. 86 and Q No. 87): Read the passage and answer the Questions.

Marble’s popularity began in ancient Rome and Greece, where white and off-white
m
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marble were used to construct a variety of structures, from hand-held sculptures to
m
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massive pillars and buildings.
m s e m
Q No. 86. The esubstance
s not likely to contain CaCO is:
g l a
a
3

g l a) Dolomite a
a b) A marble statue

c) Calcined gypsum d) Sea shells

Q No. 87. Calcium Oxide can be reduced to Calcium, by heating with Sodium
metal. Which compound would act as an oxidizing agent in the above
process?

om
a) Sodium b) Sodium Oxide
. c
c) Calcium
e m d) Calcium Oxide

l as
Directions (Q No. 88 and Q No. 89): The pH values of many common liquids are
ag Study the below table and answer the following
given in the table below.
questions.

Substance pH
Battery acid <1.0
Stomach acid 2.0
Lemon acid 2.4
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Cola 2.5
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Apple juice 3.5

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Black coffee 5.0

las Acid rain g
a 6.5
5.6

ag Milk
Distilled water 7.0
Human saliva 7.5
Sea water 8.0
Soap 9.0-10.0
Milk of magnesia 10.5
Ammonia 11.5
m .
c. o m
Bleach 12.5

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Q No. 88. Which of these is valid conclusion that can be drawn from the table.

a) Many common food items are quite acidic in nature

b) Our stomach contains a liquid which is a weak acid

c) Sea water is neither acidic nor basic. It is neutral

d) Acid rain, in spite of its name, is basic in nature

Q No. 89. Amit has black coffee with milk. Which of the following is most likely to
be true about the pH of the mixture?

a) It will be less than that of black coffee

b) It will be more than that of distilled water

c) It will be more than that of acid rain

d) It will be less than that of apple juice

Directions (Q No. 90 and Q No. 91): A student took four metals P, Q, R and S and
carried out different experiments to study the properties of metals. Some
of the observations were:

 All metals could not be cut with knife except metal R.
 Metal P combined with oxygen to form an oxide M 2O3 which reacted with both
acids and bases.
 Reaction with water.
P – Did not react either with cold or hot water but reacted with steam.
Q – Reacted with hot water and the metal started floating.
R – Reaction violently with cold water.
S – Did not react with water at all.
Based on the above observations answer the following:

Q No. 90. Out of the given metals, the one which needs to be stored using kerosene
is:

a) P b) R c) S d) Q

Q No. 91. The increasing order of the reactivity of the four metals is:

a) P<Q<R<S b) S<R<Q<P

c) S<P<Q<R d) P<R<Q<S

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a added to ethanoic acid a gas
Q No. 92. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is
evolves. Consider the following statements about the gas evolved.
a) It turns lime water milky
b) It is evolved with a brisk effervescence
c) It has a smell of burning Sulphur

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d) It is also a by-product of respiration
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The correct statement are:
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a) a and b only b) b and d only
g l a
g lac) a, c and d a
a
d) a, b and d
Q No. 93. While studying the saponification reaction, what do you observe when
you mix an equal amount of colourless vegetable oil and 20% aqueous
solution of NaOH in a beaker?
a) The colour of the mixture has become dark brown
b) A brisk effervescence is taking place in the beaker
m
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c) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot

s em
d) The outer surface of the beaker has become cold

g la energy for various activities. This energy is
Q No. 94. All living cells require
available by the abreakdown of simple carbohydrates either using
oxygen or without using oxygen.
The characteristic process observed in anaerobic respiration are:
(i) Presence of oxygen
(ii) Release of Carbon dioxide
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(iii) Release of energy
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s em
s e a) (i), (ii) only
g la only
b) (i), (ii), (iii)

g la a
a c) (ii), (iii), (iv) only d) (iv) only
Q No. 95. In a person, the tubule part of the nephron is not functioning at all. What
will its effect be on urine formation?
a) The urine will not be formed
b) Quality and quantity of urine is unaffected

m .
c) Urine is more concentrated

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d) Urine is more diluted
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Q No. 96. Refer to Table A showing the blood report of the levels of glucose of
patient’s X and Y. Infer the disease which can be diagnosed from the
given data.

Table A: Blood report of patient X and Y

Blood Glucose ranges (mg/dL)
Time of Check
Patient X Patient Y

Before breakfast (Fasting) <100 70-130

Before Lunch, supper and snack <110 70-130

Two hours after meals <140 <180

Bedtime <120 90-150

a) Diabetes b) Goiter

c) Marasmus d) Acromegaly

Q No. 97. Refer to the Table B and suggest the value of the mean blood glucose
level beyond which doctors’ advice is necessary.

Table B: Blood Glucose chart

Mean Blood Glucose Level (mg/dL)
380
350
315
Doctors’ advice needed
280
250
215
180
Good
150
115
Excellent 80
50

a) 180 mg/dL b) 115 mg/dL

c) 50 mg/dL d) 80 mg/dL

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Q No. 98. A student while observing an embryo ofaa gram seed listed various parts
of the embryo as listed below: Testa, Micropyle, Cotyledon, Tegmen,
Plumule, Radicle.
On examining the list, the teacher commented that only three parts are correct.
Select these three correct parts:
a) Cotyledon, Testa, Plumule
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b) Cotyledon, Plumule, Radicle
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c) Cotyledon, Tegmen, Radicle
g l a
g lad) Cotyledon, Micropyle, Plumule a
a Which among the following is not the function of testes at puberty?
Q No. 99.
(i) Formation of germ cells
(ii) Secretion of testosterone
(iii) Development of placenta
(iv) Secretion of estrogen
m
a) (i) and (ii)
.co b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
s em d) (i) and (iv)
l a
Q No. 100. Study the given crossgshowing
a self-pollination in F . 1

RRYY x rryy Parents
(Round Yellow) (Wrinkled Green)
RrYy x RrYy F1 generation
(Round Yellow) (Round Yellow)
The combination of characters in the F2 progeny are:
o m
m c
. Green
.co m
a) Round Yellow : Round Green : Wrinkled Yellow : Wrinkled

m e
b) Round Green : Round Yellow : Wrinkled Yellows: Wrinkled Green
s e g l a
g la a : Wrinkled Yellow
c) Round Yellow : Round Green : Wrinkled Green
a d) Round Green : Round Yellow : Wrinkled Yellow : Wrinkled Green
Q No. 101. A Mendelian experiment consists of breeding tall pea plants bearing
white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but the genetic
make-up of the tall parent cod depicted as:
a) TTWW b) TTww
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c) TtWW d) TtWw
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Q No. 102. A converging lens forms a three times magnified image of an object,
which can be take on a screen. If the focal length of the lens is 30cm,
then the distance of the object from the lens is:

a) -55 cm b) -50 cm c) -45 cm d) -40 cm

Directions (Q No. 103 and Q No. 104): Case based Questions.

A compound microscope is an instrument which consists of two lenses L 1 and L2.
The lens L1 called objective, forms a real, inverted and magnified image of the given
object. This serves as the object for the second lens L2; the eye piece. The eye piece
functions like a simple microscope or magnifier. It produces the final image, which
is inverted with respect to the original object, enlarged and virtual.

Q No. 103. What is the value and sign of magnification (according to the new
Cartesian sign convention) of the image formed by L2?

a) Value = Less than 1 and Sign = Positive

b) Value = More than 1 and Sign = Positive

c) Value = Less than 1 and Sign = Negative

d) Value = More than 1 and Sign = Negative

Q No. 104. If power of the eye piece (L2) is 5 diopters and it forms an image at a
distance of 80 cm from its optical center, at what distance should the
object be?

a) 12 cm b) 16 cm c) 18 cm d) 20 cm

Q No. 105. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 cm. This defect can
be corrected by using a lens of power.

a) +0.5 D b) -0.5 D c) +0.2 D d) -0.2 D

Q No. 106. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation
of a rainbow?

a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion

b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection

c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection

d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection

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Q No. 107. In an experiment to trace the path of aa ray of light through a triangular
glass prism, a student would observe that the emergence ray:

a) Is parallel to the incident ray

b) Is along the same direction of incident ray

c) gets deviated and bends towards the thinner part of the prism
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d) Gets deviated and bends towards the thicker part (base) of the prism

s e
s em
Q No. 108. A cylindrical
l a
conductor of length ‘l’ and uniform area of cross section
g of
‘A’

l a a
has resistance ‘R’. The area of cross section of another conductor
ag same material and same resistance but of length ‘2l’ is:
a) A/2 b) 3A/2 c) 2A d) 3A

Q No. 109. Two bulbs of 100 W and 40 W are connected in series. The current
through the 100 W bulb is 1A. The current through the 40 W bulb will
be:
m c) 0.8 A
a) 0.4 A b) 0.6 A
.co d) 1A

s em
la
Q No. 110. In an electric circuit three incandescent bulbs A, B and C of rating 40
W, 60 W and 100 W, g
a respectively are connected in parallel to an electric
source. Which of the following is likely to happen regarding their
brightness?

a) Brightness of all the bulbs will be the same

b) Brightness of bulb A will be the maximum

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c) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A
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d) Brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B

s em Q No. 111. Which of the following pattern correctly describes
g l a the magnetic field
g la a
a around a long straight wire carrying current?

a) Straight lines perpendicular to the wire

b) Straight lines parallel to the wire

c) Radial lines originating from the wire

m .
d) Concentric circles centered around the wire

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Q No. 112. Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic
lines of field:
a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in
which the north pole of a magnetic compass needle points
b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero
field strength
d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of
the field lines
Q No. 113. For a current in a long straight solenoid N-pole and S-pole are created
at the two ends. Among the following statements, the incorrect
statement is:
a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which
indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the
solenoid
b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to
magnetise a piece of magnetic material like soft iron, when placed
inside the coil
c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is
different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet
d) The N-Pole and S-Pole exchange position when the direction of current
through the solenoid is reversed
Directions (Q No. 114 and Q No. 115): Read the following and answer the
questions given below.
The Table shows some organisms and their food sources in an ecosystem.
Organism Food Source
Frog Cricket, Grasshopper
Cricket Grass
Snake Frog, Shrew
Grasshopper Grass
Eagle Snake, Shrew
Q No. 114. A snake eats a frog. What percentage of energy of the frog is transferred
to the snake?

a) 1 % b) 2 % c) 10 % d) 90 %

Q No. 115. Which organism has the largest biomass in the ecosystem?

a) Grass b) Snake c) Eagle d) Grasshopper

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SECTION D: ENGLISH
(Total Question – 25 Max Marks – 50)

Directions: Q No. 116 to Q No. 125.

Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage.

o m
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In their darker moments, climatologists talk about their own "nightmare
o where global warming has brought about such significant . c
scenario”. This is c
. one
e m
em that ocean currents change direction. One scene from l s
a the
s
climatic changes
g
a the Gulf Stream moving south or even going into reverse,a making
nightmare lhas
g
a London look and feel like a St Petersburg January.
winter in
The ocean is a great moderating influence on the planet, soaking up the heat
around the tropics and depositing it in the cooler polar regions. Yet scientists know
surprisingly little about how the sea does this – they estimate that the North
Atlantic alone moves energy equivalent to the output of several hundred million

m
power stations.

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Last year oceanographers began their biggest international research initiative

s em
to learn more about ocean circulation. The first results from the World Ocean

g la just how complex the movement of seawater
Circulation Experiment demonstrate
can be. They have also given ascientists a glimpse of the amount of heat being
exchanged between the oceans and the atmosphere. As part of the experiment,
researchers are monitoring the speed and direction of ocean currents, water
temperature and salinity.
Research ships taking part will gather detailed measurements at 24,000
points or “stations” along carefully designated trans-ocean routes. This undertaking
m
om A fleet of ships, buoys, seabed sensors and satellitesemwill collect so much
dwarfs the 8,000 hydrographic stations created in the past hundred years of ocean
c.surveying. .co
e s opened a research
m data that Britain, one of the 40 countries taking part,lahas
las institute, the James Rennell Centre for Ocean Circulation
ag in Southampton, to
ag process them.
One of the justifications for the experiment, says John Woods, director of
marine and atmospheric sciences at the Natural Environment Research Council, is
that the oceans hold the key to understanding long-term changes in the global
climate. The Earth has two “envelopes” - the ocean, consisting of slowly circulating

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water, and the atmosphere, made of fast-moving air. Far from being independent,
e m
they interact, one modifying the other until a balance is reached between them. The
em l as
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present balance came about at the end of the last Ice Age, about 10,000 years ago.
Scientists hope that knowing more about the ocean’s “weather patterns” will help
them predict climate changes.
Knowing how heat is moved around the ocean is crucial to such long-term
forecasting. The top three metres of the ocean store more heat than all of the
atmosphere. Some of the heat can be transported downward between 30 metres and
several thousand metres. The deeper it goes, the longer it stays out of the
atmosphere. Water heated in the equatorial region flows in shallow currents north
or south towards the poles, releasing its heat to the air and, as it becomes colder
and denser, sinks to the sea floor, forming deep, cold currents that flow back to the
equator.
Q No. 116. Some climatologists are of the opinion that global warming could

a) Change in wind direction in the polar regions.

b) Modify ocean currents.

c) Warm the oceans

d) Increase wind speeds.

Q No. 117. What results have already been confirmed by scientists?

a) Heat is stocked at great depths.

b) The last Ice Age ended about 10,000 years ago.

c) The complexity of ocean currents.

d) Gulf Stream currents are situated in the surface layer of water.

Q No. 118. Where is most of the heat stored?

a) Around equator.

b) In the atmosphere.

c) Along the sea bed.

d) In the top layers of the ocean.

Q No. 119. As per the findings the atmosphere and the ocean

a) Have an independent influence on the climate

b) Interact and create a global climatic balance.

c) Have a little effect on the climate.

d) Will stop functioning in the coming years due to climate change

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Q No. 120. Why are the researchers monitoring a
the speed and direction of ocean
currents, water temperature and salinity?

a) To learn about ocean circulation

b) To calculate the heat of the ocean

c) To measure the speed of the ocean currents
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d) None of the Above
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Q No. 121. Which word is closely related to the phrasal verb ‘soaking up” used in
s e m
s emabove passage?
the
g l a
g laa) Absorb b) Swallow a
a
c) Sip d) Evaporate

Q No. 122. What does the sentence, “The ocean is a great moderating influence on
the planet...”, refer to in the passage?

a) The ocean is Earth’s vast water reservoir.

m
b) The ocean currents help in the movement of the earth.
o
. c
m
c) The ocean balances the temperature
e winds.
of the earth.

as
gl oceans hold the key to understanding long-term
d) The ocean moderates the

Q No. 123. In the sentence “... a
the
changes in the global climate”, what does the idiom “hold the key”
mean?
a) The potential to make a change

b) A way forward.

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c) The place through which one has to go.
m
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s e m
s em Q No. 124. Which word is closely related to the word “envelopes”
g l a as used in the

g la sentence ‘The Earth has two “envelopes”’? a
a a) Coverings b) Encasements

c) Coatings d) Casings

Q No. 125. In the sentence, “The present balance came about at the end of the last
Ice Age...” what does the phrasal verb “came about” mean?

m .
a) To start b) To happen

c) To end .co d) To follow
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Directions: Q No. Q No. 126 to Q No. 140. Grammar, Vocabulary & Punctuation

Q No. 126. Sharif has decided against ................... a new house. (Fill in the blank
with the appropriate word)
a) To buy b) Buying
c) For buying d) Buy
Q No. 127. I don't like people smoking on the streets. I think it .............be banned
in public places. (Fill with the appropriate modal)
a) Can b) Shall
c) Should d) Will
Q No. 128. This factory produces some of ......... mobile phones in the world.
a) best b) very best
c) the most best d) the best
Q No. 129. Which phrasal verb can be used instead of the word EXTINGUISH in
the sentence, "Extinguish the fire"?
a) Put out b) Put off
c) Put down d) Put away
Q No. 130. Choose the correct spelling.
a) Diarrhoea b) Diarrheoa
c) Dairrheoa d) Dairrhoea
Q No. 131. A person who is interviewed is called?
a) Interwiee b) Interviewer
c) Interviewee d) Interviee
Q No. 132. You have to buy a paper ream, a pencil box, an inkpot, and a dozen of
drawing sheets. So you are going to a ............... shop.
a) book b) stationery
c) paper d) stationary
Q No. 133. Which of the following sentence is correctly punctuated?
a) These findings we would suggest cast doubt upon his hypothesis
b) These findings we would suggest, cast doubt upon his hypothesis
c) These findings, we would suggest, cast doubt, upon his hypothesis
d) These findings, we would suggest, cast doubt upon his hypothesis

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Q No. 134. Women in teaching........................ a
are paid less. (Choose the most
appropriate word to fill in the blank)

a) Job b) profession

c) employment d) occupation

Q No. 135. Which of the following singular noun is incorrectly paired with its
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plural?
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a) Goose-geese
m s e b) Loaf-loaves m
s eIndex-indexes d) hoof-hooves l
g a
l a
c)
a
ag I am going to .................. to your parents about your exam results.
Q No. 136.

a) Call b) Talk

c) Discuss d) Ask

Q No. 137. A person who comes to a country to settle there is called?

a) Immigrant b) Traveler
m
c) Tenant
.co d) Emigrant

s em
Q No. 138. Which of the following sentence is correctly punctuated?
la do your work.
a) Yes, said Junaid, Igwill
a
b) Yes, said Junaid, “I will do your work.”

c) “Yes said”, Junaid, “I will do your work.”

d) “Yes, “said,” Junaid, “I will do your work.”

Q No. 139. Aisha ........... to school every day. (Fill in the blank with the appropriate
verb)
o m
m c
. walked
c. o a) walk
e m
b) have
s
e m l ad) None of the above
s c) walks
la Q No. 140. The Jury ............ divided in their opinion. ag
ag
a) were b) was

c) Both A & B d) None of the above

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SPACE FOR ROUGH

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a OUGH
S P A C E F O R R

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S P A C E F O R R O U G H

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