TRUST 2022 Question Paper

TRUST 2022 Question Paper
No. of Printed Pages : 32

TR 5331 Register No.
£vöÁs

Time Allowed : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
fhy msÎ : 2.30 kâ neu« bkh¤j kÂ¥bg©fŸ : 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES nj®t®fS¡fhd m¿ÎiufŸ
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer édh¡fS¡F éilaë¥gj‰F K‹ò ÑnH
the questions. Answers should be marked in the OMR bfhL¡f¥g£LŸs m¿Îiufis¡ ftdkhf¥
Answer Sheet using black ball point pen. go¤J éilfis fU¥ò ãw ik bfh©l
gªJKid¥ ngdhédhš OMR éil¤jhëš
F¿¡fΫ.
1. This booklet consists of 100 questions for four subjects 1. Ϫj édh¢ Á‰nwL, x›bthU ghl¤Â‰F« 25
with 25 questions in each subject. édh¡fŸ Åj«, eh‹F ghl§fS¡F« nr®¤J
100 édh¡fis¡ bfh©LŸsJ.
1 – 25 Mathematics 1 – 25 fâj«
26 – 50 Science 26 – 50 m¿éaš
51 – 75 Social Science 51 – 75 r_f m¿éaš
76 – 100 Mental Ability Test 76 – 100 kd¤Âw‹ ÷uºÄ
2. Each question carries one mark. 2. édh x›bth‹W¡F« xU kÂ¥bg© xJ¡ÑL
brŒa¥g£LŸsJ.
3. Since the time allotted to the Question Paper is very 3. édh¡fS¡F xJ¡f¥g£oU¡F« neu« äfΫ
limited, you should make the best use of it by not FW»ajhf ÏU¥gjhš vªj xU édhé‰F«
spending too much time on any question. äf mÂfkhd neu¤ij brytê¡f nt©lh«.
4. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not 4. VnjD« édhé‰F éil bjçahé£lhš,
spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. If mj‰fhf mÂf neu¤ij bryélhJ, mL¤j
time permits, try the questions which you have left in édhΡF éilaë¡fΫ. neu« »il¥Ã‹,
the first instance. éLg£l édhΡF éilaë¡f Ka‰Á¡fΫ.
5. Blank pages are provided for rough work at the end of 5. têKiwfŸ brŒJgh®¡f bt‰W¤jh£fŸ
the Question Booklet. (Blank pages) édh¢Á‰nw£o‹ ÏWÂæš
Ïiz¡f¥g£LŸsd.
6. Choose the correct answer from the options given for 6. x›bthU édhé‰F« bfhL¡f¥g£LŸs kh‰W
each question and darken the corresponding circle with éilfëèUªJ äf¢ rçahd éilæid¡
black ball point pen in the OMR Answer Sheet. f©l¿ªJ, mij OMR éil¤jhëš cça
t£l¤Âš fU¥òãw ik bfh©l gªJKid¥
ngdhédhš Ô£l nt©L«.
7. Handover the OMR Answer Sheet only to the 7. OMR éil¤jhëid k£L« miw¡
invigilator and the candidates are allowed to take the f©fhâ¥ghsçl« x¥gil¡f nt©L«.
Question Booklet with them. édh¤jhëid khzt®fŸ vL¤J¢
bršyyh«.

P.T.O.

MATHEMATICS / Pou®
1. The number whose multiplicative inverse is 1. J¸ Gsoß ö£¸UPÀ uø»RÈ A÷u
the number itself. The number is : Gs GÛÀ, A¢u Gs :
(1) −1 (2) 1 (1) −1 (2) 1

1 1
(3) 0 (4) (3) 0 (4)
0 0

2. The cube of a negative number is : 2. J¸ SøÓ Gsoß PÚ©õÚx :
(1) always negative (1) G¨ö£õÊx® SøÓ GsnõS®
(2) always positive (2) G¨ö£õÊx® ªøP GsnõS®
(3) neither positive nor negative (3) SøÓ Gsq©À», ªøP
Gsq©À»
(4) either positive or negative (4) SøÓ Gs AÀ»x ªøP Gs

3. The standard form of 1.86×105 is : 3. 1.86×105 Gߣuß vmhU SÔ±k :
(1) 186000 (2) 18600 (1) 186000 (2) 18600

(3) 1860000 (4) 1860 (3) 1860000 (4) 1860

4. The value of 3a=1 then, the value of a is : 4. 3a=1 GÛÀ, a&ß ©v¨¦ :

(1) a (2) 0 (1) a (2) 0

(3) 1 (4) ∞ (3) 1 (4) ∞

5. The area of a circle of radius r is πr2. Here 5. Bµ® r Eøh¯ Ámhzvß £µ¨£ÍÄ
the π is : πr2. C[S π Gߣx :

(1) a rational number (1) J¸ ÂQu•Ö Gs
(2) an irrational number (2) J¸ ÂQu•Óõ Gs
(3) an integer (3) J¸ •Ê Gs
(4) not a number (4) J¸ Gs AÀ»

TR 5331 3 P.T.O.

6. The length and breadth of a rectangular 6. J¸ ö\ÆÁP ÁiÁ K¯zvß }Í®
painting are 5xy3 and 4x2y. Its area is : ©ØÖ® AP»® •øÓ÷¯ 5xy3 ©ØÖ®
4x2y. Auß £µ¨£ÍÄ :

(1) 20x 3y 3 (2) 20x 3y 4 (1) 20x 3 y 3 (2) 20x 3 y 4

(3) 20x 2y 3 (4) 20x 3y 2 (3) 20x 2 y 3 (4) 20x 3 y 2

7. (3a)2 is same as : 7. (3a)2 &US \©©õÚx :
(1) (3)2 (a)2 (2) 9a (1) (3)2 (a)2 (2) 9a

(3) 3a 2 (4) 6a 2 (3) 3a 2 (4) 6a 2

8. The simple formula to calculate (98)2 is : 8. (98) 2 &IU PnUQh EuĮ Gί
`zvµ® :
(1) (100−2) 2 (2) (50+48) 2 (1) (100−2) 2 (2) (50+48) 2

(3) (90+8) 2 (4) (88+10) 2 (3) (90+8) 2 (4) (88+10) 2

9. The next perfect cube number to 125 is : 9. 125&ß Akzu •Ê PÚ Gs :

(1) 216 (2) 125 (1) 216 (2) 125

(3) 625 (4) 343 (3) 625 (4) 343

10. Sum of two number is 97 and one number 10. Cµsk GsPÎß TkuÀ 97 ©ØÖ®
exceeds another by 5. The smallest number J¸ Gs ©ØöÓõ¸ Gsøn Âh
is : 5 AvP® GÛÀ, AÁØÖÒ ]Ô¯ Gs :

(1) 51 (2) 46 (1) 51 (2) 46

(3) 41 (4) 45 (3) 41 (4) 45

11. The equation form of y-axis is : 11. y Aa]ß \©ß£õk :

(1) y=0 (2) x=0 (1) y=0 (2) x=0

(3) x=y (4) y=−x (3) x=y (4) y=−x

TR 5331 4

12. A simple interest becomes the compound 12. uÛ Ámi°ß ‰»® QøhUS®
interest by annually when the number of ÁmizöuõøP²®, Á¸hõ¢vµ •øÓ°À
year(s) is/are : PnUQh¨£k® TmkÁmi°ß
TmkzöuõøP²® \©©õP C¸¨¤ß,
Á¸h®/Á¸h[PÎß GsoUøP :
(1) 1 (2) 10 (1) 1 (2) 10
(3) 2 (4) 100 (3) 2 (4) 100

13. If x and y are directly proportional, then 13. x ©ØÖ® y JßÖUöPõßÖ ÷|º©õÓ¼À
which of the following is correct ? EÒÍÚ GÛÀ, ¤ßÁ¸® G¢u JßÖ
\›¯õÚx ?
x y x y
(1) k= (2) k= (1) k= (2) k=
y x y x
(3) x=ky (4) k=xy (3) x=ky (4) k=xy

14. A and B together can do a piece of work in 14. A ©ØÖ® B C¸Á¸® Cøn¢x J¸
16 days and A alone can do it in 48 days. ÷Áø»ø¯ 16 |õmPξ®, A÷u
The number of days for B to complete the ÷Áø»ø¯ A ©mk® 48 |õmPξ®
work is : •i¨£º GÛÀ, AÆ÷Áø»°øÚ
B ©mk® ö\´x •iUP ÷uøÁ¨£k®
|õmPÒ :
(1) 16 (2) 18 (1) 16 (2) 18
(3) 24 (4) 48 (3) 24 (4) 48

15. The sum of three angles of a right angled 15. J¸ ö\[÷Põn •U÷Põnzvß ‰ßÖ
triangle is : ÷Põn[PÎß TkuÀ :
(1) 908 (2) 1808 (1) 908 (2) 1808
(3) 1208 (4) 3608 (3) 1208 (4) 3608

16. The point of concurrence of the three 16. •U÷Põnzvß ‰ßÖ ö\[SzxU
altitudes in a triangle is __________. ÷PõkPЮ \¢vUS® ¦ÒÎ :
(1) I (2) G (1) I (2) G
(3) S (4) H (3) S (4) H

TR 5331 5 P.T.O.

17. Which one of the following may be the three 17. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÖÒ G¢u JßÖ J¸
sides of a triangle ? •U÷Põnzvß £UP[PÍõP Aø©²® ?

(1) 2, 2, 6 (2) 3, 3, 2 (1) 2, 2, 6 (2) 3, 3, 2

(3) 3, 4, 5 (4) 4, 5, 6 (3) 3, 4, 5 (4) 4, 5, 6

18. The area of rhombus whose diagonals are 18. 8 ö\.« ©ØÖ® 6 ö\.« &I
8 cm and 6 cm is : ‰ø»Âmh[PÍõPU öPõsh
\õ´\xµzvß £µ¨£ÍÄ :

(1) 48 cm2 (2) 26 cm2 (1) 48 ö\.«2 (2) 26 ö\.«2

(3) 14 cm2 (4) 24 cm2 (3) 14 ö\.«2 (4) 24 ö\.«2

19. The area of a square is 100 cm2. The diagonal 19. J¸ \xµzvß £µ¨£ÍÄ 100 ö\.« 2.
of the square is (in cm) : A¢u \xµzvß ‰ø»Âmh®
(ö\.«mh›À) :

(1) 200 (2) 10 (1) 200 (2) 10

(3) 100 (4) 20 10 (3) 100 (4) 20 10

20. The area of a square whose one side is 20. 4.5 ö\.« &I J¸ £UP©õPU öPõsh
4.5 cm is : \xµzvß £µ¨£ÍÄ :

(1) 20.25 cm (2) 20.25 cm2 (1) 20.25 ö\.« (2) 20.25 ö\.«2

(3) 22.25 cm2 (4) 20.05 cm2 (3) 22.25 ö\.«2 (4) 20.05 ö\.«2

21. The range of the data 5, 15, 10, 7, 20, 18 is : 21. 5, 15, 10, 7, 20, 18 GßÓ uµÄPÎß Ãa_ :

(1) 20 (2) 5 (1) 20 (2) 5

(3) 10 (4) 15 (3) 10 (4) 15

TR 5331 6

22. If a class size is 100 and range is 680, then 22. ¤›Âß AÍÄ 100 ©ØÖ® Ãa_ 680
the number of possible class intervals is : GÛÀ, \õzv¯©õÚ ¤›Ä
CøhöÁ롧 GsoUøP :
(1) 68 (2) 6.8 (1) 68 (2) 6.8

(3) 0.68 (4) 7 (3) 0.68 (4) 7

23. A bus carrying 40 passengers with some 23. J¸ ÷£¸¢vÀ EÒÍ 40 £¯oPÎÀ ]»º
people having ` 6 tickets and the remaining ` 6 &UPõÚ £¯na ^møh²®, «u®
having ` 8 tickets. If the total money EÒÍÁºPÒ ` 8 &UPõÚ £¯na ^møh²®
received from these passengers is ` 290, find ö£ØÖÒÍÚº. £¯oPÎhª¸¢x
the number of passengers with ` 8 ticket. £¯na^mk Pmhn©õP ` 290
ö£Ó¨£mkÒÍx GÛÀ, ` 8 £¯na ^mk
ö£ØÓ £¯oPÎß GsoUøP :
(1) 20 (2) 15 (1) 20 (2) 15

(3) 30 (4) 25 (3) 30 (4) 25

24. A line graph for the graphical representation 24. ÷|ºU÷Põmk Áøµ£hzøu¨
of the frequency distribution is called : £¯ß£kzv {PÌöÁs £µÁø»
J¨¤kÁx __________ GÚ¨£k®.
(1) histogram (1) {PÌÄa ö\ÆÁP®
(2) pie chart (2) Ámh ÂÍUP¨£h®
(3) data (3) uµÄPÒ
(4) frequency polygon (4) {PÌĨ £»÷Põn®

25. Which of the following is a Fibonacci 25. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÖÒ G¢u JßÖ
sequence ? ¤£÷Úõ] Gs öuõhµõS® ?
(1) 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, . . . (1) 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, . . .

(2) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, . . . (2) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, . . .

(3) 1, 1, 2, 4, 6, . . . (3) 1, 1, 2, 4, 6, . . .

(4) 1, 1, 2, 3, 6, . . . (4) 1, 1, 2, 3, 6, . . .

TR 5331 7 P.T.O.

SCIENCE / Aԯ26. Suppose 300 N/m2 pressure is acting on a 26. 20 « 2 ÷©Ø£µ¨¦ öPõsh ö£õ¸Îß
20 m2, surface area, what is the force ? «x 300 N/m 2 AÊzu®
ö\¾zu¨£mhõÀ Auß Âø\ :
(1) 15 N (2) 20 N (1) 15 N (2) 20 N

(3) 6000 N (4) 600 N (3) 6000 N (4) 600 N

27. __________ is a device which maintains 27. __________
Gߣx J¸ ö£õ¸Îß
constant temperature of a place or an object. AÀ»x Chzvß öÁ¨£{ø»ø¯
©õÓõ©À øÁUP EuÄ® \õuÚ® BS®.
(1) Calorimeter (1) P÷»õ› «mhº
(2) Thermostat (2) öuº÷©õìhõm
(3) Thermocouple (3) öuº÷©õ P¨¤Ò
(4) Thermos flask (4) öÁ¨£U SkøÁ

28. Hydraulic lift is an instrument which works 28. }›¯À E¯ºzv G¢u Âv°ß
on the principle of : Ai¨£øh°À C¯[SQ Óx ?
(1) Law of floatation (1) ªuzuÀ Âv
(2) Pascal’s Law (2) £õìPÀ Âv
(3) Ohm’s Law (3) K® Âv
(4) Hook’s Law (4) íüU Âv

29. The wavelength of a monochromatic source 29. J¸ JØøÓ {Ó J¼°ß Aø»}Í®
is 6000 Å. It’s value in nm (Nanometer) : 6000 Å. Cuß nm (|õ÷Úõ«mhº) ©v¨¦ :

(1) 6000 nm (2) 600 nm (1) 6000 nm (2) 600 nm

(3) 6 nm (4) 60 nm (3) 6 nm (4) 60 nm

TR 5331 8

30. Find the incorrect statement. 30. uÁÓõÚ TØøÓz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
(1) CGS is a metric system of units. (1) CGS Gߣx ö©m›U A»S •øÓ

(2) MKS is a metric system of units. (2) MKS Gߣx ö©m›U A»S •øÓ

(3) SI is a British system of units. (3) SI Gߣx B[Q» A»S •øÓ

(4) FPS is a British system of units. (4) FPS Gߣx B[Q» A»S •øÓ

31. The number of images formed by a mirror 31. BiPÎÀ ÷uõßÖ® ¤®£[PÎß
depends on the __________ of the mirrors. GsoUøP BiPÐUQøh÷¯ EÒÍ
__________ \õº¢ux.

(1) angle of inclination (1) \õ´ÄU ÷Põnzøu
(2) plane angle (2) uÍ ÷Põnzøu
(3) angle of incidence (3) £k ÷Põnzøu
(4) angle of refraction (4) Âk ÷Põnzøu

32. If the sound has a frequency of 80 Hz and a 32. J¸ J¼ 80 öíºmì AvºöÁs
wavelength of 20 m, then the speed of sound ©ØÖ® 20 « Aø»}Í® öPõshx.
is : A¢u J¼°ß ÷ÁP® :
(1) 40 ms−1 (2) 80 ms−1 (1) 40 ms−1 (2) 80 ms−1

(3) 3200 ms−1 (4) 1600 ms−1 (3) 3200 ms−1 (4) 1600 ms−1

33. At Curie temperature : 33. Q³› öÁ¨£{ø»°À :
(1) Ferromagnetic material becomes (1) Lö£º÷µõ Põ¢u¨ ö£õ¸Ò £õµõ
Paramagnetic material. Põ¢u¨ ö£õ¸ÍõP ©õÖQÓx.
(2) Paramagnetic material becomes (2) £õµõ Põ¢u¨ ö£õ¸Ò Lö£º÷µõ
Ferromagnetic material. Põ¢u¨ ö£õ¸ÍõP ©õÖQÓx.
(3) Ferromagnetic material becomes (3) Lö£º÷µõ Põ¢u¨ ö£õ¸Ò h¯õ
Diamagnetic material. Põ¢u¨ ö£õ¸ÍõP ©õÖQÓx.
(4) Diamagnetic material becomes (4) h¯õ Põ¢u¨ ö£õ¸Ò Lö£º÷µõ
Ferromagnetic material. Põ¢u¨ ö£õ¸ÍõP ©õÖQÓx.

TR 5331 9 P.T.O.

34. The metal used in X-ray machines : 34. X-Pvº G¢vµ[PÎÀ £¯ß£kzu¨£k®
E÷»õP® :
(1) Copper (2) Silver (1) uõªµ® (2) öÁÒÎ
(3) Lead (4) Aluminium (3) PõŸ¯® (4) A¾ªÛ¯®

35. The reason for H2SO4 called the “King of 35. \À¤³›U Aª»®
chemicals” is : ""÷Áv¨ö£õ¸ÒPÎß Aµ\ß'' GßÖ
AøÇUP¨£hU Põµn® :
(1) Oxidising agent (1) BU]á÷ÚØÓ •PÁº
(2) Redox agent (2) BU]á÷ÚØÓ JkUQ
(3) Bleaching agent (3) {Ó® }UQ
(4) Dehydrating agent (4) }º }UQ

36. Which one of the following is not related to 36. RÌUPshÁØÔÀ Gx ö£ß÷h÷Úõk
Pentane ? öuõhº¦ CÀ»õux ?
(1) Deodorant (1) Áõ\øÚ¨ ö£õ¸Ò
(2) Polystyrene (2) £õ¼ìøhŸß
(3) Solvent (3) Pøµ¨£õß
(4) Fuel (4) G›ö£õ¸Ò

37. Find the odd one out. 37. ö£õ¸¢uõu JßøÓz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ® :
(1) Coke (1) PÀP›
(2) Ammonia (2) A®÷©õÛ¯õ
(3) Syn gas (3) öuõS¨¦ Áõ²
(4) Town gas (4) |Pµ Áõ²

38. Oil of vitriol is __________. 38. Âm›¯õÀ Gsön´ Gߣx
__________.
(1) Ferrous sulphate (1) C¸®¦ \À÷£m
(2) Sulphuric acid (2) P¢uP Aª»®
(3) Potassium chloride (3) ö£õmhõ]¯® S÷Íõøµk
(4) Copper sulphate (4) uõªµ \À÷£m

TR 5331 10

39. Cathode Ray Tube was discovered by : 39. ÷P÷uõk Pvº SÇõø¯ Psk¤izuÁº :
(1) John Dalton (1) áõß hõÀhß
(2) Sir William Crookes (2) \º ÂÀ¼¯® S¹Uì
(3) J.J. Thomson (3) ÷á.÷á. uõ®\ß
(4) Ruther Ford (4) ¹uº L÷£õºk

40. Chromium, DDT, Mercury, Micro beads, 40. S÷µõª¯®, DDT , £õuµ\®,
Plastic fibres, Cadmium. ~sq°›PÒ, ö|QÈ CøÇPÒ,
Põmª¯®.
From the above, identify how many of them ÷©ØPshÁØÔÀ öuõÈØ\õø»
are industrial pollutants ? ©õ_£kzvPÒ GzuøÚ GÚU
PshԯĮ.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5 (3) 2 (4) 5

41. Complete the following reaction. 41. ¤ßÁ¸® ÷Áv ÂøÚø¯ {øÓÄ
ö\´P.
NH4Cl+NaOH → NaCl+NH3 ↑+________. NH4Cl+NaOH → NaCl+NH3 ↑+________.
(1) O2 (2) H2 (1) O2 (2) H2
(3) H2 O (4) Cl2 (3) H2O (4) Cl2

42. Which of the following is/are incorrect 42. §gø\PÎß £¯ß£õk £ØÔ¯
about the uses of fungi ? ¤ßÁ¸® G¢uU TØÖ/TØÖPÒ
uÁÓõÚx ?
(a) It is used to obtain antibiotics. (a) ~sq°ºU öPõÀ¼PÒ u¯õ›UP¨
£¯ß£kQÓx.
(b) Agaricus is highly edible Mushroom. (b) APõ›Pì Gߣx EsnUTi¯
PõÍõß ÁøP BS®.
(c) Ashbya gospii is used to produce (c) B줯õ ÷Põì¥ øÁmhªß B12
Vitamin B12. E¸ÁõUP¨ £¯ß£kQÓx.
(d) It ferments the sugar molasses into (d) \ºUPøµU PÈøÁ ö|õvUPa
alcohol. ö\´x BÀPíõ»õP
©õØÖQßÓÚ.
(1) (a) only (1) (a) ©mk®
(2) (b) and (c) only (2) (b) ©ØÖ® (c) ©mk®
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (3) (a), (b) ©ØÖ® (d) ©mk®
(4) (c) only (4) (c) ©mk®

TR 5331 11 P.T.O.

43. Find the odd one out. 43. ö£õ¸¢uõu JßøÓz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.

(1) Nephrolepis (1) ö|L¨÷µõö»¨¤ì

(2) Funaria (2) L¤³÷Ú›¯õ

(3) Anthoceros (3) B¢÷uõö\µì

(4) Riccia (4) ›U]¯õ

44. Aloevera belongs to __________ family. 44. A÷»õöÁµõ, __________ Sk®£zøua
\õº¢ux.

(1) Solanaceae (1) ö\õ»÷Ú]

(2) Liliaceae (2) ¼À¼÷¯]

(3) Euphorbiaceae (3) ³L÷£õº¤÷¯]

(4) Rutaceae (4) ¹m÷h]

45. Match the following : 45. ö£õ¸zxP.

(a) Epithelial tissue (i) Supporting (a) G¤w¼¯À v_ (i) uõ[SuÀ

(b) Muscular tissue (ii) Protection (b) uø\z v_ (ii) £õxPõ¨¦

(c) Connective tissue (iii) Conduction (c) Cøn¨¦z v_ (iii) PhzxuÀ

(d) Nervous tissue (iv) Movements (d) |µ®¦z v_ (iv) Aø\Ä

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

TR 5331 12

46. The smallest cell in human body is : 46. ©Ûu Eh¼ß ªPa]Ô¯ ö\À :

(1) Nerve cell (1) |µ®¦ ö\À

(2) Red blood cells (2) Cµzu ]Á¨£qUPÒ

(3) White blood cells (3) Cµzu öÁÒøͯqUPÒ

(4) Nephrons (4) ö|¨µõßPÒ

47. __________ is composed of muscular tissue, 47. __________ uø\z v_, Cøn¨¦z v_
connective tissue and neural tissue. ©ØÖ® |µ®¦z v_UPÍõÀ BÚx.

(1) Hand (2) Leg (1) øP (2) PõÀ

(3) Eye (4) Heart (3) Ps (4) Cu¯®

48. Assertion (A) : Arthritis is a condition that 48. TØÖ (A) : S¸zöu¾®¦PÎÀ
results either due to friction HØ£k® Eµõ´Ä ©ØÖ®
of articulating cartilage or ]÷Úõ¯À vµÁ®
due to lack of synovial fluid CÀ»õuuõÀ Bºzøµiì
in the joint. EshõQÓx.

Reason (R) : Inflammation of joints is Põµn® (R): ‰mkPÎÀ ³›U
caused due to the lack of Aª»¨ £iP[PÒ
uric acid crystals in the CÀ»õuuõÀ ‰mkPÎÀ
joints. AÇØ] HØ£kQÓx.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong. (1) TØÖ \› ©ØÖ® Põµn® uÁÖ

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong. (2) TØÖ ©ØÖ® Põµn® uÁÖ

(3) (A) is correct but (R) doesn’t explain (3) TØÖ \› BÚõÀ Põµn® TØøÓ
(A). ÂÍUPÂÀø»

(4) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A). (4) TØÖ \› ©ØÖ® Põµn® TØøÓ
ÂÍUSQÓx.

TR 5331 13 P.T.O.

49. Select the wrong statement/statements 49. £õUj›¯õøÁ¨ £ØÔ¯ uÁÓõÚ TØÖ/
about bacteria. TØÖPøÍz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
(a) Bacteria are single celled prokaryotes. (a) £õUj›¯[PÒ J¸ ö\À»õ»õÚ
¦÷µõ÷P›÷¯õmkPÒ BS®.
(b) Bacteria are of four types based on (b) £õUj›¯[PÒ _Áõ\zvß
respiration. Ai¨£øh°À 4 ÁøP¯õP
EÒÍÚ.
(c) In bacteria protein synthesis is carried (c) £õUj›¯õÂÀ ¦µua ÷\ºUøP
out by 70 S ribosomes. 70 S ÁøP øµ÷£õ÷\õ®PÍõÀ
|øhö£ÖQÓx.
(d) Mitochondria, golgi body, endoplasmic (d) £õUj›¯õÂÀ
reticulum are present in bacteria. ø©m÷hõPõsi›¯õ, ÷PõÀøP
Eh»®, Gs÷hõ¤Íõ\
Áø»¨¤ßÚÀ Põn¨£kQÓx.
(1) (a) and (d) only (1) (a) ©ØÖ® (d) ©mk®
(2) (b) only (2) (b) ©mk®
(3) (b) and (d) only (3) (b) ©ØÖ® (d) ©mk®
(4) (c) only (4) (c) ©mk®

50. Pick out the correct one about ‘Amoeba’. 50. A«£õ £ØÔ¯ \›¯õÚ TØøÓz
÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
(a) Amoeba moves by “False Feet”. (a) A«£õ ÷£õ¼UPõÀPÒ ‰»®
Ch® ö£¯¸QÓx.
(b) Contractile vacuoles are seen in the (b) ø\m÷hõ¤Íõ\zvÀ EÒÍ
cytoplasm that help in excretion. _¸[S® ~sSªÌPÒ PÈÄ
}UPzvØS EuÄQßÓÚ.
(c) Amoeba reproduces by means of (c) A«£õÂÀ CønÄ ©ØÖ®
fission and sporulation. ì÷£õº E¸ÁõuÀ ‰»®
CÚ¨ö£¸UP® |øhö£ÖQÓx.
(1) (a) and (b) only (1) (a) ©ØÖ® (b) ©mk®
(2) (c) only (2) (c) ©mk®
(3) (b) and (c) only (3) (b) ©ØÖ® (c) ©mk®
(4) All of the above (4) ÷©ØPõs AøÚzx®

TR 5331 14

SOCIAL SCIENCE / \‰P AÔ¯À
51. Find the incorrect statement. 51. uÁÓõÚ TØøÓz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
(1) Ryotwari system was introduced by (1) Cµ¯zxÁõ› •øÓ 1820 &CÀ
Thomas Mundro and Captain Read in uõ©ì ©ß÷Óõ ©ØÖ® ÷P¨hß Ÿm
1820. GߣÁºPÍõÀ
AÔ•P¨£kzu¨£mhx.
(2) By Ryotwari system the rights of (2) C®•øÓ°ß ‰»® {»zvß
ownership was handed over to the E›ø©¯õÚx ÂÁ\õ°PÎß
peasants. Á\® J¨£øhUP¨£mhx.
(3) This system was introduced in the (3) Czvmh® P[øPa \©öÁÎ,
Ganga-Valley, North-West province Áh÷©ØS ©õPõn[PÒ, ©zv¯
and parts of Central India. C¢v¯õÂß ]» £SvPÎÀ
AÔ•P¨£kzu¨£mhx.
(4) The revenue was based on the basis of (4) C®•øÓ°À {» Á¸Áõ¯õÚx
the soil and nature of the crop. ©s ©ØÖ® £°›ß ußø©°ß
Ai¨£øh°À wº©õÛUP¨£mhx.

52. Assertion (A) : During the 17 th and 18 th 52. TØÖ : 17 ©ØÖ® 18 B®
centuries, the ¡ØÓõsiÀ uªÌ|õmiß
Palayakkarars played a Aµ]¯¼À £õøͯUPõµºPÒ
vital role in the politic of •UQ¯¨ £[S ÁQzuÚº.
Tamil Nadu.

Reason (R) : By the Carnatic Treaty of Põµn® : 1792 B® Bsk Pº|õhP
1792 the English assumed EhߣiUøP¯õÀ
the right to collect taxes. B[Q÷»¯ºPÒ Á›Á`À
ö\´²® E›ø©ø¯²®
ö£ØÓÚº.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (1) TØÖ ©ØÖ® Põµn® \›
(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. (2) TØÖ ©ØÖ® Põµn® uÁÖ
(3) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A). (3) TØÖ \› ÷©¾® Põµn® TØøÓ
ÂÍUSQÓx
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is not (4) TØÖ ©ØÖ® Põµn® \› BÚõÀ
the correct explanation of (A). Põµn® TØøÓ ÂÍUPÂÀø»

TR 5331 15 P.T.O.

53. Pick the incorrect pair. 53. ö£õ¸¢uõu Cønø¯z
÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
(1) French - Fort. St. Louis (1) ¤öµg_UPõµºPÒ & ö\°ßm
¿°ì
÷Põmøh
(2) British - Fort. St. George (2) B[Q÷»¯ºPÒ & ¦Ûu áõºä
÷Põmøh
(3) Danish - Fort. William (3) ÷hÛ¯ºPÒ & ÂÀ¼¯®
÷Põmøh
(4) Dutch - Fort. Geldria (4) ha_UPõµºPÒ & öPÀi›¯õ
÷Põmøh

54. Match the following : 54. ö£õ¸zxP :
(a) Brahma Samaj (i) 1889 (a) ¤µ®© \©õá® (i) 1889
(b) Prarthana Samaj (ii) 1875 (b) ¤µõºzuøÚ \©õá® (ii) 1875
(c) Arya Samaj (iii) 1828 (c) B›¯ \©õá® (iii) 1828
(d) Sarada Sadan (iv) 1867 (d) \õµuõ \uß (iv) 1867
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

55. Which of the following were Portuguese 55. C¢v¯õÂÀ ÷£õºzxUR]¯º
trade centres in India ? øP¨£ØÔ¯ £SvPÒ :
(a) Hooghly and Santhome (a) íüUÎ, \õ¢÷uõ®
(b) Salsette and Bassein (b) \õÀö\m, £^ß
(c) Chaul and Bombay (c) ö\ÍÀ, £®£õ´
(d) Daman and Diu (d) hõ©ß, øh³
(1) (a) and (b) only (1) (a) ©ØÖ® (b) ©mk®
(2) (c) and (d) only (2) (c) ©ØÖ® (d) ©mk®
(3) (a) and (d) only (3) (a) ©ØÖ® (d) ©mk®
(4) All of the above (4) ÷©ØPsh AøÚzx®

TR 5331 16

56. Find the odd one out. 56. ö£õ¸¢uõuøuz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ® :

(1) Nino-de-Cunha (1) {÷Úõ&i&SßPõ

(2) Joseph Francois Dupleix (2) ÷áõ\¨ ¤µõ[Põ´ì i³¨÷Í

(3) Alponso-de-Albuquerque (3) AÀ÷£õß\õ&i&AÀ¦PºU

(4) Francisco-de-Almeida (4) ¤µõß]ì÷Põ&i&AÀö©´hõ

57. Match the following : 57. ö£õ¸zxP :

(a) Pulithevar (i) Dindigul (a) §¼z÷uÁº (i) vskUPÀ

(b) Kattabomman (ii) Nerkattum (b) Pmhö£õ®©ß (ii) ö|ØPmk®
Seval ö\ÁÀ

(c) Velu Nachiyar (iii) Virapandya (c) ÷Á¾ |õa]¯õº (iii) õ£õsi¯¦µ®
Puram

(d) Gopala Nayakar (iv) Sivagangai (d) ÷Põ£õ» |õ¯UPº (iv) ]ÁP[øP

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

TR 5331 17 P.T.O.

58. Select the correct statements related to the 58. ©PÀÁõ› •øÓ SÔzx
Mahalwari system. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÔÀ \›¯õÚ
TØÖPøÍz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.

(a) The Lambardar enjoyed privileges (a) Qµõ©z uø»Áº \¾øPPøÍ u©x
which was misused for their self- ö\õ¢u ¸¨£[PÎß
interest. Ai¨£øh°À uÁÓõP¨
£¯ß£kzvÚõº.

(b) The peasants were freed from (b) ÂÁ\õ°PÐUS Á›Âv¨¤À
Taxation. C¸¢x »UPÎUP¨£mhx.

(c) This system brought benefit to the (c) C®•øÓ¯õÚx ÂÁ\õ°PÐUS
cultivators. C»õ£Pµ©õÚuõP C¸¢ux.

(d) It was a modified version of the (d) C®•øÓ¯õÚx á«ßuõ›
Zamindari system. •øÓ°ß v¸zv¯ø©UP¨£mh
ÁiÁ©õP C¸¢ux.

(1) (a) and (b) only (1) (a) ©ØÖ® (b) ©mk®

(2) (a) and (c) only (2) (a) ©ØÖ® (c) ©mk®

(3) (b) and (d) only (3) (b) ©ØÖ® (d) ©mk®

(4) (a) and (d) only (4) (a) ©ØÖ® (d) ©mk®

59. World Soil day is observed on : 59. "E»P ©s |õÒ' öPõshõh¨£kÁx :

(1) 5th December (1) i\®£º 5

(2) 10th December (2) i\®£º 10

(3) 12th December (3) i\®£º 12

(4) 5th January (4) áÚÁ› 5

TR 5331 18

60. Match the following : 60. ö£õ¸zxP :

(a) Plutonic rocks (i) Extrusive (a) £õuõͨ £õøÓPÒ (i) öÁΨ¦Óz
Igneous rocks w¨£õøÓPÒ

(b) Stratified rocks (ii) Intrusive (b) AkUS¨ £õøÓPÒ (ii) Fk¸Â¯
Igneous rocks w¨£õøÓPÒ

(c) Basalt (iii) Metamorphic (c) P¸[PÀ £õøÓPÒ (iii) E¸©õÔ¯¨
rock £õøÓPÒ

(d) Slate (iv) Sedimentary (d) £»øP¨ £õøÓPÒ (iv) £iĨ
rock £õøÓPÒ

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

61. Sheep rearing in semi-arid region of South- 61. öuß B¨¤›UPõÂß Aøµ ÁÓsh
Africa is called ___________. ¤µ÷u\[PÎÀ ÷©ØöPõÒͨ£k®
ö\®©Ô Bk Áͺ¨¦ ___________
GßÖ AøÇUP¨£kQÓx.

(1) ‘Swahili’ (2) ‘Maghreb’ (1) _Áõ¼ (2) ÷©Uöµ¨

(3) ‘Karoos’ (4) ‘Kivu’ (3) Põ¹ì (4) QÆ

TR 5331 19 P.T.O.

62. Match the following : 62. ö£õ¸zxP :
(a) Continent of Science (i) Veld (a) AÔ¯À Psh® (i) öÁÀk

(b) Grassland of (ii) Nile (b) öuß B¨¤›UPõÂß (ii) ø|À
South-Africa ¦ÀöÁÎ

(c) Father of African (iii) The (c) B¨¤›UP BÖPÎß (iii) ö\µß÷Pmi
rivers Serengeti u¢øu \©öÁÎ
plain

(d) Open Air Zoo (iv) Antartica (d) vÓ¢uöÁÎ (iv) AshõºiPõ
ª¸PUPõm] \õø»

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

63. The vulnerable district which is most affected 63. ¦¯À Aø»PÍõÀ AvP
by storm surges in Tamil Nadu ? £õv¨¤ØSÒÍõS® uªÇP ©õÁmh®
__________.

(1) Chennai (2) Cuddalore (1) ö\ßøÚ (2) Ph¿º
(3) Kanyakumari (4) Tuticorin (3) PßÛ¯õS©› (4) yzxUSi

64. The highest point of Atlas Mountain is 64. Am»ì ©ø»°ß ªP E¯º¢u ]Pµ® :
__________.

(1) Koussi (1) öPÍ]
(2) Toubkal (2) ÷hõ¨PÀ
(3) Kilimanjaro (3) QΩg\õ÷µõ
(4) Thabana Ntlenyana (4) u£õ{m¼¯õÚõ

TR 5331 20

65. The world famous Victoria waterfall is 65. E»P¨ ¦PÌö£ØÓ ÂU÷hõ›¯õ
formed by the river __________. }ºÃÌa] __________ |v°ÚõÀ
E¸ÁõUP¨£mhx.
(1) Zambezi (2) Niger (1) áõ®£] (2) ø|áº
(3) Nile (4) Congo (3) ø|À (4) Põ[÷Põ

66. Find the incorrect pair. 66. uÁÓõÚ Cønø¯z ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
(1) Apple Island - Tasmania (1) B¨¤Ò wÄ & hõì÷©Û¯õ
(2) Ross Island - Mt. Erebus (2) ÷µõì wÄ & ©Äsm
G›£ì
(3) Australia - Downs (3) Bìv÷µ¼¯õ & hÄßì
(4) Lambert glacier - Arctic (4) »õ®ö£ºm & BºiU
£Û¯õÖ

67. Find the correct statement. 67. \›¯õÚ TØøÓz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
(a) Field Marshal is a five star general (a) ¥Àk ©õºåÀ Gߣx I¢x
officer rank and the highest attainable |m\zvµ A¢uìx öPõsh ö£õx
rank in the Indian army. AvPõ› £uÂ. Cx C¢v¯
CµõqÁzvß E¯º¢u £uÂ.
(b) K.M. Cariappa was the first and the (b) C¢v¯ ©õÚ¨ £øh°À I¢x
only officer of the Indian Air force to |m\zvµ A¢uìx öPõsh
be promoted to five star rank as ©õºåÀ £uÂUS E¯ºÄ ö£ØÓ
Marshal. •uÀ ©ØÖ® J÷µ AvPõ› ÷P.G®.
P›¯¨£õ BÁõº.
(c) On 1 st January 1978, the Officers (c) 1978 áÚÁ› 1 •uÀ AvPõ›PÒ
training school was renamed as the £°Ø]¨ £ÒίõÚx
Officers Training Academy. ""AvPõ›PÒ £°Ø] APõhª'' GÚ
ö£¯º ©õØÓ® ö\´¯¨£mhx.
(d) The Coast Guard does not work in (d) Ph÷»õµU PõÁÀ£øh¯õÚx
close cooperation with the Indian PhØ£øh, «ßÁÍz xøÓ, _[Pz
Navy, the department of Fisheries, the xøÓ, ©zv¯ & ©õ{» PõÁÀ£øh
department of Revenue and the BQ¯ÁØÖhß JzxøǨ£x
Central and State Police forces. CÀø».
(1) (c) and (d) only (1) (c) ©ØÖ® (d)
(2) (b) and (d) only (2) (b) ©ØÖ® (d)
(3) (b) and (c) only (3) (b) ©ØÖ® (c)
(4) (a) and (b) only (4) (a) ©ØÖ® (b)

TR 5331 21 P.T.O.

68. Match the following : 68. ö£õ¸zxP :
(a) Army Day (i) 4th December (a) CµõqÁ vÚ® (i) i\®£º 4
(b) Air Force Day (ii) 1st February (b) ©õÚ¨ £øh vÚ® (ii) ¤¨µÁ› 1
(c) Navy Day (iii) 15th January (c) PhØ£øh vÚ® (iii) áÚÁ› 15

(d) Coast Guard Day (iv) 8th October (d) Ph÷»õµU PõÁÀ£øh (iv) AU÷hõ£º 8
vÚ®
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

69. The Chairman and members of the State 69. ©õ{» Aµ_ £o¯õͺ ÷uºÁõøn¯
Public Service Commission are appointed by uø»Áº ©ØÖ® EÖ¨¤ÚºPøÍ
__________. {¯©Ú® ö\´£Áº :
(1) Chief Minister (1) •u»ø©a\º
(2) Governor (2) BÐ|º
(3) President (3) Si¯µ_z uø»Áº
(4) Prime Minister (4) ¤µu© ©¢v›

70. The Fundamental Duties of Citizens of India 70. C¢v¯U Si©UPÐUPõÚ Ai¨£øhU
are prescribed in __________ Amendment Phø©PÒ C¢v¯ Aµ]¯»ø©¨¤ß
of Indian Constitution. __________ \mhzv¸zuzvߣi
Áøµ¯ÖUP¨£mkÒÍÚ.
(1) 32nd (2) 72nd (1) 32 Áx (2) 72 Áx

(3) 42nd (4) 24 th (3) 42 Áx (4) 24 Áx

71. The Fourth World Conference of women 71. |õßPõÁx E»P ©Pκ ©õ|õk
was held in __________. |øhö£ØÓ Ch® :
(1) Tokyo (2) Beijing (1) ÷hõUQ÷¯õ (2) ö£´â[
(3) Moscow (4) New York (3) ©õì÷Põ (4) {³¯õºU

TR 5331 22

72. The oldest infantry regiment of the Indian 72. C¢v¯ CµõqÁzvß ªP¨
Army is __________. £Çø©¯õÚ öµâö©ßm :
(1) Dogra Regiment (1) ÷hõUµõ öµâö©ßm
(2) Madras Regiment (2) ö©mµõì öµâö©ßm
(3) Rajput Regiment (3) µõä¦z öµâö©ßm
(4) Rajaputana Rifles (4) µõä¦uÚ øµ¤Òì

73. The code of civil procedures compiled during 73. xUÍU Bm]U Põ»zvÀ
the period of Tughlaq is __________. öuõSUP¨£mh E›ø©°¯À
|øh•øÓa \mh[PÒ :
(1) Fatawa-i-Alamgiri (1) L£mÁõ&C&B»®Rº
(2) Mahakuma-e-Adalat (2) ©PS©õ&C&Auõ»z
(3) Fiqha-e-Feroze Shahi (3) Lø£Põ&C&ö£÷µõì&åõQ
(4) Sharia-law (4) 雯õ&»õ

74. Find out the incorrect statement. 74. uÁÓõÚ TØøÓz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
(1) Inflation refers to the prices are rising (1) £nÃUP® Gߣx Âø»PÒ
the value of money will fall. E¯º¢x £nzvß ©v¨¦
ÃÌa]¯øhÁøuU SÔUS®.
(2) Value of money is meant the power of (2) £nzvß ©v¨¦ Gߣx J¸
quality in a country. |õmiß uµzvß \Uv¯õS®.
(3) The word money is derived from (3) £n® GßÓ Áõºzøu ÷µõ®
Roman word ‘Moneta Juno’. Áõºzøu¯õÚ ""÷©õ÷Úmhõ
áü÷Úõ'' ¼¸¢x ö£Ó¨£mhx.
(4) Deflation refers to the prices are falling (4) £nÁõmh® Gߣx Âø»PÒ
the value of money will rise. SøÓ¢x £nzvß ©v¨¦
E¯ºÁøuU SÔUS®.

75. The Governor of Tamil Nadu is __________. 75. uªÌ|õmiß BÐ|º :
(1) Banwarilal Purohit (1) £ßÁõ›»õÀ ¦÷µõîz
(2) R.N. Ravi (2) R.N. µÂ
(3) C. Vidyasagar Rao (3) C. Âz¯õ\õPº µõÆ
(4) Tamilisai Soundararajan (4) uªÈø\ ö\Í¢uºµõáß

TR 5331 23 P.T.O.

MENTAL ABILITY TEST / ©ÚzvÓß ÷uºÄ
Find the odd one out. ö£õ¸¢uõu JßøÓz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ® :

76. (1) Bat (2) Elephant 76. (1) öÁÍÁõÀ (2) ¯õøÚ
(3) Eagle (4) Tiger (3) £¸¢x (4) ¦¼

77. (1) Patna (2) Nagpur 77. (1) £õmÚõ (2) |õU§º
(3) Dispur (4) Imphal (3) v짺 (4) C®¨£õÀ

78. 78.

(1) 18 (2) 16 (1) 18 (2) 16

(3) 17 (4) 20 (3) 17 (4) 20

79. Pick out the 12th consonant of the alphabets. 79. B[Q» GÊzxz öuõhº Á›ø\°ß
12&Áx Consonant&Iz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.

(1) L (2) P (1) L (2) P

(3) M (4) N (3) M (4) N

80. Efg : hIK : : Pqr : ? 80. Efg : hIK : : Pqr : ?

(1) stV (2) sTV (1) stV (2) sTV

(3) tUV (4) tuv (3) tUV (4) tuv

81. SSLC : TTMD : : SCERT : ? 81. SSLC : TTMD : : SCERT : ?

(1) TDFSU (2) TEGRU (1) TDFSU (2) TEGRU

(3) RBDQS (4) RDFRT (3) RBDQS (4) RDFRT

TR 5331 24

82. Find the word which cannot be formed from 82. ‘PROSPERITY’ GßÓ Áõºzøu°¾ÒÍ
the word ‘PROSPERITY’. GÊzxUPμ¸¢x ¤ßÁ¸® G¢u
Áõºzøuø¯ E¸ÁõUP •i¯õx ?

(1) ROSE (2) PARITY (1) ROSE (2) PARITY

(3) PROPER (4) PROPERTY (3) PROPER (4) PROPERTY

83. Find the word which can be formed from 83. ‘INDIVIDUALITY’ GßÓ Áõºzøu°¾ÒÍ
the word ‘INDIVIDUALITY’. GÊzxUPøͨ £¯ß£kzv ¤ßÁ¸®
G¢u Áõºzøuø¯ E¸ÁõUP •i²® ?

(1) DUAL (2) QUALITY (1) DUAL (2) QUALITY

(3) DIVINE (4) IDEA (3) DIVINE (4) IDEA

84. Arrange the given words in the alphabetical 84. ¤ßÁ¸® ö\õØPøÍ B[Q»
order and choose the one that comes third. APµõv°ß Ai¨£øh°À
Á›ø\¨£kzx®÷£õx 3&ÁuõP Á¸®
Áõºzøu :

School, Socks, Sharpner, Shoes. School, Socks, Sharpner, Shoes.

(1) Socks (2) School (1) Socks (2) School

(3) Shoes (4) Sharpner (3) Shoes (4) Sharpner

85. Find the set among the four sets which is 85. ¤ßÁ¸® CønUS {PµõÚ
like the given set of numbers. Cønø¯, öPõkUP¨£mkÒÍ
4 CønPÎÀ C¸¢x ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.

216, 36, 6 216, 36, 6

(1) 252, 42, 7 (2) 343, 49, 7 (1) 252, 42, 7 (2) 343, 49, 7

(3) 245, 35, 5 (4) 103, 55, 13 (3) 245, 35, 5 (4) 103, 55, 13

TR 5331 25 P.T.O.

86. Ravi lives with his wife and 3 married sons 86. µÂ ußÝøh¯ ©øÚÂ, ©n©õÚ
with each couple having 2 sons. How many 3 ©PßPÒ ©ØÖ® JÆöÁõ¸
members are there in Ravi’s family ? u®£v¯›ß 2 ©PßPÐhß ÁõÌ¢x
Á¸QÓõº. µÂ°ß Sk®£zvÀ EÒÍ
EÖ¨¤ÚºPÎß GsoUøP ¯õx ?
(1) 16 (2) 14 (1) 16 (2) 14

(3) 12 (4) 10 (3) 12 (4) 10

87. How many 3s are there in the following 87. ¤ßÁ¸® öuõh›À 6 &I
sequence which are preceded by 6 and •ßÛ¯õPÄ®, 7 &I ¤ßÛ¯õPÄ®
succeeded by 7 ? öPõskÒÍ 3 GzuøÚ EÒÍx ?
237663727637676373512 237663727637676373512

(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 5 (4) 1 (3) 5 (4) 1

88. If A=4, B=8, then A2+2AB+B2=? 88. A=4, B=8 GÛÀ, A2+2AB+B2=?

(1) 144 (2) 164 (1) 144 (2) 164

(3) 104 (4) 44 (3) 104 (4) 44

89. If M=13, DOG=26, then CAT=? 89. M=13, DOG=26 GÛÀ, CAT=?

(1) 24 (2) 39 (1) 24 (2) 39

(3) 25 (4) 38 (3) 25 (4) 38

90. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ 90. + Gߣx −, − Gߣx ×, × Gߣx
and ÷ means +, then 50×5÷10+5−4=? ÷ ©ØÖ® ÷ Gߣx + GÛÀ,
50×5÷10+5−4=?

(1) 0 (2) 40 (1) 0 (2) 40

(3) 10 (4) 5 (3) 10 (4) 5

TR 5331 26

91. Kiran leaves his school at 4.20 pm and in 91. Qµs ¤Ø£PÀ 4 . 20 ©oUS
20 minutes reaches playground and plays £Òΰ¼¸¢x QÍ®¤ 20 {ªh[PÎÀ
with his friends for 25 minutes and leaves Âøͯõmk ø©uõÚzøu Aøh¢x,
for his home which takes another 25 {ªh[PÒ AÁÝøh¯
25 minutes. At what time did he leave the |s£ºPÐhß Âøͯõi¯ ¤ÓS,
ground ? 25 {ªh[PÎÀ ö\ßÖ Aøh¯UTi¯
AÁÝøh¯ ÃmiØS QÍ®¦QÓõß.
AÁß Âøͯõmk ø©uõÚzv¼¸¢x
QÍ®¤¯ ÷|µ® GßÚ ?
(1) 5.05 pm (2) 5.30 pm (1) 5.05 pm (2) 5.30 pm

(3) 5.10 pm (4) 4.40 pm (3) 5.10 pm (4) 4.40 pm

92. Akash was born at October 21, 2000, in that 92. AU÷hõ£º 21, 2000 AßÖ BPõè
year, Independence day was on Tuesday, ¤Ó¢uõß. A¢u Á¸hzvß _u¢vµ
what day was it when Akash was born ? vÚ® ö\ÆÁõ´U QÇø© GÛÀ,
BPõè ¤Ó¢u QÇø© :
(1) Friday (1) öÁÒÎUQÇø©
(2) Saturday (2) \ÛUQÇø©
(3) Sunday (3) bõ°ØÖU QÇø©
(4) Monday (4) v[Pm QÇø©

93. Five girls are sitting in a row. A is on the 93. I¢x ö£sPÒ J¸ Á›ø\°À
right of B, E is on the left of B, but to the A©º¢v¸UQßÓÚº. A GߣÁº B&ß
right of C. If A is on the left of D, who is Á»x ¦Ózv¾®, E GߣÁº B&ß Chx
sitting in the middle ? ¦Ózv¾® C &US Á»x ¦Ózv¾®
A©º¢xÒÍÚº. A &GߣÁº D &ß
Chx ¦ÓzvÀ A©º¢xÒÍõº GÛÀ,
|kÂÀ A©º¢xÒÍÁº ¯õº ?
(1) E (2) D (1) E (2) D

(3) C (4) B (3) C (4) B

TR 5331 27 P.T.O.

94. Raghul is taller than Vineeth but not as tall 94. µõSÀ ÂÜzøu Âh E¯µ©õÚÁß.
as Mahesh. Sandheep is taller than Nishanth BÚõÀ ©÷Pè AÍÂØS E¯µªÀø».
but not as tall as Vineeth. Who among them \¢w¨, {åõ¢øu Âh E¯µ©õÚÁß.
is the shortest ? BÚõÀ ÂÜz AÍÂØS E¯µªÀø».
CÁºPÐÒ ¯õº SøÓ¢u E¯µ®
Eøh¯Áº ?

(1) Raghul (2) Vineeth (1) µõSÀ (2) ÂÜz

(3) Sandheep (4) Nishanth (3) \¢w¨ (4) {åõ¢z

95. Which of the following are equal ? 95. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÖÒ GÁØÔß ©v¨¦PÒ
\©©õS® ?

(a) 15 (b) 51 (a) 15 (b) 51

(c) 05 (d) 50 (c) 05 (d) 50

(1) (a) and (b) (1) (a) ©ØÖ® (b)

(2) (a) and (c) (2) (a) ©ØÖ® (c)

(3) (b) and (c) (3) (b) ©ØÖ® (c)

(4) (a) and (d) (4) (a) ©ØÖ® (d)

96. How many rectangles are there in the 96. ¤ßÁ¸® £hzvÀ GzuøÚ
following figure ? ö\ÆÁP[PÒ EÒÍÚ ?

(1) 9 (2) 10 (1) 9 (2) 10

(3) 11 (4) 12 (3) 11 (4) 12

TR 5331 28

97. From the given answer figure ((1), (2), (3), 97. öPõkUP¨£mkÒÍ |õßS ÂøhPÐÒ
(4)), select one in which the question figure ((1), (2), (3), (4)) ÂÚõÂÀ
is embedded or hidden. ÁÇ[P¨£mkÒÍ £h® ö£õ¸¢x®
JßøÓz ÷uº¢öukUPÄ®.
Question Figure : ÂÚõ £h® :

Answer Figures : ÂøhUPõÚ £h[PÒ :

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

98. Identify the next figure in the sequence 98. ¤ßÁ¸® öuõh›À Akzx Á¸®
question figure. £hzvøÚ PshԯĮ.
Question Figure : ÂÚõ £h® :

Answer Figures : ÂøhUPõÚ £h[PÒ :

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

TR 5331 29 P.T.O.

99. Problem Figure : 99. ÂÚõ :

Answer Figures : ÂøhUPõÚ £h[PÒ :

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

100. The mirror image of is : 100. Gߣuß Psnõi ¤®£® :
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)

-oOo- -oOo-

TR 5331 30