Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank 2026 Information Technology

GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA

Department of School Education (Pre University)

18th Cross, Malleshwaram Bengaluru- 560012

Web site: https://www.pue.karnataka.gov.in/

and

Karnataka School Education and Assessment Board

6th Cross, Malleshwaram Bengaluru- 560003

Web site: https://kseab.karnataka.gov.in/

2025 – 26 II PUC QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT CODE: 61

SUBJECT NAME: INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

SUBJECT-61-INFORMATION TECNOLOGY

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SUBJECT-61-INFORMATION TECNOLOGY

II PUC CHAPTERWISE MARKS ALLOUTMENT

TIME: 2HOURS: 1 5 M I N 61-INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY MAX MARKS: 60

NUMBER OF
UNIT MARKS PAGE
UNIT NAME TEACHING
NUMBER ALLOTTED NUMBER
HOURS

1 EMPLOYBILITY SKILLS 12 5-12
16
1 UNIT-01 APPLICATIONS OF 26 13-41
35
BIOMETRIC DATA

2 UNIT-02 DATABASE MANAGEMENT 30 23 42-68
SYSTEM
UNIT-03 ADVANCE TECHNOLOGIES 25
3 19 69-86

UNIT 4: MAINTAIN HEALTHY, SAFE 30
4 22 87-104
AND SECURE WORKING
ENVIRONMENT

TOTAL
120 90 104

2025 BOARD EXAM QUESTION
6 --- --- 105-110
PAPERS (THREE PAPERS)

PREVIOUS YEAR MODEL
7 --- --- 111-119
QUESTION PAPERS (THREE
PAPERS)

SUBJECT-61-INFORMATION TECNOLOGY

2025-26 II PUC QUESTION BANK INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND

DEVELOPMENT COMMITEE

SI.
NAME DESIGNATION NAME ADDRESS OF THE
NO. COLLEGE

GOVT. PU COLLEGE FOR GIRLS
1 SHIVALEELA LECTURER BASAVANAGUDI, BANGALORE-04

SUKRUTH V K
2 LECTURER SJJM GOVT PU COLLEGE BYADAGI

RENUKA K
3 LECTURER GOVT. PU COLLEGE FOR BOYS PB
ROAD CHITRADURGA
SHASHIKALA B
4 LECTURER GOVERNMENT INDEPENDTENT PRE-
UNIVERSITY COLLEGE, HOSAKOTE,
BANGALORE RURAL-562114

SUBJECT-61-INFORMATION TECNOLOGY

UNIT 1:- COMMUNICATION SKILLS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-

1. The stage of active listening does not contain, (AVERAGE)
(a) Receiving
(b) Understanding
(c) Non-responding
(d) Evaluating

2. The number of basic punctuation marks used in English is, (EASY)
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 14

3. A word used in place of a noun is called (EASY)
(a) Adjective
(b) Verb
(c) Pronoun
(d) Adverb

4. An example for Adjective is (AVERAGE)
(a) Small
(b) Run
(c) Think
(d) Eat

5. The basic parts of speech in the following is (EASY)
(a) Conjunction
(b) Preposition
(c) Interjection
(d) Adverb

6. The word that join two nouns, phrases or sentences are called, (AVERAGE)
(a) Conjunction
(b) Verb
(c) Pronoun
(d) Interjection

7. Sentence can be defined as (DIFFICULT)
(a) A group of ideas that form a complete paragraph
(b) A group of words that communicates a complete thought
(c) A set of rules that we must follow to write correctly
(d) A set of words that contains basic punctuation marks

8. The correctly punctuated sentence in the following is, (AVERAGE)
(a) Where are you going.
(b) I have a pen a notebook and a pencil.
(c) I am so happy to see you!
(d) This is my house.

9. The subject in the sentence, “Sujatha packed the product”. (EASY)
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(a) Sujatha
(b) packed
(c) product
(d) the

10. The object in the sentence, “Dia & Sanjay booked a cab” (EASY)
(a) booked
(b) a cab
(c) Dia
(d) Sanjay

11. An example for passive voice is (AVERAGE)
(a) She wrote an email.
(b) The bike was sold by Mohan.
(c) The tiger was chasing the deer.
(d) Kapil made a profit on yesterday.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( TWO MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.Define the term Active listening & Mention it‟s importance. (DIFFICULT)
2. What is a sentence? Give an example (EASY)
3. How can you define the term Phrase? Mention any two example. (AVERAGE)
4. Differentiate between direct and indirect objects. (AVERAGE)

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( THREE MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.Explain the elements of communication with diagram. (AVERAGE)
2. Discuss about various factors of active listening. (DIFFICULT)
3. Explain the stages of active listening. (AVERAGE)
4. Write a note on capitalisation rules with an example. (AVERAGE)
5. List the types of supporting parts of speech with an examples (EASY)

SUBJECT:61 – INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY Page: 6

UNIT 2:- SELF-MANAGEMENT SKILLS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-

1. Motivation is derived from the word, (EASY)
(a) ‗Motive‘
(b) ‗Motion‘
(c) ‗Mot‘
(d) ‗Motivate‘

2. The following is not a parameter to describe an individual‟s personality, (AVERAGE)
(a) Self-confidence
(b) Openness
(c) Neuroticism
(d) Agreeableness

3. An extreme feeling of self-importance is, (AVERAGE)
(a) Narcissistic personality disorder
(b) Borderline personality disorder
(c) Dependent personality disorder
(d) None of the above

3. Raju has feelings of emptiness, abandonment and suicide. The type of personality disorder is,
(DIFFICULT)
(a) Borderline
(b) Dependent
(c) Avoidant
(d) Obsessive

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( TWO MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.List the steps to overcome personality disorders. (EASY)
2. Differentiate between Intrinsic and Extrinsic motivation. (AVERAGE)
3. Explain the meaning of personality. (EASY)
4. What is stress ? and how to manage it? (AVERAGE)

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( THREE MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.List the ways to maintain positive attitude. (EASY)
2. How to become result oriented, explain. (DIFFICULT)
3. Discuss the importance of goal setting. (AVERAGE)
4. Explain the steps towards self-awareness. (AVERAGE)
5. Describe about FFM (Five Factor Model) with neat sketch. (AVERAGE)

SUBJECT:61 – INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY Page: 7

UNIT 3:- INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
SKILLS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-

1. The Spreadsheet software among the following is, (EASY)
(a) Impress
(b) Microsoft Excel
(c) Libre office writer
(d) Libre office base

2. A _______ is an arrangement of cells in a horizontal manner. (AVERAGE)
(a) column
(b) row
(c) cell
(d) worksheet

3. The file extension of spreadsheet software is, (EASY)
(a) .ods
(b) .odb
(c) .opt
(d) .odt

4. The correct order of steps for entering data in a spreadsheet is: (DIFFICULT)
(a) type the data, click the cell and press Enter.
(b) click the cell, type the data and press Enter.
(c) press Enter, click the cell and type the data.
(d) click the cell, press Enter and type the data.

5. The default alignment of numbers in a cell is, (EASY)
(a) Left aligned
(b) Right aligned
(c) Center aligned
(d) Randomly aligned

6. The shortcut key to underline text in a spreadsheet is (EASY)
(a) Ctrl+B
(b) Ctrl+I
(c) Ctrl+L
(d) Ctrl+U

7. The feature used to perform addition in spreadsheets is, (AVERAGE)
(a) Format option
(b) Charts
(c) Graphs
(d) Formula

8. The Sort option is available under the tab, (EASY)
(a) Data
(b) File
(c) Format
(d) Style

9. The Protect spreadsheet option is available under the menu, (AVERAGE)
(a) Data
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(b) File
(c) Format
(d) Tools

10. The following is not an example for presentation software, (AVERAGE)
(a) Libre office calc
(b) MS power point
(c) Google slides
(d) Apple keynote

11. The correct step to save a presentation is (AVERAGE)
(a) File>Save As>Type file name>Save
(b) File>Open>File name>Open
(c) File>Template>Save as Template
(d) File>Close>Save>OK

12. The step to close a presentation is, (AVERAGE)
(a) File>Save As>Type file name>Save
(b) File>Exit
(c) File>Close
(d) File>Export

13. The procedure for printing a presentation is (AVERAGE)
(a) File>Print
(b) File>Print>Handout
(c) File>Print>Handout>OK
(d) File>OK

14. The shortcut key to get the new slide in the impress is (EASY)
(a) Ctrl+M
(b) Ctrl+ N
(c) Ctrl+ L
(d) Ctrl+ U

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( TWO MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.List popular spreadsheet softwares. (EASY)
2. Differentiate between Worksheet & Workbook. (AVERAGE)
3. Discuss the advantages of presentation software. (AVERAGE)
4. List various presentation softwares (EASY)
5. Mention the steps to insert an image in the impress software. (DIFFICULT)

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( THREE MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.Explain the components of spreadsheet. (AVERAGE)
2. Discuss the three ways for high lighting the text in the spreadsheet.(AVERAGE)
3. Explain the steps to protect a spreadsheet with password. (DIFFICULT)

SUBJECT:61 – INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY Page: 9

UNIT 4:- ENTREPRENEURSHIP SKILLS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-

1. The word „Entrepreneur‟ is derived from the French word, (EASY)
(a) Entrepreneurship
(b) Entreprendre
(c) Entrepren
(d) Entrenum

2. Shravan tries new ideas as a tailor in a garment factory. He is a/an ____ (AVERAGE)
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Wage employed person
(c) Labourer
(d) Unskilled worker

3. Prashant works for Surabhi, who is a businesswoman. Prashant is an ____ (AVERAGE)
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Wage employed person
(c) Skilled worker
(d) Businessman

4. The ability to continue to do something, even when it is difficult is called ____________.
(AVERAGE)
(a) Initiative
(b) Organizational skills
(c) Perseverance
(d) Decisiveness

5. The ability to act in a situation before others do is ______________. (AVERAGE)
(a) Initiative
(b) Organizational skills
(c) Perseverance
(d) Decisiveness

6. The ability to work with others is ______________. (EASY)
(a) Organizational skills
(b) Interpersonal skills
(c) Initiative
(d) Perseverance

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( TWO MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.Write the characteristics of an Entrepreneurship. (EASY)
2. Discuss the qualities that motivate an entrepreneur. (AVERAGE)
3. List the Environmental barriers to an Entrepreneurship. (AVERAGE)
4. Mention the schemes, the Indian Government has come up to help small scale entrepreneurs to gain capital.
(AVERAGE)

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( THREE MARKS QUESTIONS)

1. Explain the qualities of a successful Entrepreneur. (DIFFICULT)
2. Explain any three types of Entrepreneur. (AVERAGE)
3. List the major functions performed by an Entrepreneur. (EASY)
4. Discuss about attitudes of an Entrepreneur. (AVERAGE)
5. What is Time management? and what it includes? (AVERAGE)
6. Define the following (a) Goal setting (b) Efficiency (c) Managing quality (AVERAGE)
SUBJECT:61 – INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY Page: 10

UNIT 5:- GREEN SKILLS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-

1. UNEP stands for (EASY)
(a) United Nations Environment Program
(b) United Nations Entrepreneur Program
(c) United Nepal Environment Program
(d) Under North American Environment Program

2. Rita‟s children fall sick very often. They have cold and cough every month. What should Rita do?
(AVERAGE)
(a) Grow organic food in kitchen garden
(b) Use air purifiers with HEPA filters
(c) Keep them inside the house all the time
(d) Paint her house with non-VOC paint

3. Jaanvi‟s children have grown up. They have a lot of clothes that are too small for them now. What should
Jaanvi do with these old clothes? (AVERAGE)
(a) Throw them in the trash can
(b) Burn them
(c) Keep using them even though they are too small
(d) Donate them or make bags out of them

4. The Government of India launched the National Action Plan on Climate Change (
NAPCC) in (EASY)
(a) June 2003
(b) June 2008
(c) June 2010
(d) July 2008

5. There is a garbage bin in your canteen and it, generally, gets filled beyond capacity every day. What should
you do?
(i) Ask the canteen management to get a bigger bin
(ii) Suggest ways to reduce the amount of garbage collected
(iii) Throw garbage on the floor and walk away
(iv) Talk to your friends about the problem (AVERAGE)

(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i), (ii)
(c) (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iv)

6. In a steel factory, a lot of utensils are being made. The manager finds a number of
defective pieces, which have to be discarded. How can the person minimize the waste?
(AVERAGE)
(a) Give it to kabaadiwala or scrapdealer
(b) Dump it in a landfill site
(c) Send it back to the production line — to be melted
(d) Sell it in market

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( TWO MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.List the benefits of Green jobs. (EASY)
2. Define the term Ecosystem & mention it‟s importance. (AVERAGE)
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ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:- ( THREE MARKS QUESTIONS)

1.Explain about Green jobs in various industries/sectors. (AVERAGE)
2. How to minimise the waste & pollution, Explain. (DIFFICULT)

SUBJECT:61 – INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY Page: 12

Unit 1. Applications of Biometric Data
I. Multiple choice question: (1 Marks)
1. How can employees punch into the BAS biometric device? (Easy)
a) Using a password
b) Using a swipe card
c) Using their finger or thumb impression
d) Using a PIN
2. Who can access to view the punching data of employees? (Easy)
a) Employees only
b) Receptionist
c) Administrator of the organization
d) IT department only
3. What is the first step an administrator must take to view punch reports in BAS? (Average)
a) Turn off the device
b) Select the employee list
c) Log in using the administrator login and password
d) Connect the device to Wi-Fi
4. To see the daily punches of the current date, which menu option should the administrator select? (Easy)
a) Reports > Export
b) Employees > Attendance
c) Administration > Daily Punches
d) Settings > Reports
5. For what time period can the punch report of employees be generated? (Easy)
a) Only one day
b) Only one week
c) Any specified period between two dates
d) Only one month
6. You have been assigned to generate a summary report for your team. Before selecting employee data or
using any devices, what is the first step you should take to access the report generation system?
(Average)
a) Log in using the administrator login and password
b) Select employee profile
c) Open the fingerprint scanner
d) Plug in the biometric device

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7. Which menu path should the administrator follow to generate a summary report? (Average)
a) Reports > Daily Punches > Excel Report
b) Settings > Attendance > Overview
c) Report > Attendance Reports > Summary Report
d) Dashboard > Reports > Punch Summary
8. Where should the administrator enter the time period for generating the report? (Easy)
a) Date field in admin profile
b) ―From Date‖ and ―End Date‖ text boxes
c) Footer section
d) Comments box
9. Before generating an employee report, you need to filter the data accurately using the list boxes
provided in the system. Which set of details should you enter to ensure the report includes the correct
group of employees? (Average)
a) Employee hobbies
b) Department, Sub-department, Designation, and Type
c) Project name and supervisor
d) Contact number and email
10. In which formats can the summary report be exported? (Easy)
a) DOC and JPG
b) PDF and TXT
c) PDF and MS Excel
d) PPT and Excel
11. What should the administrator click after selecting all report parameters? (Easy)
a) Reset
b) Submit
c) Print
d) Close
12. What information is included in the generated summary report? (Easy)
a) Food preferences of employees
b) Time in/out, total working hours, present/absent days, leaves, and holidays
c) Salary slip and bank details
d) Personal addresses of employees
13. What is one of the main uses of the generated summary report? (Easy)
a) Designing ID cards
b) Scheduling training programs

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c) Calculating the pay of an employee
d) Organizing birthday parties
14. What does the summary report show for each employee? (Easy)
a) Their favorite team
b) Total number of sales
c) Working hours per day and total for the selected period
d) Emergency contacts
15. You have been asked to generate the Muster Report for your department. Before accessing the report
generation features, what is the first step you should take to ensure you have the necessary permissions
and access? (Average)
a) Log in using the administrator login and password
b) Connect the printer
c) Update software version
d) Ask employees for consent
16. Which menu path should be selected to generate the Muster Report? (Average)
a) Reports > Daily Attendance > Individual Report
b) Report > Attendance Reports > Muster Report
c) Dashboard > Summary > Muster Report
d) Tools > Employee > Report
17. Which of the following details must be supplied to generate the Muster Report? (Easy)
a) Department, Designation, Time, and File Mode
b) Employee bank details
c) Training history
d) Feedback form
18. What button must be clicked to generate the Muster Report? (Easy)
a) Reset
b) Print
c) Cancel
d) Submit
19. What kind of attendance details are included in the Muster Report? (Easy)
a) Personal information and background check
b) Daily attendance status, total present, absent, weekly off, leaves, and tour
c) Bonus and incentives
d) Training sessions attended

SUBJECT:61 – INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY Page: 15

20. You need to export the Muster Report from the system to share it with your supervisor in a format that
preserves the layout and is easy to view across different devices. Which export format should you
select? (Average)
a) JPG
b) TXT
c) PDF
d) ZIP
21. How can employees punch into the BAS biometric device? (Difficult)
a) using a password
b) using a swipe card
c) using their finger or thumb impression
d) using a pin
22. Who has access to view the punching data of employees? (Average)
a) Employees only
b) Receptionist
c) Administrator of the organization
d) IT department only
23. The first step an administrator must take to view punch reports in BAS (Average)
a) Turn off the device
b) Select the employee list
c) Login using administrator login and password
d) Connect the device to Wi-Fi
24. To see the daily punches of the current date, which menu option should the administrator select?
(Easy)
a) Reports > Export
b) Employees > Attendance
c) Administration > Daily Punches
d) Settings > Reports
25. For what time period can the punch report of employees be generated? (Easy)
a) Only one day
b) Only one week
c) Any specified period between two dates
d) Only for one month

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26. You have been assigned to generate a summary report for your team. Before you can start selecting
employee data or using any devices, what is the first step you should take to access the report generation
system? (Average)
a) Select employee profile
b) Open the fingerprint scanner
c) Login using administrator login and password
d) Plug in the biometric device
27. Which menu path should the administrator follow to generate a summary report? (Easy)
a) Reports > Daily Punches > Excel Report
b) Settings > Attendance > Overview
c) Report > Attendance Reports > Summary Report
d) Dashboard > Reports > Punch Summary
28. Where should the administrator enter the time range for the report? (Easy)
a) Date field in admin profile
b) In ―From Date‖ and ―End Date‖ textboxes
c) In the footer section
d) In the comments box
29. Before generating an employee report, you need to filter the data accurately using the list boxes
provided in the system. Which set of details should you enter to ensure the report includes the correct
group of employees? (Skill)
a) Employee hobbies
b) Department, Sub Department, Designation, and Type
c) Project name and supervisor
d) Contact number and email
30. In which formats can the summary report be exported? (Easy)
a) DOC and JPG
b) PDF and TXT
c) PDF and MS Excel
d) PPT and Excel
31. The administrator click after selecting all report parameters (Easy)
a) Reset
b) Submit
c) Print
d) Close
32. What information is included in the generated summary report? (Easy)
a) Food preferences of employees
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b) Time in/out, total working hours, present/absent days, leaves, holidays
c) Salary slip and bank details
d) Personal addresses of employees
33. What is one of the main uses of the generated summary report? (Easy)
a) Designing ID cards
b) Scheduling training programs
c) Calculating the pay of an employee
d) Organizing birthday parties
34. What does the summary report show for each employee? (Average)
a) Their favourite team
b) Total number of sales
c) Working hours per day and total for the selected period
d) Emergency contacts
35. You have been asked to generate the Muster Report for your department. Before accessing the report
generation features, what is the first step you should take to ensure you have the necessary permissions
and access? (Average)
a) Connect the printer
b) Update software version
c) Login using administrator login and password
d) Ask employee for consent
36. Which menu path should be selected to generate the Muster Report?(Easy)
a) Reports > Daily Attendance > Individual Report
b) Report > Attendance Reports > Muster Report
c) Dashboard > Summary > Muster Report
d) Tools > Employee > Report
37. Which of the following details must be supplied to generate the Muster Report? (Easy)
a) Department, designation, time, and file mode
b) Employee bank details
c) Training history
d) Feedback form
38. What button must be clicked to generate the Muster Report? (Easy)
a) Reset
b) Print
c) Cancel
d) Submit
39. What kind of attendance details are included in the Muster Report? (Easy)
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a) Personal information and background check
b) Daily attendance status, total present, absent, weekly off, leaves, tour
c) Bonus and incentives
d) Training sessions attended
40. You need to export the Muster Report from the system to share it with your supervisor in a format that
preserves the layout and is easy to view across different devices. Which export format should you
select? (Skill)
a) JPG
b) TXT
c) PDF
d) ZIP
41. What is one of the main uses of the Muster Report? (Easy)
a) Scheduling office meeting
b) Generating payroll report
c) Sending marketing emails
d) Creating employee ID cards
42. What does the FILO Report stand for in BAS? (Easy)
a) Final In Last Out
b) First In Last Out
c) First Input Last Output
d) Fixed In Long Out
43. What is the first step to generate the FILO Report? (Average)
a) Select the employee list
b) Change device settings
c) Login with administrator credentials
d) Restart the biometric machine
44. Which menu path is followed to generate the FILO Report? (Easy)
a) Tools > Punch Report > FILO
b) Reports > Daily Punches > FILO
c) Report > Attendance Reports > FILO Report
d) Dashboard > Employee Tracking > FILO Report
45. What information must be provided to generate the FILO Report? (Easy)
a) Department, sub-department, designation, time, and file type
b) Contact number and address
c) Employee achievements
d) Supervisor name and location
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46. You need to share the FILO report with your team for further analysis. To ensure compatibility and ease
of use, you want to generate the report in formats that can be easily opened and edited on most
computers. Which of the following formats should you choose to generate the FILO report? (Average)
a) PNG and DOC
b) TXT and CSV
c) Only in hard copy
d) PDF or Excel
47. What button must the administrator click after filling in the report details? (Easy)
a) Reset
b) Logout
c) Submit
d) Download
48. What kind of data is shown in the FILO Report? (Average)
a) Employee's yearly performance
b) Only login/logout passwords
c) First In and Last Out time of an employee per day
d) Tax deduction and salary slips
49. Which of the following is not included in the FILO Report? (Easy)
a) Overtime
b) Shift start and end time
c) Lunch in-out time
d) Medical records
50. What is the main purpose of the FILO Report? (Easy)
a) To check lunch menu preferences
b) To monitor attendance performance of employees
c) To advertise company events
d) To update software
51. What is meant by ―Variable Weekly Off‖ for employees? (Easy)
a) Employees choose their own holidays
b) Weekly off changes randomly every day
c) Weekly off day varies from week to week
d) Weekly off is fixed permanently
52. What is the first step to assign variable weekly off to an employee? (Easy)
a) Send email to the HR department
b) Login using administrator login and password
c) Restart the biometric device
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d) Install a new software
53. Which menu path should be followed to assign variable weekly off? (Average)
a) Report > Attendance Reports > Weekly Off
b) Settings > Employee Schedule
c) Registration > Variable Weekly Off
d) Tools > Leave Management
54. You are responsible for assigning variable weekly offs to employees in the Aadhaar enrolment system.
To ensure the correct employees receive the off, which details should you select in the system before
assigning the variable weekly off?
a) Department, Designation, Employee Id
b) Employee name, address, and shift
c) Only employee code
d) Fingerprint template
55. How are the weekly off days assigned on the calendar? (Easy)
a) By selecting from a dropdown menu
b) By dragging the dates
c) By clicking checkboxes on specific days
d) By typing the day names manually
56. What must be done after marking weekly offs on the calendar? (Average)
a) Press Enter
b) Submit a report
c) Click Save to store the settings
d) Click Print
57. What is an example of a fixed weekly off policy in organizations? (Easy)
a) Varying off days each week
b) Sunday only
c) Saturday and Sunday off for all employees
d) No weekly off
58. What is the first step in assigning a fixed off policy? (Easy)
a) Connect biometric device
b) Download a report
c) Login using administrator credentials
d) Update employee profiles

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59. As an administrator, you need to assign a fixed off policy for employees using the system interface.
Based on the available menus, which of the following is the correct path you should follow to complete
this task? (Skill)
a) Report > Weekly Schedule
b) Registration > Off Policy Registration
c) Tools > Settings > Weekly Off
d) Report > Attendance Reports > Fixed Off
60. Which of the following data must be entered to assign fixed off policy? (Easy)
a) Shift time and address
b) From Date, To Date, Department, Sub Department, Designation, and Type
c) Project and task list
d) Salary and payroll information
61. How can the administrator assign the off policy to all employees? (Average)
a) Manually select each one
b) Click on ―Select All‖
c) Search using name
d) Import from Excel
62. What should the administrator click after setting the policy? (Easy)
a) Export
b) Submit
c) Save
d) Generate
63. What type of holidays can be assigned in the BAS system? (Average)
a) Weekly off holidays only
b) Only employee birthdays
c) National and local holidays
d) Paid leave and sick leave only
64. What is the first step to assign fixed holidays in the BAS system? (Easy)
a) Download holiday list
b) Login with employee ID
c) Login using administrator login and password
d) Contact the software vendor
65. You are tasked with assigning holidays for the upcoming festival season in the Aadhaar enrolment
software. To do this, you need to open the holiday assignment form. Which menu path should you
select to complete this task? (Average)
a) Reports > Attendance
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b) Tools > Leave Settings
c) Setup > Holiday Master
d) Registration > Weekly Off
66. What does the Holiday Master form allow the administrator to do? (Easy)
a) Apply for leave
b) View biometric logs
c) Assign holidays to employees
d) Create employee accounts
67. Which of the following is NOT required in the hardware maintenance of biometric devices? (Easy)
a) Oiling and greasing
b) Power supply stabilization
c) Fingerprint sensor cleaning
d) LED performance checking
68. What component of a biometric device is prone to wear and tear due to frequent use? (Average)
a) Power cable
b) Fingerprint sensor glass surface
c) Circuit board
d) Ethernet port
69. Over time, which component used during fingerprint acquisition may degrade? (Easy)
a) CMOS battery
b) LED light
c) Capacitor
d) Fingerprint template
70. Power supply fluctuations primarily affect which part of the biometric device? (Easy)
a) Fingerprint sensor lens
b) Mechanical joints
c) Electrical interfaces and power supply equipment
d) Plastic casing
71. Which of the following parameters is NOT typically checked during fingerprint sensor diagnostics?
(Average)
a) Image resolution (DPI)
b) Image size
c) Image colour tone
d) Image skew

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72. What kind of maintenance do biometric devices primarily require? (Easy)
a) Mechanical only
b) Electrical only
c) Software only
d) Combination of mechanical, electrical, and software activities
73. What tool is used to diagnose faults in fingerprint sensors? (Easy)
a) Mechanical calibrator
b) Manual tuning tool
c) Manufacturer‘s calibration and testing software
d) Power fluctuation compensator
74. What does FAR stand for in a biometric system? (Easy)
a) False Attendance Rate
b) Fingerprint Analysis Ratio
c) False Acceptance Rate
d) Failed Authentication Record
75. What does a high FAR indicate about a biometric system? (Average)
a) System is rejecting valid users
b) System is failing to capture biometric data
c) System is authenticating wrong users
d) System is overloaded with data
76. What is the formula to calculate FRR? (Easy)
a) FRR = (NFA / NEIa) × 100
b) FRR = (NFR / NEIa) × 100
c) FRR = (NEIA / NFR) × 100
d) FRR = (NFR / NFa) × 100
77. Which of the following defines Equal Error Rate (EER)? (Average)
a) When FAR = 0 and FRR = 0
b) When FAR and FRR curves intersect
c) When FTA reaches its maximum
d) When the number of users equals the number of errors
78. During a biometric attendance scan, the system shows an error labeled ―FTa)‖ You need to understand
what this means to troubleshoot the issue properly. In the context of biometric systems, what does
―FTA‖ stand for? (Average)
a) Final Test Authentication
b) Fingerprint Timing Analysis
c) Failed to Acquire
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d) Functional Test Attempt
79. What causes a high FTA rate over time? (Easy)
a) Software bugs
b) Worn-out sensor surface
c) Faster internet speed
d) New user enrolments
80. What is the purpose of a maintenance log in a biometric system? (Easy)
a) To track employee attendance
b) To log user complaints
c) To record maintenance activities and resolutions
d) To monitor sensor activity
81. Which of the following is NOT a typical entry in a maintenance log? (Average)
a) Problem reported
b) Biometric score
c) Material consumed
d) Completion date and time
82. Which of the following is an example of a design problem? (Average)
a) Weak power supply
b) Poor user training
c) Sensor cannot handle high throughput
d) Finger placed incorrectly by user
83. What is a technological problem in the context of biometric systems? (Easy)
a) Using capacitive sensors in high-load environments
b) Fingerprint mismatch due to dry skin
c) Employee forgetting to punch in
d) Sensor not cleaned regularly
84. What is meant by Priority based on designation? (Easy)
a) Employees with higher attendance get priority
b) Priority is given based on who arrives first
c) Higher designation employees are prioritized if punched at the same time
d) Priority is given based on department size
85. How long should biometric records be maintained as per labour laws? (Average)
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 7 years
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86. Training-related problems occur due to: (Easy)
a) Power failure
b) Design issues
c) Users not trained properly
d) Poor hardware quality
87. Which of the following is a software-related issue? (Easy)
a) Power surge
b) Image sensor damage
c) Bug causing incorrect report generation
d) Dust on sensor glass
88. What is required for efficient crowd management in BAS? (Easy)
a) Longer verification time
b) High throughput rate
c) Manual check-in
d) Smaller screen size
89. Which of the following reports provides attendance between selected date ranges by office location and
division/unit? (Easy)
a) Weekly Report
b) Attendance Register
c) Leave Report
d) BAS Graphical Report
90. Advance reports in ABBAS can be generated for which of the following time frames? (Easy)
a) Hourly only
b) Daily, Weekly, Bimonthly, and Monthly
c) Annually only
d) Randomly selected days only
91. What additional data is shown in a monthly attendance report apart from name and designation? (Easy)
a) Office location only
b) Number of present days, late entry, early exit, and working hours
c) Only employee ID and login time
d) None of the above
92. Which report is useful specifically for calculating pay of daily wage workers? (Average)
a) Attendance Register
b) Date Wise Attendance Register
c) Graphical Report
d) Device-wise Report
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93. Customized reports in ABBAS can be filtered using which parameters? (Easy)
a) MAC address and network
b) Designation, Employee Code, and Name
c) Biometric device ID only
d) IP address and location
94. What is needed to generate BAS Reports for state government employees? (Easy)
a) Physical presence of employee
b) Special biometric device
c) Proper URL, login, and password
d) Excel license
95. Which of the following is a graphical report available in ABBAS? (Average)
a) Salary Report
b) Tour Summary
c) Stay Duration Report
d) Fingerprint Analysis
96. How is the employee notified about the leave status in ABBAS? (Easy)
a) Through HR announcement
b) By message on mail or mobile
c) By physical letter
d) Via SMS only
97. What condition increases the chance of leave approval? (Average)
a) If it's a Monday
b) If leave quota is already exhausted
c) If the employee has unused leave quota
d) If the request is made verbally
98. When an employee is on an official tour, how is that time treated in ABBAS? (Easy)
a) Considered as absent
b) Not recorded
c) Considered as "on duty"
d) Counted as leave
99. What is required for an employee's tour to be recorded as approved? (Easy)
a) It must be submitted to HR
b) It must be verified by a peer
c) It must be approved by the concerned authority
d) It must be less than 2 days long
100. When was UIDAI established as a statutory authority under the Aadhaar Act? (Average)
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a) 28 January 2009
b) 12 July 2016
c) 15 August 2014
d) 1 January 2010
101. Under which ministry does UIDAI operate? (Easy)
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Finance
c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
d) Ministry of External Affairs
102. Which of the following is NOT required at an Aadhaar Seva Kendra? (Average)
a) Slap scanner
b) IRIS scanner
c) High-speed internet
d) Router with firewall
103. How many digits are there in an Aadhaar number? (Easy)
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
104. What algorithm is used in Aadhaar number generation for error detection? (Easy)
a) SHA-256
b) MD5
c) Verhoff Algorithm
d) RSA
105. What must be done before the operator starts enrolment every day? (Avarage)
a) Reboot the system
b) Capture GPS coordinates
c) Clear browser cache
d) Print test page
106. You are assisting residents at an Aadhaar enrolment center. A resident arrives without valid proof of
identity or address. You consider different enrolment methods available under UIDAI guidelines.
Which of the following methods should you not consider, as it is not a valid Aadhaar enrolment type?
(Skill)
a) Introducer based
b) Family tree based
c) Head of family based
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d) Child enrolment (below 5 years)
107. In Introducer-based enrolment, what is required? (Easy)
a) PAN card of the resident
b) Ration card and utility bill
c) Introducer‘s name and Aadhaar number
d) Driving license of family head
108. What must be captured for biometric exception cases (e.g., missing fingers)? (Easy)
a) Only demographic data
b) One iris, remaining fingerprints, and exception photo
c) Only facial photo
d) Only thumbprint
109. Which step happens after biometric and demographic data are collected? (Average)
a) Aadhaar number is generated immediately
b) Data is stored and uploaded to CIDR
c) Aadhaar card is printed locally
d) Resident is notified by SMS
110. What is the purpose of the de-duplication process? (Easy)
a) To verify mobile numbers
b) To detect and avoid duplicate Aadhaar entries
c) To update demographic information
d) To verify financial details
111. What happens if biometric data is of poor quality? (Easy)
a) It is stored anyway
b) It is encrypted and saved
c) It is rejected by CIDR
d) It is sent to the regional office
112. While reviewing the Aadhaar enrolment system‘s biometric matching performance, you encounter
the term ―FAR.‖ To evaluate the system‘s security, what does FAR stand for, and why is it important?
(Skill)
a) Fingerprint Authentication Rate
b) Failed Aadhaar Registration
c) False Acceptance Rate
d) Final Authorization Record

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113. What must the operator do when leaving the enrolment seat? (Easy)
a) Lock the room
b) Log off the client software
c) Unplug biometric devices
d) Inform the manager
114. Which of the following is required for child enrolment under 5 years (Average)
a) Aadhaar of both parents
b) Aadhaar of any parent and DOB proof
c) School certificate
d) Immunization record
115. Ramesh visits an Aadhaar enrolment center to update his address. Before the data is entered into the
system, someone at the center checks and verifies the details on his update form and signs it with a
stamp. Who is responsible for this step? (Skill)
a) Post office
b) CIDR operator
c) Aadhaar applicant
d) Authorized Verifier (signature/thumb + stamp)
116. What happens after successful verification and de-duplication? (Average)
a) Aadhaar number is printed at the Kendra
b) Aadhaar number is generated and card is sent by post
c) Biometric data is deleted
d) Resident is asked to reapply
117. What is the full form of PID in Aadhaar authentication? (Average)
a) Public Identity Data
b) Personal Identification Data
c) Primary Identification Digit
d) Personal Identity Data
118. Which of the following cryptographic methods is used in Aadhaar authentication? (Average)
a) Simple password encryption
b) Base64 encoding
c) Complex cryptographic algorithm
d) None of the above
119. What does AUA stand for in the context of Aadhaar authentication? (Easy)
a) Aadhaar Usage Application
b) Authentication User Agency
c) Aadhaar Utility Authority
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d) Automated User Access
120. What is ASA in Aadhaar authentication process? (Easy)
a) Aadhaar Security Authority
b) Authentication Service Agency
c) Aadhaar Software Agent
d) Authentication Security Algorithm
121. What is CIDR in the Aadhaar ecosystem? (Easy)
a) Central Indian Data Registry
b) Central Identity Data Repository
c) Citizen Identity Digital Record
d) Centralized Indian Document Repository
122. What kind of information can be retrieved during eKYC? (Average)
a) Tax filing records
b) Bank account balance
c) Demographic data like name, email, photo, mobile number
d) Property records
123. Who verifies the digital signature in an Aadhaar authentication request? (Easy)
a) UIDAI using ASA/KSA‘s public key
b) CIDR using DSC private key
c) AUA using UIDAI private key
d) Government of India manually
124. What is the role of ASA/KSA in the Aadhaar authentication transaction flow? (Average)
a) Generate Aadhaar numbers
b) Capture fingerprint data only
c) Add parameters and sign the request with DSC
d) Deliver Aadhaar card physically
125. What kind of network is used for Aadhaar authentication transactions? (Easy)
a) Public internet
b) Shared Wi-Fi
c) Virtual Private Network (VPN)
d) Satellite network
126. What key is used to encrypt the Personal Identity Data (PId) in Aadhaar authentication? (Average)
a) ASA private key
b) UIDAI private key
c) UIDAI public key
d) AUA public key
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127. Who receives the final response after CIDR processes an authentication request? (Average)
a) UIDAI head office
b) AUA/KUA (KYC User Agency)
c) End user directly
d) Supreme Court of India
128. What certificate is used by ASA/KSA to sign the final authentication request? (Easy)
a) DSC (Digital Signer Certificate)
b) UIDAI Stamp
c) Aadhaar API token
d) CIDR Verification Seal
129. Under which act is a passport issued in India? (Easy)
a) Passport Control Act, 1972
b) Indian Citizenship Act, 1955
c) Passport Act, 1967
d) Immigration and Travel Act, 1990
130. What is the official website to apply for a passport in India? (Easy)
a) www.passport.gov.in
b) www.indiapassport.org
c) www.passportindia)gov.in
d) www.mea-passport.nic)in
131. What is the primary purpose of a passport? (Easy)
a) National voter identification
b) Access to government schemes
c) Travel to foreign countries
d) Proof of income
132. Which of the following biometric data is included in a modern passport? (Easy)
a) Blood group and height
b) Voice recording
c) Fingerprints and iris images
d) DNA profile
133. Providing false information in a passport application is considered: (Average)
a) A minor mistake
b) A technical error
c) An offence punishable by law
d) Not applicable if corrected later
134. What is the first step in the passport application process online? (Easy)
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a) Uploading documents
b) Taking a printout of the form
c) Registering as a new user
d) Paying the application fee
135. Which of the following documents is NOT typically required for a passport application? (Easy)
a) Proof of nationality
b) Blood test report
c) Proof of address
d) Proof of date of birth
136. What is PSK in the context of the passport process? (Easy)
a) Public Service Kiosk
b) Passport Seva Kendra
c) Private Security Kendra
d) Passport Submission Kiosk
137. How are appointments scheduled at PSKs? (Easy)
a) Walk-in only
b) Based on bribe system
c) Through electronic queue management system
d) Lottery system
138. What type of system ensures orderly processing at a PSK? (Easy)
a) Barcode ticketing
b) Manual token system
c) First-in, first-out electronic queue system
d) Online lottery
139. Which of the following facilities is commonly available at PSKs? (Easy)
a) Banking services
b) ATM and fuel station
c) Self-service kiosks and photocopying machines
d) Travel booking counters
140. What must applicants bring to the PSK on the day of their appointment? (Easy)
a) Only a photocopy of documents
b) Only a printout of the email confirmation
c) Original documents
d) No documents are needed
141. Which biometric devices are used in PSKs? (Average)
a) Digital pen and touchpad only
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b) Only fingerprint scanner
c) Fingerprint scanner, digital camera, iris scanner
d) None of the above
142. After successful online application and document submission, what is the next step? (Skill)
a) Verification by the police before PSK visit
b) Taking an online appointment at a PSK
c) Wait for a call from PSK
d) No further steps are needed
143. What type of ambiance is provided at Passport Seva Kendras (PSKs)? (Easy)
a) Government-style, basic facilities only
b) Corporate office type with modern amenities
c) Outdoor tents
d) Mobile vans
144. What is the first step upon arriving at the Passport Seva Kendra (PSK)? (Easy)
a) Fingerprint scanning
b) Token issuance
c) Photo capture
d) Police verification
145. In what order are applicants called for processing at PSK? (Easy)
a) Random
b) Alphabetical order
c) Based on purpose of visit
d) Sequentially based on token number
146. What is the background used when taking the applicant's photo at PSK? (Easy)
a) Blue
b) Black
c) Grey
d) White
147. Which biometric data is captured during the passport preparation process? (Easy)
a) Signature and palm print
b) Blood type and eye color
c) Fingerprint and iris scan
d) Hair color and DNA sample
148. When are original documents scanned and uploaded in the PSK process? (Easy)
a) After police verification
b) Before biometric capture
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c) After biometric capture
d) At the entrance
149. What is the next step after successful data verification and biometric collection? (Easy)
a) Immediate passport printing
b) Return home
c) Police verification process
d) Visa application
150. How does the user receive the notification to report to the police station? (Easy)
a) Physical letter
b) Mobile SMS
c) Phone call from PSK
d) Email only
151. What happens after the police verification is completed successfully? (Easy)
a) The user receives a digital copy only
b) The user must reapply online
c) Passport is printed and sent by speed post
d) No further step is needed
152. What is necessary for the PSK to maintain high service quality? (Easy)
a) Installing vending machines
b) Updating applicants manually
c) Regular maintenance and cleanliness
d) Hiring new staff daily
153. During the summer months, applicants at the Passport Seva Kendra (PSK) often have to wait
indoors for their turn. Which facility is most essential to ensure a comfortable environment for both
staff and visitors in such conditions?a)
a) Ceiling fans
b) Glass windows
c) Air conditioning
d) Coolers
154. Why should the computer hardware be regularly updated at PSKs? (Easy)
a) To improve electricity usage
b) Because hardware becomes outdated and slow
c) For aesthetics only
d) To comply with police rules
155. Who issues the driving licence in India? (Easy)
a) Passport Seva Kendra
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b) Election Commission
c) Regional Transport Office (RTO)
d) Ministry of Finance
156. What kind of data is stored in the smart chip on a modern driving licence? (Easy)
a) Only blood group
b) Only driving test results
c) Demographic and biometric data
d) Only vehicle details
157. Which of the following is NOT biometric data included in a driving licence? (Easy)
a) Photograph
b) Signature
c) Fingerprint
d) Iris scan
158. What is the minimum age to apply for a motorcycle without gear licence in India? (Easy)
a) 14 years
b) 16 years
c) 18 years
d) 20 years
159. A transport company is hiring drivers for heavy commercial vehicles. One applicant has valid
driving experience but has studied only up to 7th standard) Based on RTO rules, what should the
company inform him about his eligibility for a commercial heavy vehicle licence? (Skill)
a) He is eligible since he has driving experience
b) He must first complete at least 8th standard education
c) He can apply without any educational qualification
d) He only needs to pass a driving test to be eligible
160. What is the minimum age to apply for a motorcycle with gear driving licence in India? (Easy)
a) 16 years
b) 17 years
c) 18 years
d) 21 years
161. Which document is NOT accepted as proof of age? (Easy)
a) PAN card
b) 10th mark sheet
c) Electricity bill
d) Birth certificate

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162. Ravi wants to apply for a permanent driving licence. However, the RTO official informs him that he
must complete an initial step before becoming eligible. What should Ravi obtain first? (Average)
a) RTO ID
b) Licence number
c) Learning licence
d) Driving certificate
163. What must be done after submitting the online application? (Easy)
a) Immediately take a driving test
b) Print and discard the form
c) Visit RTO for authentication and verification
d) Submit to police station
164. What setup is required for the online test at RTO? (Easy)
a) Typewriter and papers
b) Two-way mirrors and joystick
c) LAN-connected computers and testing software
d) Manual written test on blackboard
165. What shape must a two-wheeler driver trace during the test? (Easy)
a) Circle
b) Square
c) Number 8
d) Triangle
166. What will the RTO inspector test in a four-wheeler driving test? (Average)
a) Color of the car
b) Speed of the driver
c) Ability to shift gears, use mirrors, and respond to brakes
d) Insurance papers of the caR
167. Where is the final driving licence sent after successful test and approval? (Easy)
a) RTO main office
b) Employer's address
c) Police station
d) Applicant‘s residential address
168. What category do ―Stop‖, ―No Entry‖, and ―Speed Limit‖ signs fall under? (Average)
a) Cautionary signs
b) Mandatory signs
c) Informative signs
d) Educational signs
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169. While driving near a school zone, you see a triangular symbol with children crossing. A few
minutes later, you encounter a triangular sign showing construction work. What action should you take
in response to these symbols? (Skill)
a) Increase speed to pass quickly
b) Ignore the signs if there are no people present
c) Reduce speed and drive cautiously
d) Stop the vehicle immediately and wait for instructions
170. What type of signs provide information like hospital, petrol pump, or parking? (Easy)
a) Warning signs
b) Informative signs
c) Mandatory signs
d) Prohibited signs
171. Why must a person understand road signs before applying for a licence? (Easy)
a) To memorize road maps
b) To design their own signs
c) To follow road rules and pass the test
d) To drive on expressways only
172. What is the consequence of driving without a valid driving licence in India? (Easy)
a) Free training offered
b) No consequence
c) Punishable under traffic laws
d) Only a warning
173. What is the main purpose of the smart chip in the modern driving licence? (Average)
a) For Bluetooth access
b) Store music
c) Store driver data securely
d) Allow payments
174. What is the main purpose of a school ID card? (Average)
a) Entertainment
b) Identity and security
c) Exam marks
d) Homework
175. Who issues the school ID card to students? (Easy)
a) Teacher
b) Security guard

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c) School Principal
d) Librarian
176. Which biometric data is used for ID cards? (Easy)
a) Eye color
b) Name and address only
c) Photo and thumb impression
d) Shoe size
177. While preparing student ID cards, you notice that the photographs are missing for several students.
You check the setup and find all devices connected) Which device should you troubleshoot first to
resolve the issue? (Average)
a) Speaker
b) Projector
c) Camera
d) Scanner
178. What helps protect an ID card from wear and tear? (Easy)
a) Ink
b) Lamination
c) Washing
d) Heating
II. Answer the following questions: (2 Marks)
179. Expand BAS (Easy)
180. Write the steps to create daily punch reports? (Difficult)
181. What is the use of daily punch repots? (Easy)
182. Mention the use of summary reports? (Difficult)
183. What is advantages of muster report? (Easy)
184. What is variable weekly off? (Easy)
185. What is off policy registration? (Easy)
186. Write the steps to assign holidays? (Difficult)
187. Define FAR and FRR(Easy)
188. Explain the graph of FAR and FRR. (Average)
189. Define EER? (Easy)
190. What is FTA? (Easy)
191. What is Maintenance log? and mention its heads (Easy)
192. Analyse the common problems encountered with biometric devices. (Skill)
193. What is crowd management? (Easy)
194. Explain the priority based service request? (Average)
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195. What is ABBAS? (Easy)
196. What is add tours? (Easy)
197. What is approved tours? (Easy)
198. What is de-duplication service? (Easy)
199. What is verhoff? (Easy)
200. What is ekyc? (Easy)
201. What is passport? (Easy)
202. What is uidai? (Easy)
203. What is add holidays? (Easy)
204. what is driving licence? (Easy)
205. What is learning licence? (Easy)
206. What are documents required to apply for driving licence. (Average)
207. On which act passport is issued in bharatha? (Average)
208. What is school id card? (Easy)
209. What is visitors id ? (Easy)
III. Answer the following questions: (3 Marks)
210. Write the steps to create summary reports for the selected period? (Easy)
211. Write the steps to generate muster report (Difficult)
212. What is attendance register ? Give examples. (Easy)
213. Write the steps to generate time attendance report (FILO)? (Difficult)
214. What is the use of Time Attendance Report (FILO)? (Easy)
215. Write the steps to assign off policy registration? (Difficult)
216. Write the procedure to assign variable weekly off in BAS? (Difficult)
217. Evaluate the precautions necessary while using a biometric attendance device (Skill)
218. List the possible system errors in finger print sensor. (Easy)
219. List the different Attendance and Sub reports. (Easy)
220. List the ABBAS Reports. (Average)
221. Explain advance reports? (Average)
222. Explain date wise attendance register ? (Average)
223. Explain customized attendance report ? (Average)
224. Explain weekly/monthly report ? (Average)
225. Explain BAS reports? (Average)
226. Evaluate the challenges involved in leave management within an organization and propose strategies
or tools to effectively handle these challenges to ensure smooth workforce management. (Skill)
227. Explain add leave record. (Average)
228. Explain approved leaves(Average)
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229. Explain tour management. (Average)
230. Explain how holiday management is important in organizing a school or workplace schedule.
(Average)
231. List the types of holiday management. (Average)
232. Mention the purpose of Aadhaar seva kendra (Average)
233. Explain the eligibility to apply for driving licence (Average)
234. Write the application process for driving licence (Difficult)
235. What is the setup required in preparation of driving licence? (Average)
236. Write commonly used symbols and signs while driving on road. (Average)
237. Write the different categories of sign. (Average)
238. What is the purpose of preparing school id card? (Average)
239. State the techniques to backing up the student‘s data after creating the ID card. (Average).
240. What is the significance of police enquiry in passport application? (Average)
241. Analyse the key components of a driving licence. (Skill)
IV. Answer the following questions: (6 Marks)
242. List the instruction to be followed by an operator of Aadhaar seva kendra (Average)
243. Explain types of Aadhaar enrolment process? (Average)
244. Demonstrate the procedure to apply for passport. (Skill)
245. What is the setup required in preparation of passport? (Easy)
246. Explain the preparation of school id card (Difficult)
247. List the hardware and software requirements for aadhaar seva kendra (Average)

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Unit 2. Fundamentals of Database Systems Session
I. Multiple choice questions: (1 Marks)

1. Which of the following operations is supported by the biometric system described in the example?
a) Data encryption and decryption (Difficult)
b) Enrollment and matching of biometric data
c) Payroll processing
d) Employee performance tracking
2. What type of system is described that uses application programs to manage data files? (Difficult)
a) Database Management System
b) File-based System
c) Cloud-based System
d) Distributed System
3. Why does the file-based system become inefficient over time? (Difficult)
a) It uses outdated programming languages
b) It requires manual data entry
c) It accumulates more files and application programs with each new requirement
d) It cannot store biometric data
4. What is the main reason for adding new application programs in a file-based system? (Difficult)
a) To improve graphics
b) To support new user interfaces
c) To meet new data processing requirements
d) To reduce employee workload
5. If the company wants to add facial recognition to the biometric system, what would be the consequence in a
file-based system? (Difficult)
a) No changes needed
b) Only hardware upgrade required
c) New files and application programs must be created
d) The system will automatically adapt
6. Which of the following best illustrates the limitation of a file-based system in handling employee data
securely and efficiently? (Difficult)
a) It uses biometric authentication
b) It stores data in encrypted format
c) It requires separate files and programs for each new feature
d) It supports cloud storage

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7. Which of the following best explains the advantage of using a database system over a file-based system for
employee authentication? (Difficult)
a) Database systems are cheaper
b) Database systems eliminate the need for biometric data
c) Database systems provide centralized data management and scalability
d) Database systems require no programming
8. Imagine you are designing a secure employee authentication system. Which approach would you
recommend and why? (Difficult)
a) File-based system, because it is simple
b) Database system, because it supports integration and data consistency
c) Manual record keeping, because it avoids technical issues
d) Spreadsheet-based system, because it is flexible
9. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of file-based systems? (Average)
a) High-speed processing
b) Data redundancy and inconsistency
c) Real-time analytics
d) Automatic constraint enforcement
10..What does atomicity ensure in a database system? (Difficult)
a) Data is encrypted
b) Data is backed up regularly
c) Operations are completed fully or not at all
d) Data is stored in multiple formats
11.Why is data inconsistency common in file-based systems? (Average)
a) Files are stored in the cloud
b) Data is encrypted
c) Same data may be stored in multiple files with different formats
d) Files are accessed by only one user
12. What makes enforcing integrity constraints difficult in file-based systems? (Easy)
a) Constraints are stored in a separate file
b) Constraints must be manually coded into each application
c) Constraints are automatically applied
d) File systems support relational models
13.A manager wants to retrieve employees earning more than ₹50,000. What challenge arises in a file-based
system? (Difficult)
a) The system automatically generates the report

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b) The manager can use a built-in query tool
c) A new application program must be written
d) The data is already sorted by salary
14.If a system failure occurs during deletion of employee data, what is likely in a file-based system?
a) All related files are updated automatically (Difficult)
b) The system rolls back the operation
c) Some files may retain outdated employee data
d) The system sends an alert
15.Which of the following best explains why concurrent access is problematic in file-based systems?
a) File systems are designed for single-user access only (Easy)
b) Application programs are not coordinated for simultaneous updates
c) File systems use blockchain for access control
d) File systems encrypt data during concurrent access
16. Why is a database system preferred over a file-based system for managing biometric and employee data?
(Difficult)
a) It allows manual data entry
b) It supports structured, centralized, and secure data management
c) It uses multiple programming languages
d) It stores data in separate files
17. Which of the following is a key advantage of DBMS over file-based systems? (Average)
a) Increased data redundancy
b) Manual backup requirement
c) Centralized data storage
d) Lack of security features
18. What does data integrity in DBMS refer to? (Average)
a) Data encryption
b) Data duplication
c) Accuracy and consistency of data
d) Data compression
19. How does DBMS improve data sharing among users? (Difficult)
a) By allowing unrestricted access to all users
b) By assigning access levels through database administration
c) By storing data in separate files for each user
d) By using cloud-based storage

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20. Why is data consistency easier to maintain in a DBMS? (Difficult)
a) Data is stored in multiple locations
b) Each value is stored only once
c) Users manually update all copies
d) DBMS avoids using tables
21. A railway reservation system uses DBMS. What ensures that a ticket booking is either fully completed or
not processed at all? (Skill)
a) Data redundancy
b) Data atomicity
c) Data isolation
d) Data encryption
22. If a system crashes during a transaction, how does DBMS handle recovery? (Skill)
a) It deletes all data
b) It requires manual restoration
c) It automatically restores the database to its previous state
d) It ignores the failed transaction
23. Which feature of DBMS helps organizations avoid data duplication and inconsistency? (Average)
a) File-based storage
b) Distributed programming
c) Centralized control and table linking
d) Manual data entry
24. Why is DBMS more suitable than file-based systems for developing new applications? (Average)
a) It requires less programming skill
b) It stores data in encrypted format
c) It allows reuse of existing structured data
d) It avoids using relational models
25. Which of the following is a widely used relational database package? (Average)
a) Hadoop
b) Oracle
c) MongoDB
d) Excel
26. In a relational database, what is a relation commonly referred to as? (Average)
a) File b) Record
c) Table d) Attribute

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27. What is the term for the columns in a relational table? (Easy)
a) Tuples
b) Entities
c) Attributes
d) Domains
28. What does the term ―cardinality‖ refer to in a relational database? (Easy)
a) Number of columns in a table
b) Number of rows in a table
c) Number of databases in a system
d) Number of schemas in a relation
29. Why is the relational model considered easier to use than other models? (Difficult)
a) It uses graphical interfaces
b) It stores data in hierarchical trees
c) It represents data in simple tabular form
d) It requires no schema
30. Given the EMPLOYEE table with five columns, what is the degree of the relation? (Easy)
a) 6
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
31. If a new employee is added to the EMPLOYEE table, what changes? (Easy)
a) The schema
b) The degree
c) The cardinality
d) The domain
32. Which of the following best describes the role of a schema in a relational database? (Difficult)
a) It stores actual data values
b) It defines the structure and types of data in a table
c) It encrypts sensitive data
d) It manages user access rights
33. Why is the concept of domain important in relational databases? (Difficult)
a) It defines the number of rows in a table
b) It ensures each attribute has valid values
c) It links multiple tables together
d) It stores backup data

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34. What is a composite key? (Average)
a) A key that contains null values
b) A key formed by combining two or more attributes
c) A key used in multiple tables
d) A key that is always a foreign key
35. Which key uniquely identifies each tuple and cannot contain null or duplicate values? (Easy)
a) Super key
b) Primary key
c) Foreign key
d) Alternate key
36. Why is the combination of Roll_num and Course considered a candidate key? (Average)
a) It contains duplicate values
b) It cannot be used to identify tuples
c) It uniquely identifies each tuple and cannot be reduced further
d) It is the only key in the table
37. Which of the following combinations is a super key but not a candidate key? (Difficult)
a) Admission_num
b) Roll_num and Course
c) Admission_num, Name, and Course
d) Name and Course
38. If Admission_num is the primary key in the STUDENT table, what is its role in another table referencing it?
(Easy)
a) Composite key
b) Alternate key
c) Foreign key
d) Super key
39. Which key would you choose to ensure that each student record is uniquely identified in the STUDENT
table? (Difficult)
a) Name
b) Course
c) Admission_num
d) Mobile
40. Why is it important that a primary key does not contain null values? (Difficult)
a) Null values are encrypted
b) Null values prevent unique identification of tuples

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c) Null values increase storage efficiency
d) Null values simplify indexing
41. If Roll_num and Course form a candidate key, what happens when Admission_num is chosen as the primary
key? (Average)
a) Roll_num and Course become a foreign key
b) Roll_num and Course become an alternate key
c) Roll_num and Course are deleted
d) Roll_num and Course become the schema
42. Which company currently owns MySQL? (Easy)
a) IBM
b) Microsoft
c) Oracle
d) Sun Microsystems
43. Which database system is specifically designed for desktop use and small businesses? (Difficult)
a) Oracle
b) MS-Access
c) DB2
d) PostgreSQL
44. Which database system is developed by IBM and supports object-oriented features? (Average)
a) DB2
b) MySQL
c) Ingres
d) FoxPro
45. Why is NoSQL preferred for social media platforms like Facebook and Google? (Difficult)
a) It uses relational tables
b) It is optimized for small-scale data
c) It handles distributed and massive data efficiently
d) It supports only desktop applications
46. What makes Oracle suitable for large enterprises? (Difficult)
a) It is free and open-source
b) It lacks integrity constraints
c) It supports features like triggers, shared SQL, and locking
d) It is designed for personal use
47. A government agency needs a cross-platform, ACID-compliant database. Which system would be most
appropriate? (Difficult)

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a) MS-Access
b) Ingres
c) FoxPro
d) MySQL
48. Which database system would be ideal for a developer working on Linux and Solaris platforms with open-
source licensing? (Difficult)
a) PostgreSQL
b) Microsoft SQL Server
c) Oracle
d) DB2
49. Which of the following best explains why MySQL is popular among developers? (Average)
a) It is expensive and proprietary
b) It supports only Windows
c) It is open-source, efficient, and reliable
d) It lacks relational features
50. If a business needs a database with a graphical interface and Jet engine support, which system should they
choose? (Difficult)
a) PostgreSQL
b) MS-Access
c) Oracle
d) NoSQL
51. What does SQL stand for? (Easy)
a) Simple Query Language
b) Structured Query Language
c) Sequential Query Language
d) Standard Query Language
52. Which of the following is NOT a programming language? (Easy)
a) C++
b) Java
c) SQL
d) Python
53. Which of the following RDBMS uses SQL as its standard language? (Average)
a) MySQL
b) Oracle

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c) Postgres
d) All of the above
54. Why SQL considered a non-procedural language? (Easy)
a) It uses loops and conditions
b) It defines how to perform operations
c) It describes what data to retrieve or manipulate, not how
d) It supports object-oriented features
55. Which feature of SQL helps in managing user access to data? (Average)
a) Data encryption
b) Access permissions
c) Table normalization
d) Indexing
56. If you want to remove a table from a database using SQL, which type of command would you use?
a) SELECT (Easy)
b) DELETE
c) DROP
d) INSERT
57. Which SQL command would you use to add new data to a table? (Easy)
a) CREATE
b) INSERT
c) UPDATE
d) ALTER
58. Why is SQL preferred for managing relational databases? (Difficult)
a) It is procedural and complex
b) It provides a simple and efficient way to interact with data
c) It requires advanced programming skills
d) It only works with small datasets
59. Which of the following best explains the role of SQL in RDBMS? (Average)
a) It encrypts data for security
b) It defines the physical storage of data
c) It allows users to create, retrieve, and manipulate data in tables
d) It replaces the need for database design
60. Which SQL component is used to define and modify the structure of database objects? (Easy)
a) DML
b) DCL

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c) DDL
d) XML
61. Which of the following is a DML command? (Easy)
a) CREATE
b) ALTER
c) SELECT
d) DROP
62. Which command is used to give access privileges to users in SQL? (Easy)
a) GRANT
b) REVOKE
c) COMMIT
d) DELETE
63. Why is DCL important in a database system? (Easy)
a) It defines table structure
b) It controls data manipulation
c) It manages user access and security
d) It stores numeric values
64. What is the role of the ALTER command in SQL? (Easy)
a) To delete a table
b) To insert data
c) To modify the structure of a table
d) To retrieve data
65. Which data type would be most appropriate for storing a person's birthdate in MySQL? (Easy)
a) VARCHAR
b) INT
c) DATE
d) CHAR
66. You need to update an employee‘s salary in the EMPLOYEE table. Which SQL command should you use?
(Easy)
a) INSERT
b) UPDATE
c) DELETE
d) SELECT

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67. If you want to remove all records from a table but keep its structure, which command should you use?
(Average)
a) DROP
b) DELETE
c) TRUNCATE
d) ALTER
68. Why is it important to assign correct data types to columns during database design? (Difficult)
a) It improves graphics performance
b) It ensures data correctness and efficient storage
c) It allows multiple users to access data
d) It enables automatic backups
69. Which of the following best explains the difference between VARCHAR and CHAR in MySQL?
a) CHAR stores numbers, VARCHAR stores text (Average)
b) CHAR is for fixed-length strings, VARCHAR is for variable-length strings
c) CHAR is used for dates, VARCHAR is used for time
d) CHAR is encrypted, VARCHAR is not
70. Which category of SQL commands is used to define and modify the structure of database objects?
a) DML (Easy)
b) DCL
c) DDL
d) XML
71. Which of the following is a DML command? (Easy)
a) CREATE
b) ALTER
c) SELECT
d) DROP
72. What is the purpose of the command mysql -u root -p in Ubuntu Linux? (Average)
a) To install MySQL
b) To start the MySQL server
c) To open the MySQL client with root access
d) To create a new database
73. Why are DML commands important in SQL? (Average)
a) They define the structure of tables
b) They manage user privileges

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c) They allow manipulation of data stored in tables
d) They remove database objects
74. What does the -p option in the MySQL command mysql -u root -p indicate? (Difficult)
a) It specifies the port number
b) It prompts for the root user's password
c) It sets the database path
d) It enables graphical interface
75. You want to add a new column to an existing table in MySQL. Which command should you use?
a) INSERT (Easy)
b) ALTER
c) UPDATE
d) SELECT
76. Which command would you use to permanently remove a table from a database? (Easy)
a) DELETE
b) DROP
c) TRUNCATE
d) ALTER
77. Why is it useful to classify SQL commands into DDL, DML, and DCL? (Average)
a) It simplifies syntax rules
b) It helps organize operations based on their purpose
c) It reduces the number of commands
d) It improves graphical interface design
78. Which of the following best describes the role of DCL commands in SQL? (Easy)
a) They define table schemas
b) They manipulate data records
c) They control access and permissions
d) They create indexes
79. Which SQL command is used to create a new database? (Easy)
a) CREATE TABLE
b) CREATE DATABASE
c) USE DATABASE
d) NEW DATABASE
80. Which command is used to make a database active in MySQL? (Average)
a) OPEN DATABASE
b) SELECT DATABASE

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c) USE
d) ACTIVATE DATABASE
81. What does the command SHOW DATABASES; do? (Average)
a) Deletes all databases
b) Lists all existing databases
c) Creates a new database
d) Opens a specific database
82. Why must the database name be unique when creating a new database in MySQL? (Difficult)
a) To avoid syntax errors
b) To prevent duplicate data types
c) To ensure proper identification and avoid conflicts
d) To enable automatic backups
83. What is the purpose of the CREATE TABLE command in SQL? (Easy)
a) To insert data into a table
b) To define the structure of a new table
c) To delete a table
d) To retrieve data from a table
83. You want to create a table named STUDENT with columns for ID, Name, and Age. Which command would
you use? (Easy)
a) CREATE DATABASE STUDENT;
b) USE STUDENT;
c) CREATE TABLE STUDENT (ID INT, Name VARCHAR(50), Age INT);
d) INSERT INTO STUDENT VALUES (1, 'John', 20);
84. After creating a database named EMPLOYEE, which command should you run to begin working with it?
(Average)
a) SELECT EMPLOYEE;
b) USE EMPLOYEE;
c) OPEN EMPLOYEE;
d) START EMPLOYEE;
85. Why is it important to define data types and constraints when creating a table? (Difficult)
a) To improve graphical interface
b) To ensure data accuracy and enforce rules
c) To allow multiple users to access the table
d) To enable automatic backups

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86. Which of the following best describes the role of parentheses in the CREATE TABLE syntax?
a) They separate multiple databases (Difficult)
b) They enclose the list of column definitions
c) They define the primary key
d) They indicate the end of the command
87. Which command is used to view the structure of a table in MySQL? (Easy)
a) SHOW TABLE
b) VIEW STRUCTURE
c) DESCRIBE
d) SELECT STRUCTURE
88. Which SQL command is used to insert data into a table? (Easy)
a) ADD
b) INSERT INTO
c) UPDATE
d) ALTER TABLE
89. What does the ALTER TABLE command do? (Easy)
a) Inserts new rows
b) Deletes the table
c) Modifies the structure of a table
d) Displays table content
90. Why is it important to match the order of values with the order of columns when inserting data without
specifying column names? (Difficult)
a) To reduce query length
b) To avoid syntax errors and ensure correct data placement
c) To enable automatic indexing
d) To allow NULL values
91. What happens if a value is not provided for a column during insertion? (Easy)
a) The row is rejected
b) A default value is inserted
c) A NULL value is inserted
d) The column is deleted
92. You want to add a column named PLACE after the column NAME in the EMPLOYEE_TABLE. Which
command should you use? (Average)
a) ADD COLUMN PLACE AFTER NAME
b) ALTER EMPLOYEE_TABLE ADD PLACE AFTER NAME

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c) ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEE_TABLE ADD PLACE VARCHAR(50) AFTER NAME
d) UPDATE EMPLOYEE_TABLE SET PLACE = 'Delhi'
93. Which command would you use to check if data was successfully inserted into a table? (Easy)
a) SHOW TABLE
b) SELECT * FROM <table_name>
c) DESCRIBE <table_name>
d) INSERT INTO <table_name>
94. Why is the ALTER TABLE command useful in real-world database management? (Average)
a) It allows dynamic changes to table structure without losing data
b) It deletes outdated tables
c) It encrypts sensitive columns
d) It prevents data insertion
95. Which of the following best describes the role of the DESC command in MySQL? (Easy)
a) It displays all rows in a table
b) It shows the structure and column definitions of a table
c) It modifies the table schema
d) It inserts new columns
96. Which SQL clause is used to change the data type or size of a column? (Easy)
a) CHANGE
b) MODIFY
c) UPDATE
d) ALTER
97. Which command is used to permanently remove a table from a database? (Easy)
a) DELETE TABLE
b) REMOVE TABLE
c) DROP TABLE
d) ERASE TABLE
98. Which SQL command is used to rename a table? (Average)
a) RENAME TABLE
b) ALTER TABLE … RENAME TO
c) CHANGE TABLE NAME
d) UPDATE TABLE NAME
99. What happens when you use ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEE_TABLE DROP PLACE;? (Easy)
a) The table is deleted
b) The PLACE column is removed from the table

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c) All rows with PLACE value are deleted
d) The PLACE column is renamed
100.Why should you be cautious when using the DROP TABLE command? (Average)
a) It locks the table
b) It requires admin privileges
c) It permanently deletes the table and its data
d) It only works on empty tables
101.You want to change the data type of the STATUS column to BIT. Which command should you use?
(Difficult)
a) ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEE_TABLE CHANGE STATUS TO BIT;
b) ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEE_TABLE MODIFY STATUS BIT;
c) UPDATE EMPLOYEE_TABLE SET STATUS = BIT;
d) ALTER STATUS BIT IN EMPLOYEE_TABLE;

101. To delete only the fourth row from the table EMP_TAB, which command would you use?
a) DELETE EMP_TAB; (Difficult)
b) DELETE FROM EMP_TAB WHERE rowid = 4;
c) DELETE FROM EMP_TAB WHERE EMPLOY_NUM = <value>;
d) DROP ROW 4 FROM EMP_TAB;
102. Why is the DELETE command preferred over DROP TABLE when removing specific records?
a) DELETE is faster (Difficult)
b) DELETE removes only selected rows, preserving the table structure c)
DELETE encrypts the data
d) DELETE renames the table
103. Which of the following best explains the use of ALTER TABLE in SQL? (Easy)
a) It is used to retrieve data
b) It is used to modify the structure of an existing table
c) It is used to delete all rows
d) It is used to grant user privileges
104. Which SQL command is used to retrieve data from a table? (Easy)
a) INSERT
b) SELECT
c) DELETE
d) UPDATE
105. What symbol is used in SQL to select all columns from a table? (Easy)
a) #
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b) @
c) *
d) &
106. Which keyword is used to eliminate duplicate values in a column? (Easy)
a) UNIQUE
b) REMOVE
c) DISTINCT
d) FILTER
107. What does the WHERE clause do in a SQL query? (Average)
a) Specifies the table name
b) Defines the structure of a table
c) Filters rows based on a condition
d) Sorts the result set
108. Which operator would you use to find employees with salary greater than or equal to ₹50,000?
a) != (Easy)
b) <=
c) >=
d) =
109. You want to retrieve employee number and name of female employees earning ₹50,000 or more. Which
query should you use? (Difficult)
a) SELECT EMPLOY_NUM, NAME FROM EMP_TAB WHERE SALARY >= 50000.00 OR GENDER =
'F';
b) SELECT EMPLOY_NUM, NAME FROM EMP_TAB WHERE SALARY >= 50000.00 AND GENDER
= 'F';
c) SELECT EMPLOY_NUM, NAME FROM EMP_TAB WHERE SALARY = 50000.00 AND GENDER =
'F';
d) SELECT EMPLOY_NUM, NAME FROM EMP_TAB WHERE GENDER = 'F';
110. To display only the unique genders from the EMP_TAB table, which query would you use?
a) SELECT GENDER FROM EMP_TAB; (Average)
b) SELECT DISTINCT GENDER FROM EMP_TAB;
c) SELECT UNIQUE GENDER FROM EMP_TAB;
d) SELECT GENDER FROM EMP_TAB WHERE GENDER IS NOT NULL;
111. Why is the SELECT * FROM EMP_TAB; query useful during initial data exploration? (Easy)
a) It deletes all rows from the table
b) It displays the structure of the table

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c) It retrieves all data from all columns for review
d) It modifies the table schema
112. Which of the following best explains the use of logical operators like AND and OR in SQL?
a) They define table relationships (Difficult)
b) They combine multiple conditions in a query
c) They sort query results
d) They encrypt sensitive data)
113. Which SQL operator is used to specify a range of values? (Average)
a) IN
b) BETWEEN...AND
c) LIKE
d) RANGE
114. Which wildcard character in SQL matches any sequence of characters? (Average)
a) _ (underscore)
b) #
c) % (percentage)
d) *
115. Which SQL clause is used to sort query results? (Average)
a) GROUP BY
b) ORDER BY
c) SORT
d) ARRANGE
116. What does the IN operator do in a SQL query? (Difficult)
a) Matches a pattern
b) Specifies a range
c) Filters rows based on a list of values
d) Sorts the result set
117. Which aggregate function returns the number of non-null values in a column? (Easy)
a) SUM()
b) COUNT()
c) MAX()
d) AVG()
118. What is the purpose of the SET clause in an UPDATE statement? (Difficult)
a) To define table structure
b) To specify new values for columns

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c) To delete rows
d) To sort data
119. You want to retrieve names of employees born between 1980 and 1990. Which query should you use?
(Easy)
a) SELECT NAME FROM EMP_TAB WHERE DOB IN (‗1980‘, ‗1990‘);
b) SELECT NAME FROM EMP_TAB WHERE DOB LIKE ‗1980%‘;
c) SELECT NAME FROM EMP_TAB WHERE DOB BETWEEN ‗1980/01/01‘ AND ‗1990/12/31‘;
d) SELECT NAME FROM EMP_TAB WHERE DOB = ‗1980/01/01‘;
120. To update the salary of employee RAMU to ₹60,000, which command should you use? (Easy)
a) UPDATE EMP_TAB SET SALARY = 60000 WHERE NAME = ‗RAMU‘;
b) ALTER EMP_TAB SET SALARY = 60000 WHERE NAME = ‗RAMU‘;
c) INSERT INTO EMP_TAB (SALARY) VALUES (60000);
d) SELECT SALARY FROM EMP_TAB WHERE NAME = ‗RAMU‘;
121. Why is the LIKE operator useful in SQL queries? (Difficult)
a) It allows sorting of numeric values
b) It helps match string patterns using wildcards
c) It filters numeric ranges
d) It updates column values
122. Which of the following best explains the use of aggregate functions in SQL? (Difficult)
a) They modify table structure
b) They retrieve individual rows
c) They compute summary values across multiple rows
d) They sort data alphabetically
123. What is a subquery in SQL? (Easy)
a) A query that deletes data
b) A query that runs after the main query
c) A query nested inside another query
d) A query that modifies table structure
124. Which SQL command retrieves the highest salary from a table named EMP_DAT? (Easy)
a) SELECT MAX(SALARY) FROM EMP_DAT;
b) SELECT SALARY FROM EMP_DAT WHERE SALARY = MAX;
c) SELECT * FROM EMP_DAT WHERE SALARY IS MAX;
d) SELECT MAX FROM EMP_DAT SALARY;
125. Which biometric system is maintained by the FBI and contains the world‘s largest collection of criminal
history? (Difficult)

SUBJECT:61 – INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY Page: 60