GATE 2026 Question Paper Architecture and Planning (AR)

FOR GATE EXAM PREPARATION

GATE 2026
Question Paper ·
Architecture Planning
(AR)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

GATE 2026 Question Paper Architecture Planning (AR)

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Architecture and Planning (AR)

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General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q. 1 Verbosity : Brevity :: Insolence :___________

Choose the word that best fills the blank.
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(A)
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(B) Respect

(C) Solace

(D) Wealth
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The product of the digits ofaagthree-digit number is 70. The sum of the digits of
this three-digit number is _____

(A) 12

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Architecture and Planning (AR)

Q.3 The four pieces of a puzzle are shown in the figure below.

Which one of the figures labelled as P, Q, R, and S can be constructed by using
each of the four pieces only once without overlaps?

P Q

R S

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) S

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Architecture and Planning (AR)

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Q.4 Consider two distinct positive real numbers 𝑚, 𝑛, with 𝑚 > 𝑛.
Let 𝑥 = 𝑛log10(𝑚) and 𝑦 = 𝑚log10(𝑛) . The relation between 𝑥 and 𝑦 is _______.

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(C) a 𝑥 = 𝑦

(D) 𝑥 = log10 (𝑦)

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Q.5
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‘If his latest movie had been a commercial success, the actor would have made
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enough money to sponsor his next movie.’
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Based only on the above sentence,

(A) The actor will certainly sponsor his next movie.

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(B) His latest movie was a commercial success.

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a (D) His latest movie was not commercially successful.

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Architecture and Planning (AR)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 ‘My friend and I parted __ the door __ the cabin that I had rented __ the night.’

Choose the option with the correct sequence of words to fill the blanks.

(A) at; of; for

(B) for; at; of

(C) of; for; in

(D) in; of; for

Q.7 Five integers are picked from 0 to 20, with possible repetitions, such that their
mean is 12, median is 18, and they have a single mode of 20.

Ignoring permutations, the number of ways to pick these five integers is _____

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

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Architecture and Planning (AR)

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Q.8 Rishi and Swathi are students of Class 5. Pavan and Tanvi are students of Class 4.
Rishi and Pavan are boys. Swathi and Tanvi are girls. The four students played a
total of three games of chess. The games were played one after another. A player
who lost a game did not participate in any more games. It was observed that:

(i) the first game was the only game where two students of the same class
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(A) Pavan

(B) Rishi
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(D) Tanvi a

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Architecture and Planning (AR)

Q.9 𝑃, 𝑄, 𝑅, 𝑆, 𝑋, and 𝑌 are distinct single-digit whole numbers taking values from
0 to 9.

𝑃𝑄 is a two-digit number with 𝑄 being in the units place and 𝑃 in the tens place.
Similarly, 𝑅𝑆 is a two-digit number.

It is known that 𝑃𝑄 and 𝑅𝑆 are consecutive numbers and
(𝑃𝑄)2 + (𝑅𝑆)2 = 𝑋𝑌𝑃, with 𝑋𝑌𝑃 being a three-digit number.

The value of 𝑌 is __________

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7

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Architecture and Planning (AR)

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Q.10 In the given figure, 𝑃, 𝑄, and 𝑅 are three points on a circle of radius 10 cm
with 𝑂 as its center, ̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅, and ∠𝑃𝑄𝑅 = 45°. The figure is representative.
𝑃𝑄 = 𝑅𝑄
The area of the shaded region 𝑃𝑄𝑅𝑂 is ______________ cm2 .

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(A) 50 a
(B) 25√2

(C) 50√2

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(D) 100
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PART A: COMMON FOR ALL CANDIDATES
Q.11 – Q.28 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 The five elements of Ekistics as defined by C.A. Doxiadis are Nature, Man, Society,
_____________, and Networks.

(A) Shells

(B) Livestock

(C) Wealth

(D) Land

Q.12 An earthquake originates at _____________.

(A) Epicenter

(B) Hypocenter

(C) Gyrocenter

(D) Ground Zero

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Q.13 The figure below shows road accessibility on the X-axis and hierarchy of roads on
the Y-axis. The line which represents their correct relationship is _____________.

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(A) P

(B) Q

(C) R

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Q.14 As per the National Building Code of India 2016, the minimum fire resistance of
service ducts and shafts is _____________ minutes.

(A) 45

(B) 60

(C) 120

(D) 240

Q.15 On a topographic map, increasing spacing between successive contour lines uphill
represents a _____________ slope.

(A) concave

(B) convex

(C) uniform

(D) waning

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Q.16 As per the UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), _____________ aims to
end hunger, achieve food security, improve nutrition, and promote sustainable
agriculture.

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(A) SDG 2
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(C) SDG 6

(D) SDG 11

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Q.17
a to the nearest elementary school is _____________
According to the Neighbourhood
maximum radius for walking
miles.

(A) 0.25
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(B) 0.5

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(D) 1.5

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Q.18 Which of the following is/are the correct order of processes in the water cycle?

(A) Evaporation – Condensation – Precipitation

(B) Precipitation – Infiltration – Interception

(C) Condensation – Percolation – Infiltration

(D) Infiltration – Percolation – Aquifer Recharge

Q.19 As per the Municipal Solid Waste Management Manual by the Central Public
Health and Environmental Engineering Organisation (CPHEEO) published in 2016,
which of the following is/are listed in the 3R principles?

(A) Recover

(B) Recycle

(C) Reduce

(D) Repair

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Q.20 Which of the following is/are vertical(s) in the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
Urban 2.0 (PMAY- U 2.0)?

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In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR)
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(B) Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP)

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(C) a Affordable Rental Housing (ARH)

(D) Beneficiary-led Construction (BLC)

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Q.21
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Which of the following is/are mandatory requirement(s) of an area to be declared
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as ODF++ under the Swachh Bharat Mission of Government of India?

(A) All households have piped water connection.

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All sludge and sewage are safely managed and treated, with no discharge into the
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Q.22 In India, as per the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, which of the
following plans represent(s) tactile tile(s) for assisting mobility of visually impaired
persons?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.23 Which of the following is/are Eco-system Service(s) offered by forests?

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(D) Geo-political

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Q.24 The minimum number of masonry units of size 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm each,
required to construct a solid dry wall of length 3 m, height 2 m, and thickness
0.20 m, is _____________ (in integer).
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A commercial property has a total floor space of 15,000 m2, consisting of
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2/3rd office space and 1/3rd retail space. The parking standards considered in this
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property for office and retail spaces are 6 and 4.5 Equivalent Car Space (ECS)

a per 100 m2, respectively. The total number of ECS required for the retail space in
this property is _____________ (in integer).

Q.26 For a computer lab, a set of furniture has just been purchased at the cost of
Rs. 8,50,000. The useful life of this furniture is 8 years. If the annual depreciation
rate is 15%, then the salvage value of this furniture (in Rs.) is _____________
(rounded off to the nearest integer).

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Q.27 The geometric construction of a golden mean rectangle is shown in the figure below.
It starts with a square ABCD of 1 cm side. Continuing the development of the
golden mean rectangles, the derived length of IJ (in cm) is _____________
(rounded off to three decimal places).

Q.28 If a site of 1,00,000 m2 accommodates 500 dwelling units (DU), then the residential
density (in DU/acre) is _____________ (rounded off to nearest integer).

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Q.29 – Q.49 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.29 Match the following cities in Group–I with their corresponding sun path diagrams
in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II
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New Delhi 1
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R Sydney 3

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(C) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2

(D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 5

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Q.30 Match the following graphical representations in Group–I with their associated
terms in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

P 1 Progression

Q 2 Alternation

R 3 Spatial Tension

S 4 Interlacing

5 Interlocking

(A) P – 5, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1

(B) P – 4, Q – 5, R – 3, S – 2

(C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1

(D) P – 5, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4

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Q.31 Match the following city planning concepts in Group–I with their proponents
in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

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P City Beautiful 1 Robert Owen

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Conservative Surgery 2 Daniel Burnham
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S Garden City 4 Charles Montgomery

5 Ebenezer Howard

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(A) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 4 a

(B) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 5

(C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 5

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(D) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3
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Q.32 Match the following tree species in Group–I with the colour of their flowers
in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

P Cassia fistula 1 Scarlet red

Q Jacaranda mimosifolia 2 Orange

R Erythrina indica 3 White

S Plumeria alba 4 Violet blue

5 Bright yellow

(A) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 2

(B) P – 5, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3

(C) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3

(D) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4

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Q.33 Match the following Books in Group–I with their corresponding Authors
in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

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Silent Spring 1 Rachel Carson
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Q Handbook 2 Madhav Gadgil

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R Small is Beautiful 3 Ramachandra Guha

S The Unquiet Woods 4 Salim Ali and S. D. Ripley

5 E. F. Schumacher
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(A) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2

(B) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 3

(C) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 5

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Q.34 Match the following terms in Group–I with their corresponding descriptions
in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

P VAV 1 Continent-ocean heat balance system

Q DEWAT 2 Public transportation system

R El-Nino 3 Intelligent air conditioning system of building

S BRTS 4 Water supply monitoring system

5 Waste water treatment system

(A) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2

(B) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 3

(C) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 5

(D) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 2

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Q.35 Match the following concepts proposed by Kevin Lynch in Group–I with their
corresponding descriptions in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II
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P Legibility 1 Perception of a complex reality as an
interrelated but single identity
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separate entity that is distinct from other objects

R Structure 3 Quality in a physical object in a cityscape which
gives it a high probability of evoking a strong
image

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S Identity 4 Apparent clarity of the cityscape

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5 Pattern relation of the object to the observer and

ag to other objects in a cityscape

(A) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 2

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(D) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1

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Q.36 Which of the following is/are correct labelling of P, Q, R, S, T with respect to the
illustration of a suspension bridge as shown below?

(A) Q – Stay Cable, R – Pylon, T – Sag

(B) P – Anchorage, S – Pylon, T – Primary Suspended Cable

(C) Q – Stay Cable, R – Stiffening Deck, S – Pylon

(D) P – Stiffening Deck, R – Pylon, T – Primary Suspended Cable

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Q.37 The figure below shows the generic sequence of spaces and direction of movement
of users to and from an operation theatre after entering from a common corridor.
The spaces are marked as P, Q, R, S. Choose the correct option(s).

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Q – Pre-operative, R – Dirty utility, S – Dress change

(B) P – Dress change, Q – Pre-operative, R – Dirty utility

(C) P – Dirty utility, R – Dress change, S – Pre-operative

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(D) P – Dress change, R – Dirty utility, S – Post-operative
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Q.38 Identify from the following, the correct short command key(s) and their respective
application(s) in AutoCAD® software.

(A) AR: Creates multiple copies in rectangular, polar, or path pattern

(B) BRK: Breaks a block or polyline into individual objects

(C) CHA: Bevels the edges of two straight line segments

(D) SXL: Breaks a single object into parts

Q.39 Who among the following is/are the recipient(s) of the Pritzker Architecture Prize
till 2025?

(A) Liu Jiakun

(B) Santiago Calatrava

(C) B. V. Doshi

(D) Charles Correa

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Q.40 Which of the following relationships is/are correct with respect to disaster risk in a
geographical location?

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Risk = Hazard × Vulnerability × Exposure × Capacity
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(B)

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(C) aRisk = (Hazard × Vulnerability × Exposure) / Capacity

(D) Exposure = (Hazard × Vulnerability) / Risk

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Q.41
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Which of the following is/are listed within the responsibilities of Council of
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Architecture (CoA) as per the Architect’s Act 1972?

(A) Maintaining minimum standards of architectural education in India.

(B) Maintaining standards for professional conduct of registered architects.
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Maintaining minimum standards for master plan preparation.
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Regulating building material standards for construction projects
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Q.42 Which of the following is/are correct labelling of P, Q, R, S, T with respect to the
illustration of a section through a given city?

(A) R – Footpath, S – Promenade, T – Mass Rapid Transit Corridor

(B) P – Skywalk, R – Multi-level car parking, S – Promenade

(C) Q – Footpath, R – Mass Rapid Transit Corridor, T – Multi-level car parking

(D) P – Skywalk, Q – Footpath, T – Mass Rapid Transit Corridor

Q.43 A city’s population in 2025 is 1,75,000 and is expected to increase in the next three
decades at a growth rate of 8.5% per decade. In 2055, the estimated per capita
domestic water demand will be 175 litres per day. The total daily domestic water
demand for the city in 2055 (in million litres per day) will be _____________
(rounded off to two decimal places).

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Q.44 The section of a R.C.C. staircase flight is shown in the figure below. Each riser and
tread of the staircase is 150 mm and 300 mm, respectively. The steps are supported
by a 75 mm thick waist slab.

The width of the staircase is 1500 mm. The flight consists of 10 steps. Consider
reinforcement to be 0.75% by volume of the total R.C.C. The density of steel is 7800
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kg/m3. The amount of reinforcement required to construct the staircase flight (in kg)
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is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
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Q.45 A rectangular open concrete drainage channel has base width of 3 m and flow depth
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m of 1.5 m. The channel bed slope is 0.001. If the Manning’s roughness coefficient of
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concrete used in this channel is 0.018, then the average flow velocity of this channel

m (in m/s) is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
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Q.46 A construction project consists of 7 activities. These activities, their connecting
events, and the three PERT times (optimistic, likely, and pessimistic), in days, are
listed in the table below. The project starts on 27th July 2026. Assuming no holidays
for the entire duration of the project except 15th August 2026, the expected date of
completion of the project will be _____________ August 2026 (mention the date in
integer).

Activity Connecting Events Three PERT Times
(in Days)

P 1→2 4–6–8

Q 1→3 5 – 6 – 13

R 2→5 6 – 8 – 22

S 2→3 8 – 11 – 14

T 3→5 2 – 4 – 12

U 3→4 4 – 8 – 18

V 4→5 5 – 7 – 15

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Q.47 A socio-economic survey of a city is planned with a sample size of 1250 persons,
having the same proportion of age and sex distribution of the city population, as given
in the table below. The required number of representative female respondents of the
age group 19 to 40 years, is _____________ (rounded off to nearest integer).

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City Population Distribution (in %)

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Age group (in years)
Male Female
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e m l as
l as 0 to 6 2 1.5
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ag 7 to 18 8.5 6
19 to 25 14.5 13.5
26 to 40 14.5 11
41 to 50 12 8
51 to 60 2.5 2.5
60 + 1.5 2
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Q.48 An existing four storey building of identical floor plans was built by utilizing the
maximum allowable F.A.R. and maximum ground coverage of 50% in a
plot of 500 m2. Due to incentive zoning, the F.A.R. of the plot has been increased
to 2.75. The maximum floor area (in m2) that can now be added to the building
is _____________ (in integer).

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Q.49 The figure below represents the plan and elevation of a square based prism of base
4 cm × 4 cm and height 20 cm. The prism is standing on the horizontal plane (HP)
with its faces making an angle of 45° with the vertical plane (VP). A cutting plane,
perpendicular to VP, divides the prism as shown in the figure below. The surface area
(in cm2) of the vertical faces of the prism below the cutting plane is _____________
(in integer).

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PART B1: FOR ARCHITECTURE CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.50 – Q.56 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.50 The circular opening at the top of a dome is termed as

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Oculus m
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(A)
s e l a
l a ag
(B) agLantern

(C) Rose window

(D) Clerestory

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Q.51 Albedo is the ratio between
a

(A) Sensible Heat and Latent Heat

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m
(B) Reflected Radiation and Insolation
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s e (C) Absolute Humidity and Saturation Point Humidity
g l a
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a (D) Indoor Illumination and Outdoor Illumination

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Q.52 Setting out of the foundation is a process executed

(A) after the foundation excavation

(B) after the foundation concreting

(C) before the foundation excavation

(D) before the placing of plinth beam reinforcement

Q.53 Which of the following statements about the elements of Islamic Architecture is/are
correct?

(A) Mimar is a tower-like structure usually associated with mosques or other religious
buildings.

(B) Mashrabiyya is a wooden grille or grate used to cover windows or balconies.

(C) Mulqaf is a wind-catcher.

(D) Minbar is a type of pulpit usually found in mosques from which prayers and
speeches are given.

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Q.54 Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to temporary
structures during construction?

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(A)
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Centering supports formwork for arches, domes, and slabs.
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(B) Scaffolding provides working platforms for masons.

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(C) a Shoring helps in preventing dampness in buildings.

(D) Underpinning strengthens or deepens foundations.

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Q.55
la
The outdoor and indoor temperature of a room are 18 °C and 22 °C, respectively.
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There is also an internal heat gain of 5 kW. Consider the volumetric heat capacity
of air is 1300 J/m3 degC. Using the ventilation heat flow equation, the estimated rate
of ventilation (in m3/s) is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Assume no other heat gains or losses and no net heat storage in the space.

Q.56 A column transmits a load of 225 kN to a square footing. The safe bearing capacity
of the soil is 100 kN/m2. The minimum length (in m) of the side of this safe square
footing is _____________ (rounded off to one decimal place).
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Q.57 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.57 Match the following Architectural Styles in Group–I with their corresponding
examples in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

P Baroque 1 Hagia Sophia, Istanbul

Q Byzantine 2 Chrysler Building, New York

R Art Deco 3 Seagram Building, New York

S Art Nouveau 4 Palace of Versailles, Versailles

5 Sagrada Familia, Barcelona

(A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 5

(B) P – 4, Q –1, R – 2, S – 5

(C) P – 4, Q – 5, R – 2, S – 1

(D) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 5, S – 3

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Q.58 Match the names of the following historic palaces in Group–I with their
corresponding locations in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

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P Ujjyanta
m 1 Orchha
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m Bhawan .co s e m
s eUmaid l a
ag
Q 2 Jammu

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a R Jehangir Mahal 3 Jaipur

S Hari Niwas 4 Agartala

5 Jodhpur

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(A) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4 a

(B) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 4, S – 2

(C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1

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P – 4, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2
m
(D)

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Q.59 As per the National Building Code of India 2016, match the types of glass in
Group–I with their corresponding descriptions in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

P Reflective glass 1 Prefab unit of glass having an
edge seal that binds the individual
sheets together

Q Tempered fire-resistant glass 2 Glass into which a wire mesh is
embedded during production

R Insulating glass units 3 Rolled glass having a distinct
pattern on one or both sides

S Wired glass 4 Glass with metallic coating
reducing heat gain and glare and
allowing optimum visible light
transmission inside

5 Glass that breaks into granular
fragments, with no large sharp
edges

(A) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 2

(B) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 3

(C) P – 4, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2

(D) P – 1, Q – 5, R – 4, S – 3

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Q.60 Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of steel construction?

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(A) Weathered steel forms a rust-like layer when exposed to weathering.

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(B) Intumescent paints on steel sections improve passive fire protection.

as g l
l a
(C)
agto Castellated steel beam.
For the same weight, steel I-beam has more flexure-bearing capacity in comparison

(D) Outrigger systems provide additional torsional rigidity against lateral loads in tall
structures.

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Q.61 The different parts of a parapet wall and terrace section are labelled as
P, Q, R, S, T. Which of the following is/are correct?

(A) P – Coping, R – Lime terracing, S – Rainwater pipe

(B) Q – Drip course, S – Rainwater pipe, T – Roof slab

(C) P – Vent pipe, Q – Drip course, R – Roof slab

(D) P – Vent pipe, R – Rainwater pipe, T – Roof slab

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Q.62 A building facade has 48 m2 of glazing area. The properties of glass used in the
glazing are as follows:

U-value: 5.2 W/m2 °C

Light to Solar Gain (LSG) Ratio: 1.5
m
o m
Visual Light Transmittance (VLT): 0.6
c m .co
. solar radiation on the glazing is 400 W/m . If the outdoor and indoor se
emtemperatures are 35 °C and 20 °C, respectively, then the total heat gaingla
2
The average
s
akW) through the glazing by conduction and radiation is _____________
set point
l(rounded a
ag(in
off to two decimal places).

Q.63 An overhang beam ABC is loaded with uniformly distributed load (UDL)
throughout its entire span as per the figure below. The intensity of UDL is 12 kN/m.
The bending moment at an intermediate point P (between A and B) is found to be
zero. The length (in m) of the portion AP is _____________ (rounded off to two
m
.co
decimal places).

e m
las
ag

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m .co s em
s e la having efficacy of
A conference room of size 25 m × 12 m is illuminated bygCFL
la 60 lumen/W. The lighting power density (LPD) of thearoom is 12 W/m . If the
Q.64

ag utilization and maintenance factors are 0.8 and 0.5, respectively, then the estimated
2

illumination level (in lux) of the conference room is _____________
(in integer).

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Q.65 The built-up area of a shopping mall is 12,000 m2 and the percentage share of annual
energy consumption from various sources is shown in the table below. The
estimated average monthly solar energy consumption of the building is 10 MW-hr.
The Building Energy Index (BEI) of the shopping mall (in kW-hr/m2/year) is
_____________ (in integer).

Energy source Percentage share of annual energy
consumption

Electricity from grid 52

Diesel for additional power 30

LPG for food court 10

Solar energy 8

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PART B2: FOR PLANNING CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.66 – Q.72 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.66 As per India’s National Transit Oriented Development (TOD) Policy, 2017, radius
of the influence zone around transit stations for developing compact growth centers,
is in the range of _____________ m.
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(A) 300

(B) 500 to 800

(C) 600 to 800

(D) 400 to 600
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Q.67 The data type used in Digital Elevation Model (DEM) is _____________.

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(A) Raster
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c. o(B) s e m
e m Vector
l a
las ag
ag (C) Tabular

(D) Rating

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Q.68 The graph below shows cumulative population (in %) on the X-axis and cumulative
income (in %) on the Y-axis. If A and B are areas as shown in the graph, then the
Gini coefficient is measured as _____________.

(A) A
A+B

(B) A
B

(C) A
B−A

(D) B
A

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Q.69 In India, which of the following missions is/are part of the National Action Plan on
Climate Change (NAPCC), 2008?

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(A) National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Eco-system

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(B) a National Urban Livelihoods Mission

(C) National Water Mission

(D) Swachh Bharat Mission

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Q.70 Which of the following options is/are means of first and last mile connectivity with
respect to urban transit systems?

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(A) Park and Ride

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Intermediate Public Transport
s e
s e g l a
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(D) Intercity High-speed Rail

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Q.71 Based on Greenshield’s model, a speed-density relationship is developed on the data
of a traffic stream. This relationship is represented as v = 75 − 0.03k, where
v (in km/hr) is the mean speed at density k (in vehicle/km). The jam density
(in vehicle/km) of this traffic stream is _____________ (in integer).

Q.72 In a particular year, the status of Consolidated Funds of India is shown in the table
below. For the given data, the fiscal deficit of that year (Rupees in crores)
is _____________ (in integer).

Consolidated Funds of India

Amount Amount
Receipt (Rupees in Expenditure (Rupees in
Crores) Crores)

Revenue 2,65,279 Revenue 3,75,582

Non-debt capital receipt 3,646 Capital 31,295
Recovery of loans and Disbursement of
20,733 38,614
advances loans and advances
Public debt
Public debt 4,36,689 3,21,725
repayment

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Q.73 – Q.81 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.73 Match the following zoning in Group–I with their characteristics in Group–II.

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Group–I Group–II

o m m
c
. based zoning s e
e
P Form
m 1 Strictly segregates different land uses
l a
as
lQ Euclidean zoning ag
ag 2 Provides for urban poor or economically
weaker sections in land use planning

R Inclusionary zoning 3 Regulates the development by assessing
the impacts of land use

S Performance zoning 4 Encourages developers to build
m
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community amenities in lieu of surplus
F.A.R.

s em
g la5 Creates a public realm by guiding the
a building envelope, considering the
community’s unique characteristics

P – 5, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3
(A)
m
m
c. o(B) m.co
m
P – 5, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3
s e
s e g l a
g la (C) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 5 a
a
(D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 5

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Q.74 Match the following strategies in Group–I with their corresponding descriptions
in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

P Transfer of Development Rights 1 Financial support by the
Government for Public-Private-
Partnership projects

Q Betterment Levy 2 Tax imposed on unused or
underdeveloped plots

R Viability Gap Funding 3 Award of additional F.A.R. in
different locations in exchange
of land for public purpose

S Vacant Land Tax 4 One-time fee to recover
investment for enhanced public
infrastructure

5 Fee for land use change from
agriculture to non-agriculture

(A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 5

(B) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 2

(C) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 5, S – 2

(D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2

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Q.75 Match the following types of plans in Group–I with their corresponding scope
in Group–II, in accordance with the URDPFI Guidelines, 2015.

Group–I Group–II
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P Perspective Plan 1 To identify resources for development

m
and plan for settlements, prepared and
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s e l a
ag
regulated by District Planning

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Q Regional Plan 2 To detail sub-city land use plan and
integrate with urban infrastructure

R Development Plan 3 To develop vision and provide policy
framework for urban and regional
development

o m
c
4 . To prepare special area plan for towns
S Local Area Plan
m
e with special development needs
l as
ag 5 To prepare plan for urban areas and
peri-urban areas under the control of
Metropolitan Planning Committee

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m
c. o(A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 2
m.co
m s e
s e g l a
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a
a
(C) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4

(D) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 3

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Q.76 Which of the following is/are correct labelling of P, Q, R, S with respect to the urban
patterns shown below?

(A) P – Organic, R – Linear

(B) P – Organic, Q – Linear

(C) Q – Grid Iron, S – Radial

(D) Q – Organic, R – Radial

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Q.77 Which of the following is/ are passive remote sensing technique(s)?

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(A) Sonar
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(B) Radar
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g la photos ag
(C)
a Aerial

(D) Landsat images

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Q.78 A capital investment of Rs. 60,000 has been made at present, expecting an annual

m
return of Rs. 20,000 at the end of each year for a period of 5 years. If the annual

s e
discount rate is 5%, then the Net Present Value (in Rs.) is _____________ (rounded
off to the nearest integer).
g la
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Q.79 The demand function of a light rail transit system (LRTS) of a city is represented as
Q = 43000 – 850P, where Q is the ridership/day and P is the fare/ride. If the existing
fare of Rs. 30 per ride is reduced to Rs. 25 per ride, then the consequent increased
ridership of the LRTS (in percentage) is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal
places).

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Q.80 In a transport network, all the nodes (represented by A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H) and
their connecting links are shown in the figure below. The values mentioned
alongside the links represent the travel time (in minutes) between nodes. Following
the shortest path, the minimum time required to commute from node A to node G
(in minutes) is _____________ (in integer).

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Q.81 A classified vehicle count was conducted in the midblock of a two-lane one-way
collector road during peak hour (08:00 A.M. – 09:00 A.M.) on a weekday. The
vehicle counts and corresponding passenger car unit (PCU) are shown in the table
below. If the maximum design capacity per lane of that road is 1300 PCU/hr, then
the volume to capacity ratio of that road is _____________ (rounded off to two

m
decimal places).

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.co m
Hourly Vehicle Count
Vehicle Type
m
(08:00 A.M. – 09:00 A.M.)
PCU Value
s e
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a ag
Bus 52 2.50
g l
a Truck 24 3.00

Car 720 1.00

Motorized Two-Wheeler 1050 0.50

Auto Rickshaw 275 0.80

E-Rickshaw om
c. 410 0.80

e m 90
Bicycle
las 0.30

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