GATE 2026 Question Paper Biotechnology (BT)

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GATE 2026
Question Paper ·
Biotechnology (BT)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

GATE 2026 Question Paper Biotechnology (BT)

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 “He often _____ the numbers. False claims are not going to help. Honesty _____
trust”, said the manager.
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Choose the option with the correct order of words to fill the blanks.

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(A) a exaggerates; engenders

(B) excels; encourages

(C) aggravates; alleviates

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(D) diminishes; eliminates

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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.2 In the sequence of tiles shown below, the missing tile indicated by the question
mark should be

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.3 A school has 100 students distributed among 1st to 10th standards.

Based on this, which one of the following statements is always correct?

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(A)
s em
There are at least 10 students who belong to the same standard.
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(B) a There is at least one student in each standard.

(C) There are at most 10 students in 10th standard.

(D) The total number of students from 1st to 5th standards is at least 50.

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Q.4 How many 3-digit numbers can be formed using three distinct single digit prime
numbers?
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(A) 64

(B) 24
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12
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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.5 In a group of students, 10 students like Mathematics, 12 students like English,
4 students like both Mathematics and English, and 6 students like neither
Mathematics nor English. The number of students in the group is ____

(A) 18

(B) 20

(C) 24

(D) 32

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Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 Charity : P :: Retaliation : Q

Choose the appropriate pair of words P and Q that fit the analogy.

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(A)
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P = Parsimonious; Q = Vengeful
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(B) a P = Altruistic; Q = Amicable

(C) P = Resentful; Q = Spiteful

(D) P = Magnanimous; Q = Vindictive

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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.7 A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct a
cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the cube.
Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is correct?

(A) Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

(B) Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

(C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

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Q.8 Consider the cube shown below with its 8 corners labelled a, b, c, d, e, f, g,
and h. The figure is representative. All corners are to be colored such that any two
corners that are connected by an edge must be of different colors. The minimum
number of colors required to achieve this is ________

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(A) 8
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(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 2
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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.9 Four hills H1, H2, H3, and H4 are present in an area. The following observations
are made about them:

i. Neither H2 nor H3 is the easternmost hill.
ii. Neither H2 nor H3 is the westernmost hill.
iii. Neither the easternmost hill nor the westernmost hill is the southernmost
hill.
iv. Two hills are located to the west of H2.
v. The southernmost hill has at least two hills to its east.

The southernmost hill is ________.

(A) H1

(B) H2

(C) H3

(D) H4

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Q.10 As shown in the figure, circle 𝐶1 with center 𝑂1 and radius 𝑟1 touches the square
𝑉𝑊𝑋𝑌 at points 𝑃 and 𝑄 while circle 𝐶2 with center 𝑂2 and radius 𝑟2 touches the
square 𝑉𝑊𝑋𝑌 at points 𝑅 and 𝑆. The two circles touch each other at 𝑇.

̅̅̅̅ = 𝑉𝑊
Given 𝑟1 = 1 cm and 𝑉𝑌 ̅̅̅̅̅ = 4 cm, 𝑟2 = _____ cm.

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m 4 − 3√2
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(A)

m .co s e m
s e (B) 1 + 2√2
g l a
g la a
a (C) 7 − 4√2

(D) 5 + 3√2

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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each (MCQ)

Q.11 𝑥 2 −4
Consider the two functions 𝑓1 (𝑥) = and 𝑓2 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 2. Which of
𝑥−2
the following is the value of (𝑓1 (𝑥) + 𝑓2 (𝑥)) as 𝑥 → 2 ?

(A) 0

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) ∞

Q.12 Which of the following is one of the eigenvalues for the matrix given below?

3 4
[ ]
4 −3

(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 7

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Q.13 Which of the following functions has the highest area under the curve between
𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = 10?

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(A)
m 𝑦 =𝑥+8
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(B) 𝑦 = 3𝑥

g l a
(C) a 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 1

(D) 𝑦 =𝑥+2

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Q.14 Cancer cells display a high level of heterogeneity in the expression of TP53 protein.
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Which of the following techniques can be directly used to determine the intra-
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tumoral heterogeneity of TP53 expression in a given tumor sample, without
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resorting to additional cell separation techniques?
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(A) Immunoblotting

(B) Flow cytometry
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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.15 The transfer function of a Proportional-Integral (PI) controller 𝐺𝐶 (𝑠) is given by

1
𝐺𝐶 (𝑠) = 𝐾𝐶 (1 + )
𝜏𝐼 𝑠

where 𝐾𝐶 is the controller gain, 𝜏𝐼 is the controller integral time constant and s is
the Laplace variable. The role of the integral component of the controller is to
____________.

(A) integrate the difference between the process and manipulated variable

(B) integrate the difference between the set point and disturbance variable

(C) integrate the difference between the set point and the measured variable

(D) integrate the difference between the input and output variable

Q.16 Which of the following enzyme is involved in the protection of cells from reactive
oxygen species?

(A) Hexokinase

(B) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

(C) Enolase

(D) Pyruvate kinase

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Q.17 In nitrogen fixation, to reduce nitrogen to ammonia, which one of the following
shows the correct order of electron flow?

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(A)
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Ferredoxin  reductase  nitrogenase
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NADH  reductase  nitrogenase l a
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(B)

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(C) a Ferredoxin  nitrogenase  reductase

(D) Reductase  NADH  nitrogenase

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Q.18 For monoclonal antibody production, hypoxanthine ____________.

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(A) allows DNA synthesis in the absence of de novo dTMP synthesis

(B) allows purine synthesis in cells containing HGPRT

(C) induces cell fusion

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(D) prevents de novo nucleotide synthesis
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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.19 Which one of the following proteins would elute third in gel filtration
chromatography from a mixture of four proteins given below?

(A) Insulin (6 kDa)

(B) Myoglobin (17 kDa)

(C) Thrombin (37 kDa)

(D) Albumin (66 kDa)

Q.20 Which one of the following antibiotics blocks protein chain elongation by
preventing the action of peptidyl transferase ?

(A) Bleomycin

(B) Rifampicin

(C) Chloramphenicol

(D) Tetracycline

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Q.21 The catalytic efficiency of an enzyme following Michaelis-Menten kinetics is
defined by

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(A) 𝑘Cat
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𝑉max / 𝑘Cat l a
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(B)

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(C) a 𝑘 / 𝐾 Cat M

(D) 𝑘Cat / 𝑉max

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Q.22 The RNA primer synthesized during bacterial DNA replication is removed by
________.
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(A) DNA gyrase

(B) DNA Polymerase I

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(C) Primase

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DNA Polymerase III
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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.23 Match the carbohydrates in Column I with the correct glycosidic linkages involved
in Column II.

Column I Column II

P. Amylose 1. β (1 4)

Q. Sucrose 2. α (1 4)

R. Amylopectin 3. α1 β2

S. Cellulose 4. α (1 4), α (1 6)

(A) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(B) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(C) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(D) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

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Q.24 The correct sequence of the four steps involved in anaerobic production of biogas
from complex organics is:

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(A)
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Hydrolysis  Acidogenesis  Acetogenesis  Methanogenesis
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Methanogenesis  Acetogenesis  Acidogenesis  Hydrolysis l a
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(B)

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(C) a Acidogenesis  Hydrolysis  Methanogenesis  Acetogenesis

(D) Hydrolysis  Methanogenesis  Acidogenesis  Acetogenesis

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Q.25 Which one of the following options represents the products of light reactions of
photosynthesis in plants?
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(A) O2/NADH/H2

(B) O2/NADP+/CO2

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(C) O2/NADPH/ATP

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c. o(D) m.co
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O2/NADP+/ATP
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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.26 Which component of the CRISPR/Cas9 gene editing system is NOT of natural
origin?

(A) CAS9 protein

(B) CRISPR repeats

(C) PAM sequence

(D) sgRNA

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Q.27 – Q.30 Carry ONE mark Each (MSQ)

Q.27 𝑑2𝑦
The equation − 𝑦 = 0 has a solution of the form 𝑦 = 𝑒 𝐴𝑥 . The value(s) of
𝑑𝑥 2
A satisfying this is/are:

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(A)
s e
0
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(B) a 1

(C) -1

(D) -∞

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Q.28
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Which of the following drugs inhibit(s) ATP-ADP translocase?
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(A) Oligomycin

(B) Atractyloside

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(C) Amytal
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e m l as
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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.29 Which of the following is/are extra-cellular matrix protein(s)?

(A) Myosin

(B) Fibronectin

(C) Lamin

(D) Collagen

Q.30 BLAST and its extensions can be used to determine similarity of a query protein
sequence with which of the following database(s)?

(A) A database of translated nucleotide sequences

(B) A database of binding ligands and small translated peptides

(C) A database of protein structures

(D) A database of binding, linking and self-assembling proteins

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Q.31 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each (NAT)

Q.31 The mean of the following series is ______. (rounded off to three decimal places)

0.01, 0.02, 0.03, ⋯ ⋯ , 1

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Q.32 You are characterizing a new enzyme isolated and purified in the laboratory. If the

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maximum velocity of the enzyme is 1800 µmoles L-1 min-1 and the total
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concentration of the enzyme in the reaction mixture is 1.5 µM, then the turnover

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number of the enzyme is _______ s-1. (answer in integer)
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Q.33 To determine the viable cell count of a bacterial culture, you have plated 50 µL of
a 100-fold diluted sample of the culture on a nutrient agar plate and obtained 20
colonies after overnight incubation. The viable cell count of the culture is ______
CFU mL-1. (answer in integer)

Q.34 Given below is the Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) in kilo Joules per electron
m
equivalent (kJ e-eq-1) at pH 7.0, of organic and inorganic half reactions.

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Acetate synthesis:
s
a 1
3 + H +gel → 8 CH3 COO + 8 H2 O ΔG=27.4 kJ e eq
1 1 3
CO2 + HCO− + − − - -1
8 8
a
Reduction reaction:
1 1
O2 + H + + e− → H2 O ΔG= -78.72 kJ e-eq-1
4 2

The free energy change of acetate oxidation to CO2 , H2 O and HCO−
3
is _______ kJ e-eq-1. (rounded off to two decimal places)
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Q.35 You have purified an enzyme using a series of chromatographic methods. It was
observed that a 10 µg mL-1 of this purified enzyme converted 10 mM substrate per
hour at 25°C and pH 7. Its specific activity is _______ IU µg-1. (rounded off to
three decimal places)

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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 – Q.40 MCQ

Q.36 In the open-loop process shown in the figure, the input 𝑈(𝑠), the transfer function
𝐺𝑝 (𝑠) and the output 𝑌(𝑠) are given in the Laplace domain in terms of the Laplace
variable s. For this process, which of the following is true?

(where 𝑀, 𝜏𝑝 , 𝐾𝑃 , are the magnitude of the input, the characteristic time and the gain
for the process, respectively)

(A) 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝐾𝑝 (1 − 𝑒 −𝑡⁄𝜏𝑝 )

(B) 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑀𝐾𝑝 (1 − 𝑒 −𝑡⁄𝜏𝑝 )

(C) 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝐾𝑝 (𝑀 − 𝑒 −𝑡⁄𝜏𝑝 )

(D) 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝐾𝑝 (1 − 𝑀𝑒 −𝑡⁄𝜏𝑝 )

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Q.37 Match the immunological terms in Column I with their function/description in the
Column II

Column I Column II
P. J gene 1. Suppresses immune system by
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blocking calcineurin
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.co m
Q. Cyclosporin 2. Antibody binding site on a large
s e
em
molecule

s 3. Small foreign molecule which elicits gla
l a
R. Epitope
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an immune response only when
combined with a carrier molecule
S. Hapten 4. Contributes to antibody diversity

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(A) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

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(B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
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(C) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(D) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.38 Match the genetic disorders in Column I to the corresponding underlying cause in
Column II

Column I Column II

P. Klinefelter Syndrome 1. X-chromosome insufficiency

Q. Turner syndrome 2. DNA helicase mutations

R. Bloom syndrome 3. Nucleotide excision repair defects

S. Xeroderma pigmentosum 4. Extra X chromosome(s) in a male

(A) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

(B) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(C) P-4; Q-2; R-3; S-1

(D) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

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Q.39 Match the biomolecules in Column I with their function given in Column II

Column I Column II

P. Lectins 1. Acts as ATP dependent pump to efflux out
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small molecules
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Q.
.co
P-glycoprotein 2. Targets lysosomal enzymes to their
s e m
em a
destination
s 3. Specific carbohydrate binding proteins ag
l
g lR.a Digitoxigenin
a S. Mannose 6-phosphate 4. Inhibits Na -K pump + +

(A) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-4
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(B) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2
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(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
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(D) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.40 By elemental analysis of a biomass sample, it was found that the cells in the given
sample are composed of (by weight) C=50%, H=8%, O=20%, N=10% and ash
content=12%. Which of the following is the correct empirical formula of the ash-
free cells, normalized with respect to Nitrogen?

(A) C5.8H11.2O1.7N

(B) C5.0H10.2O1.1N

(C) C6.8H12.2O2.1N

(D) C4.8H9.2O3.1N

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Q.41 – Q.65 MSQ / NAT
Q.41 – Q.45 MSQ

Q.41 For the given matrix, which of the statements given below is/are true?

3 1 5
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[2 −1 0]
m
.co m
5 2 9

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s e l a
g l a ag
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(A) The matrix is full rank

(B) The matrix is invertible

(C) The matrix has a determinant
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(D) The matrix has a transpose

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Biotechnology (BT)

Q.42 Messenger RNAs (mRNAs) translate to generate polypeptides and the translation
terminates at the UGA, UAG or UAA stop codons. The AGA codon acts as
additional stop codon in the mitochondria. The longest possible polypeptide(s) that
can be hypothetically translated in the cytosol and/or mitochondria, from the given
full length mRNA sequence (36 nucleotides) is/are

5'-AACACCAUGACCCAUGUGGCGAGACGGUAGUUAAAA- 3'

(A) 7 amino acids long in the cytosol

(B) 5 amino acids long in the mitochondria

(C) 6 amino acids long in the mitochondria

(D) 8 amino acids long in the cytosol

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Q.43 The RNA sequence below depicts the part of a 330 nucleotides long mRNA and it
encodes the C-terminal portion of a protein.

5'-… … … AAC ACC ACG ACC CAU GUG GCG AGA CGG UAG- 3'

A mutation was identified in this RNA denoted as 322AU. This nucleotide
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change is represented by which of the following class(es) of mutation?
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(A)
a Missense mutation

(B) Non-sense mutation

(C) Transversion mutation

(D) Silent mutation
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Q.44 a grown in a bioreactor with continuous aeration. The
A microbial culture is being
dissolved oxygen probe provided with the system shows a reading of zero. In this
context, which of the following inferences is/are correct?

(A) The culture has died due to absence of oxygen
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The culture has run out of carbon source
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(C) The culture growth becomes oxygen limited

(D) The culture growth is independent of dissolved oxygen

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Q.45 For a Newtonian fluid, a plot of shear stress (on Y axis) against shear rate (on X
axis) will result in a straight line ________.

(A) parallel to the X axis

(B) parallel to the Y axis

(C) with a negative slope

(D) with a positive slope

Q.46 In an aerobic fermentation with air sparging, which of the following options can be
used to increase the volumetric mass transfer coefficient for oxygen transfer?

(A) Using pure oxygen in place of air

(B) Increasing the volumetric flow rate of air

(C) Reducing the bubble diameter

(D) Decreasing the agitation rate

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Q.47 For a liquid flowing in a circular cross section pipe, the transition from laminar to
turbulent flow will NOT depend on which of the following factor(s)?

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(A)
m
The diameter of the pipe
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(B) The length of the pipe

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(C) a The linear velocity of the liquid

(D) The viscosity of the liquid

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Q.48 Which of the following is/are posttranslational modification(s) involved in
epigenetic control of gene expression?
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(A) Arginine methylation

(B) Lysine acetylation

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(C) Cytosine methylation

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Cytosine deamination
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Q.49 For an ideal plug flow reactor, which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) It can be approximated by a large number of ideal continuous stirred tank reactors
connected in series

(B) It has significant back mixing

(C) It has significant axial mixing

(D) It has a uniform velocity profile across any cross section

Q.50 An enzyme-catalyzed reaction is found to have ∆G = −100 kJ mol−1 . Which of
the following statements about this reaction is/are true?

(A) The rate of the reaction cannot be predicted

(B) The rate of the reaction is high

(C) The rate of the reaction is low

(D) The reaction is irreversible

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Q.51 – 65 (NAT)

Q.51 𝑑𝑦 1
Consider the equation =
𝑑𝑥 𝑥
2
The value of the integral ∫1 𝑑𝑦 using trapezoidal method and interval ℎ = 0.25
m
m
is ________. (rounded off to two decimal places)
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m lines given by the following two equations are parallel to each other, las e m
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Q.52 If the straight
theavalue of a is _____. (answer in integer) g
l a
ag 4𝑥 + 7𝑦 = 6; 3𝒂𝑥 + 42𝑦 = 24

Q.53 A straight line 𝑦 = 𝑥 − 1 intersects a circle with center at 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 1 and radius
of magnitude 1 at two points. The length of the chord formed by this intersection is
_______. (rounded off to three decimal places)

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Q.54 A heat exchanger during operation in .a bioprocess has a steady temperature of
o
s em
90 C. After completion of its operation, it was shut down and it was observed that
l a
the rate of decrease of temperature at any time was directly proportional to the
g 𝑇(𝑡) denotes temperature at time 𝑡. It was observed
that it took 30 min for theatemperature to drop to 70 C. The temperature after
difference 𝑇(𝑡) − 30 C, where o
o

51.5 min will be_________ oC. (rounded off to the nearest integer)

Q.55 A microbial culture (following Monod model for growth) has a maximum specific
growth rate of 0.1 h-1, Monod constant of 1 mg L-1 and endogenous decay rate of
0.1 day-1. At limiting substrate concentration of 23 g L-1, the net specific growth rate
will be ________day-1. (rounded off to one decimal place)

o m
c
m A CSTR with a volume of 100 m is operated in cell recycle mode.mAt.a volumetric
c. oQ.56 flow
3

m s e state biomass
a
3 -1 -1
rate of 10 m day and effluent biomass of 20 mg L , the steady
s e -1
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concentration is 200 mg L . The mean cell retention time in the reactor is ____ days.

g (answer in integer) a
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Q.57 The electron equivalent per liter (e-eq L-1) of acetate ion solution of concentration
10 g L-1 is _______ e-eq L-1. (rounded off to one decimal place)

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Q.58 𝑑𝑦
From the following plot of versus 𝑥 and if y(2) = 5, the value of y(3) is
𝑑𝑥
________. (rounded off to one decimal place)

4

3

2

1

0
0 1 2 3
𝑥

Q.59 A batch sterilizer is being operated at 121 oC for sterilizing a medium containing
microbial cells. Assume that the thermal deactivation of cells is a first order process
with a death rate constant of 0.69 min-1 at 121 oC. If the initial concentration of
microbes in the medium is 1010 cells m-3, the time taken to reduce the microbial load
to a final concentration of 10 cells m-3 is _________ min. (rounded off to the nearest
integer)

Q.60 A substrate is consumed in a zero order reaction such that its concentration falls
from 42 g L-1 to 14 g L-1 in 4 hours. The total time taken for complete utilization of
substrate will be ________ hours. (answer in integer)

Q.61 A microbe that follows Monod growth kinetics on a limiting substrate (maximum
specific growth rate of 0.5 h-1 and Monod constant of 0.1 mg L-1) is cultivated in a
continuous reactor for microbial growth (chemostat) with sterile feed. Given that the
chemostat volume is 5 L and inlet concentration of limiting substrate is 10 g L-1, the
minimum inlet feed flow rate for chemostat washout is ______ L h-1. (rounded off
to one decimal place)

Q.62 It is desired to cultivate 150 mg (dry weight) microbial cells with an empirical
formula of C5H7O2N. If the phosphorus requirement for the cells is 20% of the
nitrogen requirement (on a weight/weight basis), the minimum amount of
phosphorous required to be added to the cultivation medium is ________ mg.
(rounded off to one decimal place)

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Q.63 In the process of generating a clonal mammalian cell line, a single cell was seeded
in a well of a cell culture plate. After the first 48 hours, one of the progeny cells
underwent apoptosis due to a new mutation. If the doubling time of the cells is 24
hours and no more cell death occurs, the total number of cells after a total of 7 days
from seeding will be ______. (answer in integer)

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Q.64 A disease-associated allele shows X-linked recessive inheritance. If the mother is a
carrier of the disease, the father is genetically normal and the child born is a son,
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then the probability that he is born with the disease is _______. (rounded off to one
l as
las decimal place)
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Q.65 A packed bed bioreactor with length 1 m and inside diameter 10 cm has liquid
flowing at an interstitial velocity of 1 cm s-1. Given a volumetric flow rate of
0.025 L s-1, the void fraction of the packed bed is ______. (rounded off to two
decimal places)

END OF QUESTION PAPER
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