GATE 2024 Question Paper for Biotechnology (BT)

GATE
2024
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.

General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words

[dry → arid → parched] is analogous to [diet → fast → ________ ].

Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

(A) starve

(B) reject

(C) feast

(D) deny

Q.2 If two distinct non-zero real variables 𝑥 and 𝑦 are such that (𝑥 + 𝑦) is proportional
𝑥
to (𝑥 − 𝑦) then the value of
𝑦

(A) depends on 𝑥𝑦

(B) depends only on 𝑥 and not on 𝑦

(C) depends only on 𝑦 and not on 𝑥

(D) is a constant

Page 1 of 31

Q.3 Consider the following sample of numbers:

9, 18, 11, 14, 15, 17, 10, 69, 11, 13

The median of the sample is

(A) 13.5

(B) 14

(C) 11

(D) 18.7

Q.4 The number of coins of ₹1, ₹5, and ₹10 denominations that a person has are in the
ratio 5:3:13. Of the total amount, the percentage of money in ₹5 coins is

(A) 21%

(B) 2
14 7%

(C) 10%

(D) 30%

Page 2 of 31

Q.5 For positive non-zero real variables 𝑝 and 𝑞, if

log (𝑝2 + 𝑞 2 ) = log 𝑝 + log 𝑞 + 2 log 3 ,

𝑝4 +𝑞4
then, the value of is
𝑝2 𝑞 2

(A) 79

(B) 81

(C) 9

(D) 83

Page 3 of 31

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)−(iv). Select the best match for all the
blanks.

(i) (ii)
Steve was advised to keep his head before heading to bat;
(iii)
for, while he had a head batting, he could only do so with a cool head
(iv)
s his shoulders.

(A) (i) down (ii) down (iii) on (iv) for

(B) (i) on (ii) down (iii) for (iv) on

(C) (i) down (ii) out (iii) for (iv) on

(D) (i) on (ii) out (iii) on (iv) for

Page 4 of 31

Q.7 A rectangular paper sheet of dimensions 54 cm × 4 cm is taken. The two longer
edges of the sheet are joined together to create a cylindrical tube. A cube whose
surface area is equal to the area of the sheet is also taken.

Then, the ratio of the volume of the cylindrical tube to the volume of the cube is

(A) 1/π

(B) 2/π

(C) 3/π

(D) 4/π

Page 5 of 31

Q.8 The pie chart presents the percentage contribution of different macronutrients to a
typical 2,000 kcal diet of a person.

Macronutrient energy contribution

Trans
fat
5%
Saturated fat
20% Carbohydrates
35%

Unsaturated fat
20%
Proteins
20%

The typical energy density (kcal/g) of these macronutrients is given in the table.

Macronutrient Energy density (kcal/g)
Carbohydrates 4
Proteins 4
Unsaturated fat 9
Saturated fat 9
Trans fat 9

The total fat (all three types), in grams, this person consumes is

(A) 44.4

(B) 77.8

(C) 100

(D) 3,600

Page 6 of 31

Q.9 A rectangular paper of 20 cm × 8 cm is folded 3 times. Each fold is made along the
line of symmetry, which is perpendicular to its long edge. The perimeter of the final
folded sheet (in cm) is

(A) 18

(B) 24

(C) 20

(D) 21

Q.10 The least number of squares to be added in the figure to make AB a line of
symmetry is

(A) 6

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 7

Page 7 of 31

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 In adsorption chromatography, the adsorption of uncharged solute molecules onto
a silica-based stationary phase is by ________.

(A) covalent bonds

(B) electrostatic interactions

(C) ionic bonds

(D) van der Waals forces

𝐾𝑝
Q.12 The transfer function of a process is 𝐺(𝑠) =  𝑠+1, where 𝐾𝑝 is the gain and 𝑝 is
𝑝
the time constant. This is a ________ process.

(A) first order

(B) multi-capacity

(C) purely capacitive

(D) second order

Page 8 of 31

Q.13 Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of thermodynamics?

(A) In a closed system, neither mass nor energy is transferred across the system
boundary

(B) In a closed system, both mass and energy can be transferred across the system
boundary

(C) The total energy of the system is the sum of kinetic and potential energies

(D) In a closed system, only energy can be transferred across the system boundary and
not mass

Q.14 Which one of the following statements is correct about Reynolds Number (𝑁𝑅𝑒 ) in
a stirred tank bioreactor?

(A) 𝑁𝑅𝑒 is independent of the viscosity of the medium

(B) In laminar flow, mixing time increases with an increase in 𝑁𝑅𝑒

(C) 𝑁𝑅𝑒 is inversely proportional to the impeller speed

(D) In turbulent flow, mixing time is independent of 𝑁𝑅𝑒

Page 9 of 31

Q.15 The relationship that involves the exchange of nutrients between two different
species for their mutual growth is called ________.

(A) antagonism

(B) commensalism

(C) parasitism

(D) syntrophism

Q.16 Mendel’s ‘law of segregation’ applies to the segregation of ________ during
gamete formation.

(A) mitochondrial genes

(B) alleles of a gene

(C) linked genes on the same chromosome

(D) unlinked genes on the same chromosome

Q.17 Co-translational translocation of proteins is observed in ________.

(A) endoplasmic reticulum

(B) Golgi complex

(C) mitochondria

(D) peroxisomes

Page 10 of 31

Q.18 2-mercaptoethanol breaks the ________ covalent bond between light and heavy
chains of an immunoglobulin molecule.

(A) C-N

(B) N-O

(C) S-C

(D) S-S

Q.19 During normal embryonic development of the mice paw, elimination of cells from
the inter-digital space is due to ________.

(A) apoptosis

(B) meiosis

(C) mutagenesis

(D) necrosis

Page 11 of 31

Q.20 A cultured skin fibroblast cell of a goat ‘P’ was fused with an enucleated ovum of
a goat ‘Q’. The resultant activated early embryo was then transplanted into a
pseudopregnant (surrogate) female goat ‘R’ of the same strain as ‘Q’. On
completion of gestation, a female goat ‘S’ was born. With the exception of
mitochondrial DNA, ‘S’ is a clone of ________.

(A) Only P

(B) Only Q

(C) Only R

(D) Both P and R

Q.21 Which one of the following bacteriophages has a genome composed of single
stranded circular DNA?

(A) ØX174

(B) λ

(C) T5

(D) P1

Page 12 of 31

Q.22 Which one of the following is an insect cell line?

(A) HEK 293

(B) Sf9

(C) DH5α

(D) CHO

Q.23 Which one of the following is the basic principle of Sanger’s DNA sequencing
method?

(A) Chain termination by incorporation of dideoxynucleotides

(B) Chain elongation by incorporation of dideoxynucleotides

(C) Release of inorganic pyrophosphate

(D) Chain cleavage by modification of dideoxynucleotides

Q.24 An element that is present in a nucleotide but not in a nucleoside is ________.

(A) carbon

(B) nitrogen

(C) oxygen

(D) phosphorous

Page 13 of 31

Q.25 Krebs (TCA) cycle is ________ pathway.

(A) only an anabolic

(B) only a catabolic

(C) an amphibolic

(D) a pyogenic

Q.26 If a denatured protein of human origin is injected into a rabbit, antibodies generated
will recognize the ________ structure of the protein.

(A) primary

(B) secondary

(C) tertiary

(D) quaternary

Q.27 All pseudogenes DO NOT code for a ________.

(A) protein with original function

(B) protein with altered function

(C) RNA with coding sequence

(D) RNA with regulatory function

Page 14 of 31

Q.28 A value of 𝑘 for which the linear equations (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 0 and 2𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 = 0
have a non-zero solution is ________.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

𝜋
Q.29 The value of the series 1+ sin 𝑥 + cos2 𝑥 + sin3 𝑥 + ⋯ at 𝑥 = 4 is ________.

(A) 1
√2+1

(B) √2
√2+1

(C) 1
√2−1

(D) √2
√2−1

Page 15 of 31

Q.30 𝑑𝑦 1
The solution of the differential equation 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑦 + 𝑒 −𝑥 that satisfies 𝑦(0) = − 2 is
________.

𝑥
(A) 1
− 2 𝑒 −2

(B) 1
− 2 𝑒𝑥

(C) 1
− 2 𝑒 −𝑥

𝑥
(D) 1
− 2 𝑒2

Q.31 The six faces of a cube (die) are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, and it is rolled once.
An outcome is the observed number on the top face. If the probability of getting an
odd number as an outcome is twice that of an even number, then the probability of
getting a number less than 3 is ________.

(A) 1
9

(B) 2
9

(C) 1
3

(D) 4
9

Page 16 of 31

Q.32 Let 𝑂𝑅 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ be the vector that is perpendicular to the vectors ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑂𝑃 = 2𝑖̂ − 3𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ and
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = −2𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂. If the length of the vector 𝑂𝑅
𝑂𝑄 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ is 𝛼 √3, then 𝛼 is ________.

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Q.33 The degree of reduction (reductance) for oxalic acid (𝐶2 𝐻2 𝑂4) is ________.

Q.34 If the rate at which E. coli divides is 0.5 h-1, then its doubling time is ________ h.

Q.35 The decimal reduction time of a microbe during sterilization at 120 C with a first
order thermal death rate constant of 1 min-1 will be ________ min (rounded off to
1 decimal place).

Page 17 of 31

Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.36 Match the disease (Column I) with its biological vector (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Chagas disease 1. Tsetse flies

Q. Trypanosomiasis 2. Mosquitoes

R. Leishmaniasis 3. Sandflies

S. Yellow Fever 4. Reduviid bugs

(A) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(C) P-1; Q-4; R-3; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

Page 18 of 31

Q.37 Match the industrial enzyme (Column I) with its application (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Lipase 1. Maltose syrup production

Q. Ficin 2. Oil degradation

R. Amylase 3. Oligosaccharide/monosaccharide production

S. Glucosidase 4. Meat tenderization

(A) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

(C) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(D) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

Page 19 of 31

Q.38 Match the enzyme (Column I) with its corresponding function (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Primase 1. RNA dependent RNA synthesis

Q. Reverse transcriptase 2. DNA dependent DNA synthesis

R. RNA Replicase 3. RNA dependent DNA synthesis

S. DNA Polymerase III 4. DNA dependent RNA synthesis

(A) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(B) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(C) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(D) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

Page 20 of 31

Q.39 Match the item (Column I) with its corresponding use (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Glutamine 1. Detachment of adherent cells

Q. Trypsin 2. Selection of transfected mammalian cell lines

R. Hypoxanthine 3. Source of carbon and nitrogen in animal cell
culture media

S. Neomycin 4. A component of medium for selection of
hybridoma in monoclonal antibody production

(A) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(B) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

(C) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

(D) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

Page 21 of 31

Q.40 Match the chemical (Column I) with its use (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Diethylpyrocarbonate 1. Chelation of magnesium ion during
DNA purification

Q. Cesium chloride 2. Prevention of RNA degradation in
aqueous environment

R. Ethidium bromide 3. Separation of DNA by density gradient
centrifugation

S. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid 4. Staining of RNA in agarose gel

(A) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(B) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(D) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

Page 22 of 31

Q.41 Match the item in Column I with the corresponding technique in Column II.

Column I Column II

P. Blue laser 1. Electron microscopy

Q. Tungsten filament 2. Fluorescence activated cell sorting

R. 15N labelled protein 3. Electrophoresis

S. Polyacrylamide 4. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy

(A) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(B) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(C) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(D) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

Page 23 of 31

Q.42 Match the genetic disorder (Column I) with its molecular basis (Column II)

Column I Column II

P. Sickle-cell anemia 1. Mutation in nucleotide excision repair

Q. Xeroderma pigmentosum 2. Trisomy of chromosome 21

R. Tay-Sachs disease 3. Mutation in β-globin gene

S. Down Syndrome 4. Mutation in hexosaminidase A gene

(A) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

(C) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(D) P-4; Q-2; R-3; S-1

Q.43 The evolution of wings in bats and insects is an example of ________ evolution.

(A) convergent

(B) divergent

(C) neutral

(D) parallel

Page 24 of 31

Q.44 Which of the following statements is/are correct about an uncompetitive inhibitor
of an enzyme?

(A) It binds to the substrate binding site of the enzyme only

(B) It binds to the enzyme-substrate complex only

(C) It reduces the Vmax of the enzyme

(D) It binds to both free enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex

Q.45 Which of the following plant-based secondary metabolites belong(s) to the class
of alkaloids?

(A) Ajmalicine (C21H24N2O3)

(B) Azadirachtin (C35H44O16)

(C) Camptothecin (C20H16N2O4)

(D) Vinblastine (C46H58N4O9)

Q.46 Which of the following features help(s) in distinguishing alleles using restriction
fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)?

(A) Differences in the number of recognition sites for a given restriction enzyme

(B) Differences in the ability of alleles to undergo recombination

(C) Differences in the ability of alleles to undergo segregation

(D) Differences in the number of tandem repeats

Page 25 of 31

Q.47 Which of the following is/are considered as biotic elicitor(s) in plant cell culture?

(A) Cellulase

(B) Chitin

(C) Chitosan

(D) Mercuric chloride

Q.48 Under which of the following conditions, a mammalian somatic cell fails to
undergo mitosis during cell cycle?

(A) Initiation of cell plate formation

(B) Incomplete DNA replication

(C) Chiasmata formation

(D) Irreparable DNA damage

Q.49 Which of the following is/are synthetic auxin(s) that does/do NOT occur naturally?

(A) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid

(B) Indole-3-acetic acid

(C) Indole-3-butyric acid

(D) 1-Naphthaleneacetic acid

Page 26 of 31

Q.50 Which of the following statements regarding the below mentioned mRNA
sequence is/are TRUE?

5`-UGAUGAGCCUUAACCGGGAACGAAUUUAAG-3`

(A) It contains nine codons in the reading frame

(B) It contains ten codons in the reading frame

(C) It codes for eight amino acids

(D) It codes for nine amino acids

Q.51 Which of the following conditions induce(s) the expression of
β-galactosidase gene in the lac operon?

(A) Absence of glucose

(B) Absence of lactose

(C) Presence of glucose

(D) Presence of lactose

Page 27 of 31

Q.52 Which of the following factors can affect the growth of a microbial culture in a
batch cultivation process?

(A) pH of the medium

(B) Osmolarity of the medium

(C) Substrate concentration in the medium

(D) Substrate feed rate

Q.53 Under complete cell washout condition in a chemostat with sterile feed, which of
the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Biomass concentration in the reactor is maximum

(B) Substrate concentration in the exit stream is less than that in the inlet stream

(C) Substrate concentration in the exit stream is equal to that in the inlet stream

(D) Substrate concentration in the exit stream is zero

Q.54 Fermentation medium is cooled from 121 C to 30 C in a double pipe heat
exchanger. If cold water is flowing in the counter-current direction and is heated
from 10 C to 70 C, then the Log-Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD) is
________ C (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Page 28 of 31

Q.55 Aspergillus niger is grown in a 10,000 L stirred batch bioreactor under aerated
conditions to produce citric acid. At steady state oxygen transfer conditions, the
specific oxygen uptake rate of the organism and the volumetric mass transfer
𝑔 𝑜𝑥𝑦𝑔𝑒𝑛 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑑 -1
coefficient are 1×10-4 s and 60 min-1, respectively.
𝑔 𝑏𝑖𝑜𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠

If the oxygen solubility is 8×10-3 kg m-3 under the operating conditions, based
only on oxygen dynamics, the maximum possible cell concentration is
________kg m-3 (Answer in integer).

Q.56 Ethanol is produced in a 10,000 L stirred bioreactor using an impeller of diameter
1 m. The density and viscosity of fermentation broth are 1000 kg m-3 and 1 cp,
respectively. The data relating the Power number and Impeller Reynolds number
is given below:

Reynolds number 1-5 5-500 > 105

Power number 70 10 5

Using the above data, the power required for the stirrer to operate at 300 rpm is
________ kW (Answer in integer).

Q.57 The free energy change of ATP hydrolysis at 25 C is -32.2 kJ mol-1. The free
energy change for hydrolysis of α-glycerophosphate to glycerol is -8.2 kJ mol-1 at
25 C. Using the above information, the free energy change for the formation of
α-glycerophosphate from glycerol and ATP is ________ kJ mol-1 (Answer in
integer).

Q.58 E. coli is inoculated in a shake flask containing nutrient rich medium. The initial
number of viable cells in the medium is 102. After few hours, the number of viable
cells is 106. Assuming cell divides by binary fission, the number of generations
that have taken place is ________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Page 29 of 31

Q.59 A fermentor is filled with medium at a rate of 1 L min-1. A leak develops at
the bottom of the fermentor when the medium in the fermentor reaches 200 L.
The rate of medium leakage is 2𝑡 L min-1, where ‘𝑡’ is the time at which the
leak begins.

The volume of medium in the fermentor after 10 min of leakage is ________ L
(Answer in integer).

Q.60 A fed batch process is running at quasi-steady state with respect to substrate and
biomass concentration. At 2 h, the culture volume is 500 L with a constant sterile
inlet feed at 50 L h-1 of glucose. The culture kinetic parameters µ𝑚 and 𝐾𝑆 are
0.2 h-1 and 0.1 g L-1, respectively.

The substrate concentration in the reactor will be ________ g L-1 (rounded off to
one decimal place).

Q.61 Consider scale-up of fungal fermentation from a 20 L model-type to 20,000 L
prototype stirred tank reactor. The model-type and prototype have the same
aspect ratio during scale-up. The impeller speed in the model-type is 500 rpm
and the scale-up criterion is constant shear.

The impeller speed in the prototype reactor will be ________ rpm (Answer in
integer).

Q.62 2 1 2 3
If 𝑣 = (2) is an eigenvector of the matrix (1 2 3) corresponding to the
2 1 2 3
non-zero eigenvalue, 𝜆, then the value of 𝜆 is ________.

Q.63 𝑥 2024
The value of the limit lim 2 ln(1 + ) is ________.
𝑥→∞ 𝑥

Page 30 of 31

Q.64 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
Let 𝑦(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 ln 𝑥 for 𝑥 > 0, be a solution of 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 = 𝛼𝑥 𝑑𝑥 . Then the value
of 𝛼 is ________.

Q.65 1
The absolute relative error in evaluating the integral ∫0 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 by the trapezoidal rule
with the step size 0.25 is ________ % (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Page 31 of 31

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