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GATE 2024 Question Paper for Architecture and Planning (AR)

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Page 1

GATE
2024
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.

Page 2

General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words

[sick → infirm → moribund] is analogous to [silly → _______ → daft].

Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

(A) frown

(B) fawn

(C) vein

(D) vain

Page | 1

Page 3

Q.2 The 15 parts of the given figure are to be painted such that no two adjacent parts
with shared boundaries (excluding corners) have the same color. The minimum
number of colors required is

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 6

Page | 2

Page 4

Q.3 How many 4-digit positive integers divisible by 3 can be formed using only the
digits {1, 3, 4, 6, 7}, such that no digit appears more than once in a number?

(A) 24

(B) 48

(C) 72

(D) 12

Q.4 The sum of the following infinite series is

1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2+ + + + + + + +⋯
2 3 4 8 9 16 27

(A) 11/3

(B) 7/2

(C) 13/4

(D) 9/2

Page | 3

Page 5

Q.5 In an election, the share of valid votes received by the four candidates A, B, C, and
D is represented by the pie chart shown. The total number of votes cast in the
election were 1,15,000, out of which 5,000 were invalid.

Share of valid votes

D
15%
A
C 40%
20%

B
25%

Based on the data provided, the total number of valid votes received by the
candidates B and C is

(A) 45,000

(B) 49,500

(C) 51,750

(D) 54,000

Page | 4

Page 6

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 Thousands of years ago, some people began dairy farming. This coincided with a
number of mutations in a particular gene that resulted in these people developing
the ability to digest dairy milk.

Based on the given passage, which of the following can be inferred?

(A) All human beings can digest dairy milk.

(B) No human being can digest dairy milk.

(C) Digestion of dairy milk is essential for human beings.

(D) In human beings, digestion of dairy milk resulted from a mutated gene.

Q.7 The probability of a boy or a girl being born is 1/2. For a family having only
three children, what is the probability of having two girls and one boy?

(A) 3/8

(B) 1/8

(C) 1/4

(D) 1/2

Page | 5

Page 7

Q.8 Person 1 and Person 2 invest in three mutual funds A, B, and C. The amounts they
invest in each of these mutual funds are given in the table.

Mutual fund A Mutual fund B Mutual fund C

Person 1 ₹10,000 ₹20,000 ₹20,000

Person 2 ₹20,000 ₹15,000 ₹15,000

At the end of one year, the total amount that Person 1 gets is ₹500 more than
Person 2. The annual rate of return for the mutual funds B and C is 15% each. What
is the annual rate of return for the mutual fund A?

(A) 7.5%

(B) 10%

(C) 15%

(D) 20%

Page | 6

Page 8

Q.9 Three different views of a dice are shown in the figure below.

The piece of paper that can be folded to make this dice is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page | 7

Page 9

Q.10 Visualize two identical right circular cones such that one is inverted over the other
and they share a common circular base. If a cutting plane passes through the vertices
of the assembled cones, what shape does the outer boundary of the
resulting cross-section make?

(A) A rhombus

(B) A triangle

(C) An ellipse

(D) A hexagon

Page | 8

Page 10

PART A: Common FOR ALL CANDIDATES
Q.11 – Q.28 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 The nature of curvature of the following structural form is

(A) monoclastic

(B) synclastic

(C) anticlastic

(D) möbius

Q.12 As per the Ekistics Logarithmic Scale, the ‘world city’ is referred as

(A) Megalopolis

(B) Conurbation

(C) Acropolis

(D) Ecumenopolis

Page | 9

Page 11

Q.13 In Mānasāra Silpasāstra, a bow-shaped town plan is known as

(A) Dandaka

(B) Prastara

(C) Kārmuka

(D) Nandyāvarta

Q.14 The value of a property when sold at a lower price than its open market price is
called

(A) Distress Value

(B) Accommodation Value

(C) Speculative Value

(D) Replacement Value

Page | 10

Page 12

Q.15 In a traffic survey, Enoscope is used to measure

(A) Volume to Capacity ratio

(B) Sight distance

(C) Spot speed

(D) Intersection delay

Q.16 The author of the book Human Aspects of Urban Form is

(A) Cliff Moughtin

(B) Amos Rapoport

(C) Peter Katz

(D) Lewis Mumford

Page | 11

Page 13

Q.17 Which of the following statements is correct for Urban Cool Island (UCI)?

(A) The UCI and Urban Heat Island (UHI) cannot happen in a city at the same time.

(B) Air temperature of surrounding rural areas is warmer than that of the urban areas.

(C) Air temperature of surrounding rural areas is cooler than that of the urban areas.

(D) UCI happens only in a snow-clad mountain.

Which of the following statements is correct for an oxidation pond to treat waste
Q.18
water?

(A) It is an aerobic pond.

(B) It is an anaerobic pond.

(C) It does not require sunlight.

(D) It does not remove Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD).

Page | 12

Page 14

Q.19 The conservation architect of the Maitreya Buddha Temple at Basgo, Ladakh which
won the 2007 UNESCO Asia-Pacific Heritage Award is

(A) Abha Narain Lambah

(B) Vinod Kumar M. M.

(C) Rahul Mehrotra

(D) Saima Iqbal

Q.20 Which of the following options is/are the right sequence(s) in water treatment
process?

(A) Coagulation → Flocculation → Sedimentation

(B) Sedimentation → Filtration → Disinfection

(C) Sedimentation → Flocculation → Coagulation

(D) Disinfection → Filtration → Flocculation

Page | 13

Page 15

Q.21 Which of the following is/are associated with Gentrification in a neighbourhood?

(A) Wealthier households displace poor households

(B) Poor households displace wealthier households

(C) Real estate value increases

(D) Real estate value decreases

Q.22 Which of the following sites is/are included in the UNESCO World Heritage
List as on December 2022?

(A) Capitol Complex, Chandigarh

(B) Moth ki Masjid, Delhi

(C) Keoladeo National Park, Bharatpur

(D) Paradesi Synagogue, Kochi

Page | 14

Page 16

Q.23 The reference points, lines and planes for drawing a two-point perspective of an
object are marked in the Figure below. Select the correct option(s) that match(es)
with the corresponding nomenclature.

(A) R – Station point, S – Picture plane

(B) R – Vanishing point, T – Picture plane

(C) P – Vanishing point, T – Ground line

(D) Q – Ground line, S – Horizon line

Page | 15

Page 17

Q.24 India’s intended Nationally Determined Contribution to the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change in 2022 include(s)

(A) reduction of emissions intensity of India’s GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 level

(B) achieving about 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil
fuel-based energy resources by 2030

(C) achieving the target of net-zero emission by 2030

(D) reduction of total projected carbon emission by one billion tonnes from 2022 to
2025

Q.25 As per the Census of India 2011, non-notified slums is/are categorised as

(A) Recognised

(B) Identified

(C) Unrecognised

(D) Authorised

Page | 16

Page 18

Q.26 Which of the following is/are under the purview of the Energy Conservation
Building Code of India 2017 ?

(A) Indoor Lighting

(B) Outdoor Lighting

(C) Plug Loads

(D) Embodied Energy

Q.27 Which of the following is/are used for municipal fiscal resource mobilisation?

(A) Property tax

(B) Development charges

(C) Income tax

(D) Salary of municipal staff

Q.28 A ramp with a slope of 1:12 is required for wheelchair access. Intermediate landings
of length 1.5 m each have to be provided after every 9 m running length. The
running length of a straight ramp including landing, to negotiate a level difference
of 900 mm vertical height, in m, is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal
places).

Page | 17

Page 19

Q.29 – Q.49 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.29 Match the features in Group–I with the corresponding software tools in
Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

(P) Raster Graphics Editing (1) OpenStudio

(Q) Energy Modeling (2) GIMP

(R) Visual Programming Interface (3) STAAD

(S) Structural Analysis (4) Grasshopper

(5) Radiance

(A) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 5

(B) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3

(C) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 2

(D) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 3

Page | 18

Page 20

Q.30 Match the elements in Group–I with the corresponding buildings in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

(P) Lightweight Structure (1) Taipei 101, Taipei by Lee and Wang

The Gherkin, London by Foster &
(Q) Base Isolator (2)
Partners

Museum of New Zealand Te Papa
(R) Tuned-mass Damper (3)
Tongarewa, Wellington by Ivan Mercep

Paper Log Houses, Kobe by Shigeru
(S) Diagrid (4)
Ban
Metropolitan Cathedral of Christ the
(5) King, Liverpool by Lutyens and
Gibberd

(A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 4

(B) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2

(C) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 5, S – 2

(D) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 5

Page | 19

Page 21

Q.31 Match the following concepts in Group–I with their corresponding description in
Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

Affording a clear view of the waterfront to a
(P) NIMBY (1)
plot through the abutting street

Planning and zoning tool to regulate
(Q) Form based code (2)
development primarily through urban form

Establishment of residential areas on the
(R) Tactical urbanism (3)
outskirts of a city

Short-term, low cost, scalable interventions
(S) Suburbanisation (4)
and policies to change a neighbourhood
Resisting any physical intervention by public
(5) or private enterprises within their
neighbourhood

(A) P – 5, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3

(B) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 2

(C) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 5

(D) P – 1, Q – 5, R – 4, S – 3

Page | 20

Page 22

Q.32 Match the urban renewal projects in Group–I with the corresponding cities in
Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

(P) Cheonggyecheon (1) New York

(Q) The High Line (2) London

(R) False Creek South (3) Seoul

(S) Canary Wharf (4) Vancouver

(5) Tokyo

(A) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2

(B) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2

(C) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3

(D) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 4, S – 3

Page | 21

Page 23

Q.33 Match the Biosphere Reserves in Group–I with their corresponding features in
Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

(P) Gulf of Mannar (1) Ridge, Glacier

Sub-tropical/Tropical Forest,
(Q) Sunderbans (2)
Stepped Hill

(R) Nanda Devi (3) Swamp forest, Mangrove

(S) Nilgiri (4) Coral Reefs, Seagrass bed

(5) Salt Marsh, Flat Terrain

(A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 5

(B) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2

(C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2

(D) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 5

Page | 22

Page 24

Q.34 Match the terminologies in Group–I with their descriptions in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II
Rapid expansion of geographical
(P) Edge City (1)
areas of towns or cities
(Q) Synekism (2) Violence against the city
A secondary CBD on the edge of
(R) Urbicide (3)
the city
(S) Urban Sprawl (4) Rebuilding core city area
Union of several small urban
(5)
settlements under one rule

(A) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 2, S – 1

(B) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 5

(C) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 3, S – 1

(D) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1

Page | 23

Page 25

Q.35 Match the items in Group–I with their corresponding items in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II
(P) Floating floor (1) Overflow control
(Q) Float valve (2) Delay not affecting a project
(R) Metal float (3) Acoustical buffer
(S) Free float (4) Plastering equipment
(5) Traffic flow control

(A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1

(B) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 4

(C) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2

(D) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 5, S – 4

Page | 24

Page 26

Q.36 As per the URDPFI Guidelines 2015, match the type of educational facilities in
Group–I with the corresponding minimum population to be served per facility
in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II
(P) Integrated school (1) 4,000
(Q) Senior secondary school (2) 2,500
(R) College (3) 90,000
(S) Primary school (4) 1,25,000
(5) 7,500

(A) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1

(B) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 4, S – 1

(C) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 3

(D) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 5

Q.37 Which of the following statements is/are true?

Physiological Equivalent Temperature is used in outdoor thermal comfort
(A)
evaluation.

Thermal Performance Index is computed using outside surface temperature of
(B)
building envelope.

(C) Reynolds number less than 2000 refers to laminar wind flow.

(D) Reynolds number greater than 4000 refers to turbulent wind flow.

Page | 25

Page 27

Q.38 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Yellow, blue-violet and red-violet are split complementary hues.

(B) Orange, green and violet are analogous combinations.

(C) CMYK is a subtractive colour system.

(D) Blue, green, orange and red are tetrad combinations.

Q.39 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) The Royal Botanical Garden is in Kew, England.

(B) The Villa d’Este is in Tivoli, Italy.

(C) Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden is in Srinagar, J&K, India.

(D) Shinjuku Gyoen National Garden is in Beijing, China.

Page | 26

Page 28

Q.40 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Hibiscus or china rose (Hibiscus rosa-sinensis) is a shrub which has red, pink, white,
and yellow blossoms.

(B) Frangipani, champa, and plumeria alba are names of the same flowering tree.

(C) Jacaranda (Jacarenda mimisifolia), gulmohar (delonix regia), and amaltas
(laburnum) are flowering trees.

(D) The fruit of the Kadam/cadamba tree (Neolamarckia cadamba) is conical in shape
and poisonous for humans.

Q.41 Which of the following is/are component(s) of Right of Way (RoW) of a road?

(A) Building line

(B) Kerb

(C) Carriageway

(D) Sidewalk

Page | 27

Page 29

Q.42 As per the National Building Code of India 2016, terminologies associated with fire
fighting in a building is/are

(A) Refuge area

(B) Water sprinkler system

(C) Panic bar

(D) Atrium

Q.43 For the beam shown below, ignoring the self-weight, the maximum hogging
moment (in kN⋅m) generated for the loads indicated is _____________ (rounded
off to one decimal place).

At present, the cost of a new office equipment is 50,000 (in Indian Rupees). It has
Q.44 15% salvage value after a useful life of 5 years. Using straight line method of
depreciation, the book value of the equipment 3 years from now, in Indian Rupees,
will be _____________ (in integer).

Page | 28

Page 30

Q.45 The network diagram of a construction project is shown in the following Figure. The
duration of each activity, in days, and the early start time of the project are denoted
in the diagram. The total project duration along the critical path, in days,
is _____________(in integer).

Q.46 The design of a 1200 capacity concert hall considers 1/3rd female audience and
2/3rd male audience. The Table below shows the guideline for calculating
Water Closet requirements.

Fixture Male Female

Water closet 1 number per 100 up to 400 and 3 numbers per 100 up to 200
over 400, 1 number for every population and over 200,
250 or part thereof 2 numbers for every 100 or part
thereof

Using the above guideline, the number of Water Closets required for the
total audience is _____________ (in integer).

Page | 29

Page 31

Q.47 A declining Industrial Town has proposed to improve water sustainability by
reducing stormwater runoff through change of land use land cover (LULC), as
shown in the Table below, to attract new residents.

Runoff Existing Area Proposed Area
LULC
Coefficient in hectare in hectare
Industrial 0.7 1500 800

Residential 0.5 1000 1200

Park and Playgrounds 0.25 1200 1000

Forest 0.15 300 1000

Considering a flat topography and zero additional runoff from the adjoining areas,
the reduction in run-off generation for a 400 mm rainfall event in the industrial town
for the proposed intervention, in cubic meters, is __________×106 (rounded off to
two decimal places).

Q.48 A real estate developer is developing a township on a PPP mode. The total area of
the site is 2.672 hectares with an allowable FAR of 2.25, of which 20% is earmarked
for MIG category. The gross area of each MIG unit including common areas and
services is 72 m2. Assuming super built up area to be same as FAR, the
maximum number of MIG apartments that can be constructed
is _____________ (in integer).

Q.49 A municipal town requires a volume of 70,000 m3 compacted solid waste to fill a
low lying land. The city has a total of 10,000 households.

Type of Percentage of Equivalent volume of compacted solid
House Households waste generated/ household/ day
LIG 30% 0.10 m3
MIG 60% 0.15 m3
HIG 10% 0.20 m3

Using the information as shown in the Table above, the estimated minimum number
of days required to fill the low lying land is _____________ (in integer).

Page | 30

Page 32

PART B1: FOR Architecture CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.50 – Q.56 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.50 Rose window is a characteristic feature of

(A) Great Temple of Ammon, Karnak, Egypt

(B) Temple of Jupiter, Baalbek, Lebanon

(C) Notre-Dame, Paris, France

(D) Humayun Tomb, Nizamuddin, Delhi

Page | 31

Page 33

Q.51 The schematic diagram of a unitary air-conditioner operating in cooling mode, is
shown in the following Figure. The component P marked in the figure represents

(A) Condenser

(B) Evaporator

(C) Compressor

(D) Expansion valve

Q.52 Titan Integrity Campus, Bengaluru is designed by

(A) Christopher C. Benninger

(B) Sanjay Mohe

(C) Raj Rewal

(D) Anant Raje

Page | 32

Page 34

Q.53 With reference to the Figure below, which of the following labelling is/are correct?

(A) P – Extrados, Q – Key , R – Span

(B) Q – Key, S – Abutment, T – Rise

(C) P – Abutment, R – Rise, T – Extrados

(D) Q – Key, S – Span, T – Extrados

Page | 33

Page 35

Q.54 Which of the following buildings has/have pendentives as a structural element?

(A) St. Mark’s Basilica, Venice, Italy

(B) Westminster Cathedral, London, UK

(C) Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu, India

(D) Hagia Irene Museum and Concert Hall, Istanbul

Q.55 Polytetrafluroethylene (PTFE) coated fiberglass has been used as a roofing
membrane in

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi

(B) Eden Gardens Stadium, Kolkata

(C) Melbourne Cricket Ground Stadium, Melbourne

(D) Beijing National Stadium, Beijing

Page | 34

Page 36

Q.56 A non-stop express elevator directly connects the observatory level at 80th floor of
a tower with the podium at 2nd floor level. The tower has a uniform floor-floor
height of 4 m. The elevator attains a maximum speed of 8 m/s. Assume 2 m/s2 as
net vertical acceleration and net vertical deceleration (incorporating gravity). If the
elevator starts from a state of rest from the podium, the time taken to reach the
observatory, in seconds, is _____________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Page | 35

Page 37

Q.57 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.57 Match the elements in Group–I with the corresponding religious buildings in
Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

(P) Bell capital (1) Mosque

(Q) Mehrab (2) Hindu Temple

(R) Gopuram (3) Greek Temple

(S) Pediment (4) Romanesque Church

(5) Egyptian Temple

(A) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3

(B) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 5, S – 4

(C) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 2

(D) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3

Page | 36

Page 38

Q.58 Match the museums in Group–I with their architects in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

Indira Gandhi Rashtriya
(P) (1) Charles Correa
Manav Sangrahalaya, Bhopal

(Q) Bihar Museum, Patna (2) Ram Sharma

Gandhi Memorial Museum,
(R) (3) Romi Khosla
Ahmedabad

Museum of Art and Soumitro Ghosh & Nisha
(S) (4)
Photography, Bengaluru Mathew

(5) Fumihiko Maki

(A) P – 4, Q – 5, R – 3, S – 1

(B) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2

(C) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4

(D) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 4

Page | 37

Page 39

Q.59 Match the specially shaped bricks in Group–I with their corresponding
nomenclature in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

(P) (1) Plinth Header

(Q) (2) Bird’s mouth

(R) (3) Squint

(S) (4) Double cant

(5) Plinth stretcher

(A) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 1

(B) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1

(C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 2

(D) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 5

Page | 38

Page 40

Q.60 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) The unit of Lighting Power Density is W/m2.

(B) The unit of Lighting Power Density is cd/m2.

(C) The unit of Sound Power is W.

(D) The unit of Energy Performance Index is kWh/m2/year.

Q.61 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Kath-kuni construction comprises layers of stone and timber.

(B) Nālukettu houses have a courtyard.

(C) Ikra is a two-storeyed house with stone masonry and a flat-roof.

(D) Bhunga has a circular plan.

Page | 39

Page 41

Q.62 A 5 m long Aluminium tie rod of cross-section 0.20 m × 0.04 m is subjected to a
tensile force induced by its self-weight of 21.20 kg/m considering gravitational
acceleration of 10 m/s2. If tensile Young’s modulus of Aluminium is
70,000 MPa, the maximum tensile strain in the rod is _____________×10–6
(rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.63 The following Figure shows the excavation plan of a two room structure, where the
trench has a uniform width of 1.10 meters. If the cumulative centre line length of
the trench is 41.10 meters and the required depth of concrete to be poured is 0.30
meters, the volume of concrete in foundation, in cubic meters, will be
_____________(rounded off to two decimal places).

Page | 40

Page 42

Q.64
The decay of sound in an enclosed lecture hall of volume 3500 m3 is shown in the
Figure below. The sound source is switched off at point P. Using the Reverberation
Time (RT60) obtained from the figure, the calculated total sound absorption of the
hall, in Sabins, is _____________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.65 A 2 TR window air-conditioner of Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER) 3.1 is catering to
a room of volume 40 m3. The air-conditioner is operational for 600 hours during
summer on cooling mode. The compressor is also operational for the complete
duration. The total energy consumption of the air-conditioner during the above
mentioned period, in kWh, is _____________ (rounded off to nearest integer).

Page | 41

Page 43

PART B2: FOR Planning CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.66 – Q.72 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.66 Which of the following aims is set under the SVAMITVA scheme of the
Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India?

(A) Provide tap water connection to all households in rural areas.

(B) Provide ‘right to work’ to the rural people falling Below Poverty Line.

(C) Establish clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping
of land parcels using improvised technology.

(D) Provide effective and efficient institutional platforms to enable the rural poor to
increase their household income by means of sustainable livelihood enhancement.

Q.67 Mass Rapid Transit System is a

(A) Fixed Route and Fixed Schedule service.

(B) Fixed Route and Flexible Schedule service.

(C) Flexible Route and Fixed Schedule service.

(D) Flexible Route and Flexible Schedule service.

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Page 44

Q.68 Which of the following initiatives of the Government of India is also known as the
National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity?

(A) PM Gati Shakti

(B) Bharatmala

(C) Parvatmala

(D) Sagarmala

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Page 45

Q.69 With reference to the Speed-Density diagram given below, which of the following
statements is/are correct?

(A) Point P represents Maximum Flow

(B) Point P represents Jam Density

(C) Point Q represents Space Mean Speed for Free Flow condition

(D) Point Q represents Time Mean Speed

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Page 46

Q.70 Which of the following statements correctly represent(s) the
Demographic dividend of a country?

(A) Share of working age population is larger than dependent population.

(B) Share of working age population is lesser than dependent population.

(C) Demographic dividend demands more job creation.

(D) Demographic dividend can never lead to demographic disaster.

Q.71 As per the URDPFI Guidelines 2015, choose the option(s) which indicate(s) the
appropriate hierarchy of plans from higher to lower order.

(A) Perspective Plan > Development Plan > Local Area Plan

(B) Development Plan > Special Purpose Plan > Annual Plan

(C) Local Area Plan > Development Plan > Annual Plan

(D) Special Purpose Plan > Perspective Plan > Local Area Plan

In 2021, a city survey report revealed a sex ratio of 930 with an estimated increase
Q.72 of 2.16% over the next 20 years. In 2041, the total population of the city is projected
to be 15,00,000. The estimated female population in the year 2041
will be ____________ (in integer).

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Page 47

Q.73– Q.81 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.73 Match the terms in Group–I with their descriptions in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

Development on previously
(P) Landfill site (1)
developed site

(Q) Greenfield development (2) Land to dispose solid waste

Development on previously
(R) Green Belt (3)
undeveloped land

(S) Brownfield development (4) Policy to protect livestock

A buffer to control urban
(5)
development

(A) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4

(B) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 2, S – 1

(C) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 1

(D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 2

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Page 48

Q.74 Match the following illustrations in Group–I with their corresponding concepts in
Group–II.

Group–I Group–II
(P)

(1) Figure Ground
Relationship

(Q)

(2) Town Planning
Scheme (TPS)

(R)
(3) Transit Oriented
Development (TOD)

(S)

(4) Transferable
Development Rights
(TDR)

(5) Cul-de-Sac

(A) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2

(B) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 2, S – 4

(C) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 2

(D) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 5

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Page 49

Q.75 Match the following planning theories/concepts in Group–I with their
corresponding proponents in Group–II.

Group–I Group–II

(P) Valley Section (1) McGee and Gemburg

(Q) Third Place Theory (2) Oscar Newman

(R) Defensible Space (3) Ray Oldenberg

(S) Desakota Model (4) Patrick Geddes

(5) C. A. Doxiadis

(A) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1

(B) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1

(C) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 2

(D) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 5

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Page 50

Q.76 Which of the following methods is/are used in traffic survey to measure the Running
Speed and Journey Speed?

(A) Moving Observer Method

(B) Registration Number Method

(C) Elevated Observer Method

(D) Hardy Cross Method

Q.77 In the context of regional planning, which of the following terms
represent(s) a region?

(A) Formal

(B) Functional

(C) Isometric

(D) Planning

Q.78 In a one-way single lane traffic stream, the observed average time headway
is 2.5 seconds. The traffic flow of the above mentioned lane, in vehicle/hr,
is _____________(in integer).

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Page 51

Q.79 The demand of a EcoCity theme park is estimated as P = 1500 − 7.5Q,
where P (in Indian Rupees) is the price of a ticket for single entry, and Q (in integer)
is the number of tickets sold per hour. The maximum revenue per hour along the
demand curve, in Indian Rupees, is _____________(in integer).

Q.80 Labour supply and urban growth are represented in X and Y axis of the Figure
below. Curve OP represents the relationship between labour supply and urban
growth.
The ratios A:A’ and B:B’ are 1:1.2 and 3:1.2, respectively.

If 6 units of labour is supplied in B, then the number of units of urban growth in B’
will be _____________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.81 A city with a present population of 1,75,000 is expecting an annual population
growth rate of 0.85%. In a traffic assessment study, the trip generation model has
been developed as Y = 142 + 0.675X, where Y is the number of daily trips generated
within the city and X is the population of the city. The number of daily trips to be
generated within the city after 10 years is _____________(in integer).

Page | 50

Page 52

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Document Details

Board / OrgIIT
ExamGraduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages52
Updated30 Apr 2026