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GATE
2024
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.
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General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words
[sick → infirm → moribund] is analogous to [silly → _______ → daft].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?
(A) frown
(B) fawn
(C) vein
(D) vain
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Q.2 The 15 parts of the given figure are to be painted such that no two adjacent parts
with shared boundaries (excluding corners) have the same color. The minimum
number of colors required is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
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Q.3 How many 4-digit positive integers divisible by 3 can be formed using only the
digits {1, 3, 4, 6, 7}, such that no digit appears more than once in a number?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 72
(D) 12
Q.4 The sum of the following infinite series is
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2+ + + + + + + +⋯
2 3 4 8 9 16 27
(A) 11/3
(B) 7/2
(C) 13/4
(D) 9/2
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Q.5 In an election, the share of valid votes received by the four candidates A, B, C, and
D is represented by the pie chart shown. The total number of votes cast in the
election were 1,15,000, out of which 5,000 were invalid.
Share of valid votes
D
15%
A
C 40%
20%
B
25%
Based on the data provided, the total number of valid votes received by the
candidates B and C is
(A) 45,000
(B) 49,500
(C) 51,750
(D) 54,000
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Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 Thousands of years ago, some people began dairy farming. This coincided with a
number of mutations in a particular gene that resulted in these people developing
the ability to digest dairy milk.
Based on the given passage, which of the following can be inferred?
(A) All human beings can digest dairy milk.
(B) No human being can digest dairy milk.
(C) Digestion of dairy milk is essential for human beings.
(D) In human beings, digestion of dairy milk resulted from a mutated gene.
Q.7 The probability of a boy or a girl being born is 1/2. For a family having only
three children, what is the probability of having two girls and one boy?
(A) 3/8
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/2
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Q.8 Person 1 and Person 2 invest in three mutual funds A, B, and C. The amounts they
invest in each of these mutual funds are given in the table.
Mutual fund A Mutual fund B Mutual fund C
Person 1 ₹10,000 ₹20,000 ₹20,000
Person 2 ₹20,000 ₹15,000 ₹15,000
At the end of one year, the total amount that Person 1 gets is ₹500 more than
Person 2. The annual rate of return for the mutual funds B and C is 15% each. What
is the annual rate of return for the mutual fund A?
(A) 7.5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
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Q.9 Three different views of a dice are shown in the figure below.
The piece of paper that can be folded to make this dice is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.10 Visualize two identical right circular cones such that one is inverted over the other
and they share a common circular base. If a cutting plane passes through the vertices
of the assembled cones, what shape does the outer boundary of the
resulting cross-section make?
(A) A rhombus
(B) A triangle
(C) An ellipse
(D) A hexagon
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Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 Among the following, the compound with the lowest CO stretching frequency is
(A) [Mn(CO)6 ]+
(B) [V(CO)6 ]−
(C) [Cr(CO)5]
(D) [Cr(dien)(CO)3] (dien: diethylenetriamine)
Q.12 The ground state of [Cr(H2O)6]2+ is
5
(A) Eg
5
(B) T2g
6
(C) A1g
6
(D) A2g
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Q.13 The reaction of XeF2 with HN(SO2F)2 at 273 K in CF2Cl2 solvent yields
(A) XeF4 + SO2 + NH3
(B) Xe + SO2 + N2 + HF
(C) SOF2 + XeO2 + NH3
(D) FXeN(SO2F)2 + HF
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Q.14 The major product in the following reaction sequence is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.15 Among the following, the chiral compound is
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
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Q.16 The major product in the given reaction sequence is Q. The mass spectrum of Q
shows
([M] = molecular ion peak)
(A) [M], [M+2], [M+4], and [M+6] peaks with relative intensity of 1:1:1:1
(B) [M], [M+2], [M+4], and [M+6] peaks with relative intensity of 1:3:3:1
(C) [M], [M+2], and [M+4] peaks with relative intensity of 1:2:1
(D) [M] and [M+2] peaks with relative intensity of 1:1
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Q.17 The product M in the following reaction is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.18 Critical micellar concentration of a surfactant is 0.008 M in water at 25 °C. If the
aggregation number of the micelles is 80, the concentration of the micelles (in M)
present in 0.088 M aqueous solution of the surfactant at 25 °C is
(A) 0.010
(B) 0.001
(C) 0.008
(D) 0.088
Q19 The order and the number of classes present in a group with the irreducible
representations A1, A2, B1, B2, E1, and E2, are, respectively,
(A) 6 and 6
(B) 12 and 6
(C) 6 and 3
(D) 12 and 3
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Q20 The molecule XY2 is microwave active and its vibration-rotation spectrum shows
only P and R transitions. In the correct structure,
(A) X is the central atom in linear XY2.
(B) X is the central atom in bent XY2.
(C) Y is the central atom in linear XY2.
(D) Y is the central atom in bent XY2.
Q21 The complex(es) with distorted octahedral structure is (are)
(A) [VF6 ]3−
(B) [FeF6 ]3−
(C) [MnF6 ]3−
(D) [Fe(CN)6 ]4−
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Q.22 The compound(s) which show(s) the perovskite structure in solid state is (are)
(A) CaTiO3
(B) NiFe2O4
(C) Fe3O4
(D) CsPbI3
Q.23 Among the following metalloproteins, the pair(s) of non-heme proteins is (are)
(A) Hemoglobin and Myoglobin
(B) Hemocyanin and Carboxypeptidase
(C) Hemerythrin and Carbonic anhydrase
(D) Cytochrome P-450 and Hemocyanin
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Q.24 The reaction(s) that yield(s) X as the major product is (are)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.25 The reaction(s) that yield(s) 2-methylquinoline as the major product is (are)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.26 The correct statement(s) for decalin is (are)
(A) cis-Decalin is thermodynamically less stable than trans-decalin.
(B) cis-Decalin contains plane of symmetry.
(C) trans-Decalin undergoes ring inversion.
(D) trans-Decalin belongs to the point group of C2h.
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Q.27 The correct statement(s) about 4D5/2 state of an atom is (are):
(A) it corresponds to 𝐿 = 2, 𝑆 = 1/2, and 𝐽 = 5/2.
(B) it can originate from s1p2 electronic configuration.
(C) it splits into five levels in the presence of magnetic field.
(D) it can show spectral transition to 4P3/2 state.
Q.28 The correct statement(s) related to an ensemble is (are):
(A) an ensemble is a collection of an infinite number of imaginary
replications of the system of interest.
(B) all members of an ensemble are macroscopically identical and also have
identical microstates.
(C) an ensemble average of any macroscopic property of the system is
equal to the value of the property averaged over a sufficiently long time.
(D) all systems in a canonical ensemble need NOT have the same
composition.
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Q.29 The non-dissociative adsorption of a gas on a given surface at a fixed temperature
follows Langmuir isotherm. The plot(s) which give(s) a straight line is (are)
[Given: 𝑉 = volume of the adsorbed gas, 𝑃 = pressure of the gas]
(A) 1/𝑉 versus 1/𝑃
(B) 𝑃/𝑉 versus 𝑃
(C) 𝑉 versus 𝑃
(D) 𝑉 versus 1/𝑃
Q.30 The crystal field stabilization energy of [Cr(NH3)6]3+ with Δ0 value of
21600 cm−1 is y cm−1 . The value of |y| is___.
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
Q.31 The number of metal-metal bond(s) in the complex [(5ƞ-Cp)Mo(CO)2]2 is x and in
[(5ƞ-Cp)2Fe2(CO)3] is y. The value of x + y is ___.
(Assume 18 electron rule is followed.)
(Answer in integer)
1
Q.32 H NMR spectrum of a mixture containing CH3Br (x mol) and (CH3)3CBr
(y mol) shows two singlets at 2.7 ppm and 1.8 ppm, with the relative ratio
of 3:1 (integration value), respectively. The value of x/y is ____.
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
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Q. 33 𝑒2
The value of in atomic unit of energy is _____.
2𝜋𝜖0 𝑎0
(𝑒: charge of electron; 𝑎0 : Bohr radius; 𝜖0 : permittivity of vacuum)
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
Q. 34 The partial vapor pressure of 0.1 molal solution of B in liquid A is 60 kPa at 300 K.
The partial vapor pressure (in kPa) of a solution containing B with mole fraction of
0.1 in liquid A at 300 K is ___.
(Assume the solute B obeys Henry’s law. The molar mass of A is 80 g mol-1.)
(rounded off to three decimal places)
Q. 35 Consider the following two parallel irreversible first-order reactions, where k1 = 2k2
at 300 K. After complete conversion of R at 300 K, the concentration of P1 in the
reaction mixture was 15 mol L-1. The initial concentration of R (in mol L-1) was
___.
k1 P1
R
k2 P2
(k1 and k2 are the rate constants)
(rounded off to one decimal place)
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Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q. 36 Borax on treatment with NaOH and H2O2 forms X. The compound X on reaction
with PhCN at 60 °C in methanol-water mixture gives Y as the major product.
X and Y, respectively, are
(A) NaB(O)(OH)2·nH2O and PhCONH2
(B) NaB(O)(OH)2·nH2O and PhCOOH
(C) Na2B2(O2)2(OH)4·nH2O and PhCONH2
(D) Na2B2(O2)2(OH)4·nH2O and PhCOOH
Q.37 In the EPR spectrum of an aqueous solution of VOSO4 at room temperature, the
total number of hyperfine splitting signals is
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 8
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Q.38 The heptacity of allyl and Cp and the ligation mode of NO in the thermodynamically
stable complexes
[(ƞx-allyl)Ru(CO)2(NO)] and [(ƞy-Cp)Ru(CO)2(NO)],
respectively, are
(The heptacity of allyl and Cp are denoted by ƞx and ƞy, respectively.)
(A) (ƞ3, NO-bent) and (ƞ5, NO-linear)
(B) (ƞ3, NO-linear) and (ƞ5, NO-bent)
(C) (ƞ1, NO-bent) and (ƞ3, NO-bent)
(D) (ƞ1, NO-bent) and (ƞ5, NO-linear)
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Q.39 In the following reactions, the structures of I, II, and III, respectively, are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.40 Consider the following 1H-NMR (400 MHz, DMSO-d6) data of a compound:
δ in ppm: 3.85 (s, 6H), 6.73 (t, J = 2.2 Hz, 1H), 7.1 (d, J = 2.2 Hz, 2H), and 13.05
(brs, 1H).
The compound is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.41 Fischer presentation of D-(-)-fructose is given below.
The correct structure of α-L-(+)-fructofuranose is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.42 The major products X and Y in the following reaction sequence are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.43 The major products E and F in the following reaction sequence are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q. 44 𝜓1 , 𝜓2 , 𝜓3 , and 𝜓4 are four Hückel molecular orbitals of benzene with orbital
energies 𝐸1 , 𝐸2 , 𝐸3 , and 𝐸4 , respectively.
1
𝜓1 = (𝜙 + 𝜙C − 𝜙E − 𝜙F )
2 B
1
𝜓2 = 6−2 (𝜙A − 𝜙B + 𝜙C − 𝜙D + 𝜙E − 𝜙F )
1
𝜓3 = 6−2 (𝜙A + 𝜙B + 𝜙C + 𝜙D + 𝜙E + 𝜙F )
1
𝜓4 = 12−2 (2𝜙A + 𝜙B − 𝜙C − 2𝜙D − 𝜙E + 𝜙F )
The correct order of the orbital energies is
(The six carbon atoms of benzene are denoted by A to F and 𝜙𝐽 is the 2𝑝𝑧 orbital
of 𝐽th carbon of benzene.)
(A) 𝐸1 < 𝐸2 = 𝐸3 < 𝐸4
(B) 𝐸4 < 𝐸1 = 𝐸3 < 𝐸2
(C) 𝐸3 < 𝐸1 = 𝐸4 < 𝐸2
(D) 𝐸3 < 𝐸2 < 𝐸1 = 𝐸4
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Q.45 Consider the following six vibrational modes:
symmetric stretching of CO2, O-H symmetric stretching of H2O, stretching of
HCl, stretching of H2, N-H symmetric stretching of NH3, and bending of CO2.
Among these modes, if k number of modes are IR active but Raman inactive, l
number of modes are IR inactive but Raman active, and m number of modes are
both IR and Raman active.
k, l, and m, respectively, are
(A) 1, 3, and 2
(B) 3, 1, and 2
(C) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 2, 1, and 3
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Q. 46 The correct statement for a thermally initiated radical polymerization in a solution
is:
(Assume: Steady-state and equal reactivity of the propagating radicals, termination
reactions are only by combination, and no chain transfer reaction.
Given: Rp = rate of polymerization, DP = degree of polymerization, [I] = initiator
concentration, and [M] = monomer concentration.)
(A) with increase in [I], both Rp and DP increase.
(B) with increase in [M], both Rp and DP increase.
(C) Rp decreases with increase in [I] but DP increases with increase in [M].
(D) DP increases with increase in [I] and DP decreases with increase in [M].
Q.47 If 𝑞𝑡 and 𝑄𝑡,𝑚 are the molecular and molar translational partition functions of X2,
respectively, then ln(𝑄𝑡,𝑚 ) =
(𝑁 is the Avogadro number)
(A) 𝑁 ln 𝑞𝑡 − 𝑁 ln 𝑁
(B) 𝑁 ln 𝑞𝑡 − ln 𝑁
(C) 𝑁 ln 𝑞𝑡 + 𝑁 ln 𝑁 + 𝑁
(D) 𝑁 ln 𝑞𝑡 − 𝑁 ln 𝑁 + 𝑁
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Q.48 Among the following, the NMR active nucleus(nuclei) is (are)
12
(A) C
19
(B) F
2
(C) H
16
(D) O
Q.49 The complex(es) that exhibit(s) optical isomerism is (are)
(A) [Fe(acac)3]
(B) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+
(C) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+
(D) [Co(en)3]3+
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Q.50 In aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6], the allowed transition(s) is (are)
5
(A) T2g to 3Eg
1
(B) A1g to 1T1g
1
(C) A1g to 1T2g
5
(D) T2g to 5Eg
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Q.51 The correct option(s) that give(s) P as the major product is (are)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.52 The correct statement(s) regarding P, Q, R, and S is (are):
(A) P reacts faster than Q with PhSNa in DMF as a solvent.
(B) Q reacts faster than P with NaN3 in DMF as a solvent.
(C) R reacts faster than S when treated with TsCl/Et3N in DCM as a solvent.
(D) R gets oxidized faster than S when reacted with CrO3 in DCM as a solvent.
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Q.53 Consider the following reaction sequence. The correct option(s) is (are)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) X = LiAlH4; L = (vinylsulfonyl)benzene
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Q.54 Consider the following reaction sequence where M and N are the major products.
The correct option(s) is (are)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.55 The correct statement(s) about the relationship for the H-atoms in the following
compounds is (are):
(A) H1 and H3 are enantiotopic; H2 and H3 are diastereotopic.
(B) H1 and H3 are diastereotopic; H2 and H3 are enantiotopic.
(C) H5 and H7 are enantiotopic; H6 and H7 are homotopic.
(D) H5 and H7 are homotopic; H6 and H7 are enantiotopic.
Q.56 Among the following, the correct statement(s) is (are):
(A) 1
the normalization factor of a Slater determinant for a 3-electron atom is √3 .
(B) the number of nodes in the radial wave function of 3s orbital of a hydrogen atom
is the same as the number of nodes in the angular wave function of a 4d orbital of
hydrogen atom.
(C) the energy separation between any two adjacent states is same for a harmonic
oscillator, while it is different for a rigid rotor.
(D) the magnitude of the total spin angular momentum of an 𝛼 electron is the negative
of that of a 𝛽 electron.
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Q 57 Among the following, the correct statement(s) is (are):
(A) C2 symmetry element is present in H2O and H2O2 but NOT in PCl5.
(B) both C2 and C3 symmetry elements are present in CCl4 and SF6.
(C) one 𝜎ℎ and three 𝜎𝑑 symmetry elements are present in benzene.
(D) 𝜎𝑣 symmetry element is present in NH3 but NOT in BF3.
Q.58 S (in J mol-1 K-1) for the given reaction at 298 K is ________.
(Given: log K1 = 10.6, where K1 is the equilibrium constant. H = −54 kJ mol-1
and R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1)
(rounded off to two decimal places)
Q.59 The turnover frequency (in h−1 ) of a reaction where 5 mol% of a catalyst is
required for 90% conversion in 3 h is ____.
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
Q.60 In thermogravimetric analysis, 12.45 mg of CuSO4·5H2O was subjected to
heating under N2 atmosphere. At a particular temperature, there was a weight loss
of 3.6 mg. The number of water molecule(s) lost per formula unit is ____.
(Given molar mass (in g mol-1) of H = 1.0, O = 16.0, S = 32.0, and Cu = 63.5)
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
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Q.61 In the given reaction sequence, the amount of R produced (in g) is ____.
(Given: molar mass (in g mol-1) of H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, and S = 32)
(rounded off to two decimal places)
Q. 62 The wave function of a particle in a cubic box (of side 𝐿) is given by
𝜋𝑥 𝜋𝑥 2𝜋𝑦 𝜋𝑧
𝜓(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = √32/𝐿3 sin 𝐿 cos 𝐿 sin 𝐿 sin 𝐿 .
The ratio of the energy of the state corresponding to the above wave function to
the ground state energy is ___.
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
Q. 63 𝜙1 and 𝜙2 are normalized eigenfunctions of a Hermitian operator.
|𝜓〉 = 3𝑖 |𝜙1 〉 + 2 |𝜙2 〉 and |𝜒〉 = −2𝑖 |𝜙1 〉 + 5 |𝜙2 〉.
The value of ⟨𝜓|𝜒⟩ + ⟨𝜒|𝜓⟩ is ___.
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
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Q 64 2 mol of a monoatomic ideal gas with initial volume of 5 L and pressure 10 bar
undergoes an irreversible adiabatic expansion against a constant final pressure of
1 bar. The final volume (in L) is ______.
(Given: R = 8.314 × 10-2 L bar mol-1 K-1)
(rounded off to one decimal place)
Q 65 The following figure shows an experimental liquid-liquid phase diagram of phenol
and water at the vapor pressure of the system. The total amount of phenol and water
(in mol) present in the phenol-rich phase when 5 mol of water was shaken with 5
mol of phenol at 40 °C is ______.
(rounded off to one decimal place)
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