MAH B.HMCT CET 2027 Sample Paper (BHMCT BCA BBA BMS BBM)

ADMISSION
MAH BHMCT CET Sample Paper 2027
MAH-B.HMCT/BCA/BBA/BMS/BBM CET (State CET Cell) · Practice Paper 1

Questions Marks Time Negative marking
100 MCQs 100 (1 each) 120 minutes None

Part Section Questions Q. No.
Section I English Language 30 1 to 30
Section II Reasoning (Verbal and Arithmetic) 30 31 to 60
Section III General Knowledge and Awareness 20 61 to 80
Section IV Computer Basics 20 81 to 100

Instructions
1. There are 100 multiple-choice questions in four sections: English Language (30), Reasoning, Verbal and Arithmetic
(30), General Knowledge and Awareness (20) and Computer Basics (20).
2. Each question has four options and carries 1 mark. There is no negative marking, so attempt every question.
3. Attempt the whole paper in one sitting of 120 minutes, as in the online test. The real test is in English only;
calculators are not allowed.
4. The answer key and short solutions are at the end. Check them only after you finish.

This is an AglaSem practice paper written on the official MAH-BHMCT/BCA/BBA/BMS/BBM CET pattern (2026 brochure: 100
questions, 100 marks, 120 minutes, no negative marking). It is not an official State CET Cell, Maharashtra paper, and its
questions are original. General knowledge is kept to stable facts; read the news of the year before the test as well.

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Section I

English Language

Directions: Read the passage below and answer the five questions that follow.
For a long time, millets such as jowar, bajra and ragi were thought of as the food of poor farming
households. City restaurants seldom served them, and many young cooks finished catering college
without ever having baked with ragi flour. That picture has been changing. Chefs in large hotels now offer
ragi dosas at breakfast, bajra khichdi at lunch and jowar cookies with evening tea, and guests who once
asked what these grains were now ask for them by name.
There are sound reasons behind the change. Millets grow well on dry land and need far less water than
rice or wheat, so they suit regions where the rain is uncertain. Most of them are rich in fibre and minerals,
and they are naturally free of gluten, which makes them useful for guests who cannot eat wheat. For a
hotel that wants to show that it cares about health and the environment, a millet dish on the menu sends a
clear message.
Yet cooking with millets is not simply a matter of replacing one flour with another. Millet dough lacks the
elastic strength that gluten gives, so rotis crack easily and breads do not rise in the same way. Millet flour
also turns bitter if it is kept too long. Kitchens have had to relearn old methods, such as soaking,
sprouting and slow cooking, that village cooks have used for centuries.
The chefs who succeed seem to be those who treat millets with respect rather than as a passing fashion.
They learn from farmers and home cooks, test their recipes patiently and take the time to explain the
grains to guests. In their hands, an old grain has found a new table.

1. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Millets are back on hotel menus for good reasons, though they need new skills
(B) Village cooks were wrong to use soaking and sprouting for millet dishes
(C) Guests in large hotels do not like dishes that are made from millets
(D) Millets should replace rice and wheat completely in every Indian hotel kitchen

2. According to the passage, why do millets suit regions where the rain is uncertain?
(A) They grow on dry land and need far less water than rice or wheat
(B) They are sold at a higher price than rice or wheat
(C) They are free of gluten and rich in fibre
(D) They can be harvested twice as often as rice or wheat

3. Why, according to the passage, do millet rotis crack easily?
(A) Chefs do not soak the grains for long enough
(B) Millet dough lacks the elastic strength that gluten gives
(C) Millet flour turns bitter when it is stored
(D) Millet flour is usually ground too coarsely in hotels

4. The word 'seldom', as used in the first paragraph, means:
(A) cheaply (B) proudly
(C) rarely (D) always

5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a benefit of millets?
(A) They can be stored for a long time without any change in taste
(B) They are naturally free of gluten, which helps guests who cannot eat wheat
(C) They are rich in fibre and in minerals
(D) They need far less water than rice or wheat to grow

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6. Choose the word nearest in meaning to SUMPTUOUS.
(A) Tasteless (B) Simple
(C) Hurried (D) Lavish

7. Choose the word nearest in meaning to VERSATILE.
(A) Fragile (B) Careless
(C) Ancient (D) Adaptable

8. Choose the word nearest in meaning to REPLENISH.
(A) Refill (B) Reject
(C) Repeat (D) Remove

9. Choose the word nearest in meaning to IMPECCABLE.
(A) Ordinary (B) Rough
(C) Unclean (D) Flawless

10. Choose the word opposite in meaning to STALE.
(A) Sour (B) Hard
(C) Fresh (D) Dry

11. Choose the word opposite in meaning to MEAGRE.
(A) Little (B) Abundant
(C) Poor (D) Scanty

12. Choose the word opposite in meaning to RELUCTANT.
(A) Unhappy (B) Afraid
(C) Willing (D) Hesitant

13. Choose the word opposite in meaning to CONDEMN.
(A) Blame (B) Praise
(C) Ignore (D) Punish

14. Fill in the blank: Ten kilometres ____ a long distance to walk in the afternoon heat.
(A) were (B) have been
(C) is (D) are

15. Fill in the blank: She ____ at the hotel for ten years before she moved to Pune.
(A) works (B) had worked
(C) is working (D) has worked

16. Fill in the blank: No sooner had the chef tasted the soup ____ he asked for more salt.
(A) when (B) that
(C) then (D) than

17. Fill in the blank: The new menu has been planned to ____ to guests with food allergies.
(A) provide (B) supply
(C) arrange (D) cater

18. Fill in the blank: The rooms are cleaned twice a day; ____, guests rarely complain about them.
(A) although (B) otherwise
(C) consequently (D) however

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19. The idiom 'to have a sweet tooth' means:
(A) to speak politely to everyone
(B) to like eating sweet food very much
(C) to have a tooth that aches because of sugar
(D) to be very lucky with money

20. The idiom 'to eat humble pie' means:
(A) to refuse food out of politeness
(B) to eat very simple food at home
(C) to praise someone too much
(D) to admit a mistake and apologise

21. Choose the one word for: a person who never drinks alcohol.
(A) Vegetarian (B) Teetotaller
(C) Connoisseur (D) Glutton

22. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) Restaurateur (B) Resteraunteur
(C) Restaurater (D) Restauranteur

23. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.
The number of tourists / visiting the hill station / have increased this year.
(A) The number of tourists (B) visiting the hill station
(C) have increased this year (D) No error

24. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.
Despite of the heavy rain / the wedding guests arrived / on time for the dinner.
(A) Despite of the heavy rain (B) the wedding guests arrived
(C) on time for the dinner (D) No error

25. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.
The head chef, as well as his assistants, / were praised by the guests / for the excellent meal.
(A) The head chef, as well as his assistants,
(B) were praised by the guests
(C) for the excellent meal
(D) No error

26. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.
The banquet manager asked us / whether we wanted / a vegetarian menu for the party.
(A) The banquet manager asked us
(B) whether we wanted
(C) a vegetarian menu for the party
(D) No error

27. Choose the option that should replace the part in capitals to make the sentence correct.
The guests HAD ARRIVED yesterday at noon.
(A) arrived (B) have arrived
(C) had been arriving (D) were arrived

28. Choose the option that should replace the part in capitals to make the sentence correct.
UNLESS YOU DO NOT BOOK early, you will not get a table on Saturday.
(A) Unless you book (B) If you do not booked
(C) Unless you are not booking (D) Unless you will book

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29. Choose the option that should replace the part in capitals to make the sentence correct.
The taste of the dishes DEPEND on the freshness of the ingredients.
(A) are depending (B) depending
(C) depends (D) have depended

30. Choose the option that should replace the part in capitals to make the sentence correct.
After a year at the resort, she is used to WORK late on weekends.
(A) working (B) worked
(C) be working (D) works

Section II

Reasoning (Verbal and Arithmetic)

Directions: Read the information below and answer the three questions that follow.
Five chefs, P, Q, R, S and T, each conduct one cooking workshop at a hotel, one on each day from
Monday to Friday of the same week.
• S's workshop is on the day immediately after Q's workshop.
• R's workshop is on the last day of the series.
• T's workshop is on some day before Q's workshop.
• P's workshop is on neither Monday nor Tuesday.

31. Which of the following is the order of the workshops from Monday to Friday?
(A) P, T, Q, S, R (B) T, P, Q, S, R
(C) Q, S, T, P, R (D) T, Q, S, P, R

32. Whose workshop is on Wednesday?
(A) S (B) P
(C) T (D) Q

33. How many workshops are held between T's workshop and R's workshop?
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 1

34. Statements: Some menus are printed. No printed item is waterproof.
Conclusions:
I. Some menus are not waterproof.
II. All menus are waterproof.
(A) Only II follows (B) Both I and II follow
(C) Only I follows (D) Neither I nor II follows

35. Statements: All receptionists are early risers. All early risers are disciplined.
Conclusions:
I. All receptionists are disciplined.
II. Some disciplined people are receptionists.
(A) Both I and II follow (B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows (D) Neither I nor II follows

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36. Statement: A notice at a restaurant reads, 'Book your table a day in advance for the weekend buffet.'
Assumptions:
I. The restaurant may get more requests for tables than it can seat at the weekend.
II. People can book a table a day before the buffet.
Which assumption(s) is/are implicit?
(A) Neither I nor II is implicit (B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit (D) Both I and II are implicit

37. If n is an even integer, which of the following must be odd?
I. n + 1 II. 3n III. n² + n + 1
(A) II only (B) I only
(C) II and III only (D) I and III only

38. A hotel has 60 staff, of whom 40% are women. One-quarter of the women and one-half of the men
work in the kitchen. How many of the staff work in the kitchen?
(A) 30 (B) 18
(C) 24 (D) 27

39. Find the next number in the series: 2, 3, 7, 16, 32, ?
(A) 52 (B) 64
(C) 48 (D) 57

40. Find the next number in the series: 1, 4, 13, 40, 121, ?
(A) 365 (B) 363
(C) 242 (D) 364

41. Find the next letter in the series: B, D, H, N, ?
(A) U (B) W
(C) V (D) T

42. In a code, MENU is written as NVMF. How is SOUP written in that code?
(A) HLFK (B) ILFK
(C) HLGK (D) HMFK

43. If TEA = 26, where each letter has the value of its position in the alphabet (A = 1, B = 2, ...), then
COFFEE = ?
(A) 36 (B) 40
(C) 42 (D) 38

44. Kavya's husband Rohan has only one sister, Tanvi. How is Tanvi's son Aarav related to Kavya?
(A) Nephew (B) Brother-in-law
(C) Son (D) Cousin

45. A delivery rider goes 8 km south, turns left and goes 6 km, then turns left again and goes 16 km. How
far and in which direction is he from his starting point?
(A) 10 km, South-East (B) 10 km, North-East
(C) 30 km, North (D) 14 km, North-East

46. In a line of guests at a buffet counter, Nikhil is 11th from the front and 23rd from the back. How many
guests are in the line?
(A) 35 (B) 33
(C) 32 (D) 34

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47. 26 January 2027 falls on a Tuesday. On which day of the week will 1 May 2027 fall?
(A) Thursday (B) Friday
(C) Saturday (D) Sunday

48. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 7:30?
(A) 45° (B) 30°
(C) 60° (D) 15°

49. Ounce : Weight :: Litre : ?
(A) Bottle (B) Length
(C) Volume (D) Water

50. Which one is the odd one out?
(A) Lasagne (B) Croissant
(C) Brioche (D) Baguette

51. Find the odd pair.
(A) 4 : 64 (B) 6 : 196
(C) 5 : 125 (D) 3 : 27

52. The present ages of Priya and her mother are in the ratio 2 : 7. After 10 years, the ratio will be 4 : 9.
What is the mother's present age?
(A) 35 years (B) 30 years
(C) 28 years (D) 42 years

53. A caterer buys 40 kg of basmati rice at ₹120 per kg and sells all of it at ₹141 per kg. What is his profit
per cent?
(A) 15% (B) 21%
(C) 17.5% (D) 14.9%

54. Cook A can prepare a banquet in 9 hours and cook B in 18 hours. How long will they take working
together?
(A) 7 hours (B) 4.5 hours
(C) 6 hours (D) 13.5 hours

55. A tourist bus covers 180 km in 4 hours. By how much must its speed increase to cover the same
distance in 3 hours?
(A) 20 km/h (B) 45 km/h
(C) 10 km/h (D) 15 km/h

56. The average number of customers at a café over 6 days is 85. On the 7th day, 120 customers visit.
What is the average for the 7 days?
(A) 90 (B) 102.5
(C) 95 (D) 88

57. What is the simple interest on ₹15,000 at 7% per annum for 4 years?
(A) ₹4,200 (B) ₹1,050
(C) ₹4,500 (D) ₹3,500

58. A fruit punch is made by mixing juice and soda in the ratio 3 : 2. How many litres of juice are there in 25
litres of the punch?
(A) 12 litres (B) 10 litres
(C) 18 litres (D) 15 litres

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59. A hotel room is priced at ₹600 a night. On a festival day, two successive discounts of 15% and 10% are
given on it. What is the final price?
(A) ₹465 (B) ₹510
(C) ₹450 (D) ₹459

60. If A ≥ B, B > C and C = D, which of the following is definitely true?
(A) B < D (B) A > D
(C) D > B (D) A = C

Section III

General Knowledge and Awareness

61. Litti chokha is a famous traditional dish of:
(A) Bihar (B) Goa
(C) Kerala (D) Gujarat

62. 'Sarson da saag' served with 'makki di roti' is a traditional winter meal of:
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Odisha
(C) Punjab (D) Assam

63. Bebinca, a layered dessert made with coconut milk, eggs and jaggery, is a speciality of:
(A) Manipur (B) Haryana
(C) Rajasthan (D) Goa

64. The Ajanta Caves, famous for their ancient Buddhist paintings, are in which state?
(A) Bihar (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra (D) Karnataka

65. Kuchipudi, one of the classical dances of India, takes its name from a village in:
(A) Kerala (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Manipur (D) Odisha

66. Onam, the harvest festival known for its grand 'sadya' feast, is celebrated mainly in:
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Punjab
(C) Kerala (D) West Bengal

67. The Rann Utsav, a winter festival held on the white salt desert, takes place in:
(A) Ladakh (B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat (D) Rajasthan

68. Alphonso mangoes, known locally as 'hapus', are grown chiefly in the Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg
districts of:
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) West Bengal (D) Maharashtra

69. The Victoria Memorial, a white marble monument and museum, is in:
(A) Chennai (B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata (D) New Delhi

70. The process of heating milk to a set temperature to kill harmful germs is named after:
(A) Louis Pasteur (B) Joseph Lister
(C) Edward Jenner (D) Robert Koch

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71. Who developed the first vaccine, against smallpox, in 1796?
(A) Jonas Salk (B) Edward Jenner
(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Alexander Fleming

72. The microwave oven was invented after its inventor noticed that radar waves had melted a chocolate
bar in his pocket. Who was he?
(A) Nikola Tesla (B) Percy Spencer
(C) James Watt (D) Thomas Edison

73. On the Fahrenheit scale, pure water boils at sea level at:
(A) 32 °F (B) 100 °F
(C) 180 °F (D) 212 °F

74. The 'Codex Alimentarius', a collection of international food standards, is set by a commission run jointly
by the FAO and the:
(A) International Monetary Fund (B) World Trade Organization
(C) World Health Organization (D) United Nations Children's Fund

75. The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes of all denominations except the:
(A) ₹10 note, which the State Bank of India issues
(B) ₹2 note, which the State governments issue
(C) ₹500 note, which the Finance Commission issues
(D) ₹1 note, which the Government of India issues

76. The Bombay Stock Exchange, Asia's oldest stock exchange, stands on which street in Mumbai?
(A) Linking Road (B) Dalal Street
(C) Colaba Causeway (D) Marine Drive

77. The Wimbledon Championships, played on grass courts in London, are associated with:
(A) Golf (B) Badminton
(C) Cricket (D) Tennis

78. How many players of a team are on the court at a time in a standard game of kabaddi?
(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 5 (D) 7

79. The Santosh Trophy is India's national championship for state teams in:
(A) Football (B) Volleyball
(C) Cricket (D) Hockey

80. The first FIFA World Cup, in 1930, was hosted and won by:
(A) Brazil (B) Uruguay
(C) England (D) Italy

Section IV

Computer Basics
81. Which unit of the CPU carries out calculations and comparisons such as 'greater than' or 'equal to'?
(A) Memory Address Register (MAR) (B) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
(C) Input unit (D) Output unit

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82. In a machine instruction, the part that tells the CPU which operation to perform is called the:
(A) clock (B) address bus
(C) operand (D) opcode

83. Which CPU register holds the instruction that is currently being decoded and executed?
(A) Program Counter (B) Accumulator
(C) Instruction Register (D) Memory Data Register

84. The CPU processes each instruction in a repeating cycle. What is the correct order of its steps?
(A) Decode, fetch, execute (B) Fetch, decode, execute
(C) Execute, fetch, decode (D) Fetch, execute, decode

85. Which register holds the address of the memory location that is to be read from or written to?
(A) Instruction Register (IR) (B) Memory Address Register (MAR)
(C) Accumulator (ACC) (D) Memory Data Register (MDR)

86. The clock speed of a modern processor is usually measured in:
(A) gigahertz (GHz) (B) bits per inch
(C) megapixels (MP) (D) gigabytes (GB)

87. A barcode reader used at a hotel shop counter is an example of:
(A) a storage device (B) a processing unit
(C) an input device (D) an output device

88. Which of the following is an output device?
(A) Plotter (B) Microphone
(C) Scanner (D) Joystick

89. The BIOS, the small program that starts the computer and checks its hardware, is stored in:
(A) Hard disk (B) Cache
(C) RAM (D) ROM

90. Each location in the main memory of a computer can be reached because it has a unique:
(A) file name (B) address
(C) colour code (D) password

91. Which storage medium is widely used for large backups and reads data sequentially rather than
directly?
(A) Pen drive (B) RAM
(C) Magnetic tape (D) Hard disk

92. CDs, DVDs and Blu-ray discs store data that is read with the help of:
(A) a magnetic head (B) a laser beam
(C) a sound wave (D) an electric charge

93. Virtual memory is a technique in which:
(A) the cache is used as if it were the hard disk
(B) a part of the hard disk is used as if it were extra RAM
(C) the ROM is copied into the cache at start-up
(D) data is stored on the Internet instead of RAM

94. Which of the following is application software?
(A) A device driver (B) An operating system
(C) A spreadsheet program (D) A language translator

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95. Which of the following is a main function of an operating system?
(A) Typing letters and printing them out
(B) Managing memory, files and running programs
(C) Designing the hotel's website pages
(D) Checking the spelling of documents

96. The program that places an executable program into main memory so that it can run is called the:
(A) compiler (B) debugger
(C) editor (D) loader

97. The process of starting a computer and loading the operating system into memory is called:
(A) booting (B) scanning
(C) compiling (D) formatting

98. Which protocol is used to send e-mail from a mail program to a mail server?
(A) USB (B) FTP
(C) SMTP (D) HTML

99. The Domain Name System (DNS) on the Internet is used to:
(A) block e-mail from unknown senders
(B) convert domain names into IP addresses
(C) store copies of web pages on the hard disk
(D) speed up the processor of a computer

100. In the web address https://www.example.com/menu.html, the part 'https' shows the:
(A) protocol used to fetch the page
(B) type of the computer of the user
(C) folder in which the page is kept
(D) name of the website's owner

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Answer Key

1 A 2 A 3 B 4 C 5 A 6 D 7 D 8 A 9 D 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 B 14 C 15 B 16 D 17 D 18 C 19 B 20 D
21 B 22 A 23 C 24 A 25 B 26 D 27 A 28 A 29 C 30 A
31 D 32 A 33 C 34 C 35 A 36 D 37 D 38 C 39 D 40 D
41 C 42 A 43 B 44 A 45 B 46 B 47 C 48 A 49 C 50 A
51 B 52 A 53 C 54 C 55 D 56 A 57 A 58 D 59 D 60 B
61 A 62 C 63 D 64 C 65 B 66 C 67 C 68 D 69 C 70 A
71 B 72 B 73 D 74 C 75 D 76 B 77 D 78 D 79 A 80 B
81 B 82 D 83 C 84 B 85 B 86 A 87 C 88 A 89 D 90 B
91 C 92 B 93 B 94 C 95 B 96 D 97 A 98 C 99 B 100 A

Solutions

English Language
1. (A) The passage describes the return of millets to hotel menus, gives the reasons (water, nutrition, gluten-free) and
notes the cooking difficulties.
2. (A) The second paragraph says millets grow well on dry land and need far less water than rice or wheat. Being
gluten-free is a separate benefit.
3. (B) The third paragraph links the cracking of rotis to the lack of the elastic strength that gluten provides.
4. (C) 'Seldom' means not often, that is, rarely: city restaurants rarely served millets.
5. (A) The passage says the opposite: millet flour turns bitter if it is kept too long. The other three are stated as
benefits.
6. (D) Sumptuous means splendid and costly, as in 'a sumptuous feast': lavish.
7. (D) A versatile person or thing can adapt to many different uses or tasks.
8. (A) To replenish is to fill something up again, as in replenishing the stock of the minibar.
9. (D) Impeccable means without any fault, as in 'impeccable service'.
10. (C) Stale bread or air is no longer fresh, so the opposite is 'fresh'.
11. (B) Meagre means small in quantity; 'abundant' (plentiful) is its opposite. 'Scanty' and 'little' are close to its
meaning.
12. (C) Reluctant means unwilling; 'hesitant' is a synonym, so 'willing' is the antonym.
13. (B) To condemn is to express strong disapproval; to praise is the opposite.
14. (C) A distance taken as one amount takes a singular verb: 'Ten kilometres is a long distance'.
15. (B) The earlier of two past actions takes the past perfect: she had worked there before she moved.
16. (D) 'No sooner' is always followed by 'than': No sooner had he tasted it than he asked for more salt.
17. (D) 'Cater to' means to provide what is needed by a group. 'Provide', 'supply' and 'arrange' do not take 'to' in this
sense.
18. (C) The second clause is a result of the first, so a result connector, 'consequently', fits.
19. (B) A person with a sweet tooth loves sweets and desserts.
20. (D) To eat humble pie is to admit that one was wrong, usually in an embarrassing way.
21. (B) A teetotaller abstains completely from alcohol. A glutton eats too much; a connoisseur is an expert judge of
taste.
22. (A) The owner of a restaurant is a 'restaurateur', with no 'n' after 'restau-'.

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23. (C) 'The number of' takes a singular verb: 'The number of tourists ... has increased this year'.
24. (A) 'Despite' is not followed by 'of'. Use 'Despite the heavy rain' or 'In spite of the heavy rain'.
25. (B) With 'as well as', the verb agrees with the first subject, 'The head chef' (singular): 'was praised'.
26. (D) The sentence is correct: in reported speech 'whether we wanted' follows the past tense 'asked'.
27. (A) A single completed action at a stated past time ('yesterday at noon') takes the simple past: 'arrived'.
28. (A) 'Unless' already means 'if not', so adding 'do not' makes a double negative: 'Unless you book early ...'.
29. (C) The subject is 'The taste' (singular), so the verb is 'depends'.
30. (A) 'Be used to' (be accustomed to) is followed by a gerund: 'she is used to working late'.

Reasoning (Verbal and Arithmetic)
31. (D) R is on Friday. Q and S are on consecutive days with T before Q. If Q-S were Wednesday-Thursday, P would
have to be on Monday or Tuesday, which is not allowed. So Q-S is Tuesday-Wednesday, T is Monday and P is
Thursday.
32. (A) The order is T (Mon), Q (Tue), S (Wed), P (Thu), R (Fri).
33. (C) Q, S and P fall between T (Monday) and R (Friday).
34. (C) The menus that are printed cannot be waterproof, so I follows. II contradicts I and does not follow.
35. (A) Receptionists are inside early risers, who are inside disciplined people, so I follows; its converse in 'some' form,
II, also follows.
36. (D) The notice is given only because seats may run short (I), and it assumes booking a day ahead is possible (II).
37. (D) For even n: n + 1 is odd; 3n is even; n² + n is even, so n² + n + 1 is odd.
38. (C) Women = 24 and men = 36. Kitchen staff = 24/4 + 36/2 = 6 + 18 = 24.
39. (D) The differences are 1, 4, 9, 16 (squares of 1 to 4), so the next difference is 25: 32 + 25 = 57.
40. (D) Each term is three times the previous term plus 1: 121 × 3 + 1 = 364.
41. (C) The letter positions 2, 4, 8, 14 increase by 2, 4, 6, so add 8: 14 + 8 = 22 = V.
42. (A) Each letter is replaced by its opposite letter in the alphabet (A↔Z, B↔Y, ...): M→N, E→V, N→M, U→F. So S→H,
O→L, U→F, P→K.
43. (B) TEA = 20 + 5 + 1 = 26. COFFEE = 3 + 15 + 6 + 6 + 5 + 5 = 40.
44. (A) Aarav is the son of Kavya's husband's sister, which makes him Kavya's nephew.
45. (B) South 8 km, then left (east) 6 km, then left (north) 16 km leaves him 6 km east and 8 km north of the start: √(36
+ 64) = 10 km, North-East.
46. (B) Total = 11 + 23 − 1 = 33, as Nikhil is counted in both positions.
47. (C) Days from 26 January to 1 May = 5 (rest of January) + 28 + 31 + 30 + 1 = 95. 95 = 13 weeks + 4 days, so
Tuesday + 4 = Saturday.
48. (A) Angle = |30H − 5.5M| = |210 − 165| = 45°.
49. (C) An ounce is a unit of weight; a litre is a unit of volume.
50. (A) Croissant, baguette and brioche are French breads or pastries baked from dough; lasagne is an Italian pasta
dish.
51. (B) In the other pairs the second number is the cube of the first. 6³ = 216, not 196.
52. (A) (2x + 10)/(7x + 10) = 4/9 gives 18x + 90 = 28x + 40, so x = 5. The mother is 7 × 5 = 35 years old (Priya 10).
53. (C) Profit per kg = ₹21 on a cost of ₹120: 21/120 × 100 = 17.5%.
54. (C) Together they do 1/9 + 1/18 = 3/18 = 1/6 of the work per hour, so they need 6 hours.
55. (D) Present speed = 180/4 = 45 km/h; required speed = 180/3 = 60 km/h; increase = 15 km/h.
56. (A) Total for 6 days = 510. New total = 630, and 630/7 = 90.
57. (A) SI = 15,000 × 7 × 4 / 100 = ₹4,200.
58. (D) Juice = 3/5 × 25 = 15 litres.
59. (D) 600 × 0.85 = 510, and 510 × 0.90 = ₹459. (A single 25% cut would give ₹450.)

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60. (B) A ≥ B > C = D gives A > D. B is greater than D, and A is greater than C, so the other three are false.

General Knowledge and Awareness
61. (A) Litti (baked wheat balls stuffed with sattu) with chokha (mashed vegetables) is a signature dish of Bihar.
62. (C) Mustard-greens curry with maize-flour roti is a classic Punjabi winter meal.
63. (D) Bebinca is the best-known traditional Goan dessert, baked layer by layer.
64. (C) The Ajanta Caves are in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar (Aurangabad) district of Maharashtra and are a UNESCO
World Heritage Site.
65. (B) Kuchipudi is named after the village of Kuchipudi in Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
66. (C) Onam is Kerala's chief festival; the sadya is a vegetarian feast served on a banana leaf.
67. (C) The Rann Utsav is held in the Rann of Kutch, Gujarat.
68. (D) The Konkan districts of Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg in Maharashtra are famous for Alphonso mangoes.
69. (C) The Victoria Memorial stands on the Maidan in Kolkata and was opened in 1921.
70. (A) Pasteurisation is named after the French scientist Louis Pasteur, who developed the method in the 1860s.
71. (B) Edward Jenner used cowpox material to protect against smallpox in 1796. Salk made the polio vaccine.
72. (B) Percy Spencer, an engineer at Raytheon, applied for a patent on microwave cooking in 1945.
73. (D) Water boils at 212 °F (100 °C) and freezes at 32 °F (0 °C).
74. (C) The Codex Alimentarius Commission was set up in 1963 by the Food and Agriculture Organization and the
World Health Organization.
75. (D) One-rupee notes are issued by the Government of India (Ministry of Finance) and carry the signature of the
Finance Secretary; all other notes are issued by the RBI.
76. (B) The BSE, set up in 1875, is housed in Phiroze Jeejeebhoy Towers on Dalal Street, Mumbai.
77. (D) Wimbledon, first held in 1877, is the oldest tennis tournament in the world and the only Grand Slam played on
grass.
78. (D) Each team has seven players on court, with substitutes on the bench.
79. (A) The Santosh Trophy, first held in 1941, is the national football championship contested by state teams.
80. (B) Uruguay hosted the first World Cup in 1930 and beat Argentina 4–2 in the final at Montevideo.

Computer Basics
81. (B) The ALU performs arithmetic operations and logical operations such as comparisons.
82. (D) An instruction has an operation code (opcode) and one or more operands, which give the data or its address.
83. (C) The Instruction Register holds the current instruction. The Program Counter holds the address of the next one.
84. (B) The CPU first fetches the instruction from memory, then decodes it, then executes it, and repeats.
85. (B) The MAR holds the address; the MDR holds the data being moved to or from that address.
86. (A) Clock speed is the number of cycles per second, measured in hertz; modern CPUs run at a few gigahertz.
87. (C) A barcode reader reads the code on a product and sends it into the computer, so it is an input device.
88. (A) A plotter prints large drawings and charts, which is output. The other three send data into the computer.
89. (D) The BIOS is firmware kept in ROM (today often flash ROM), so it stays even when the power is off.
90. (B) Main memory is organised as cells, each with its own address, which the CPU uses to read or write data.
91. (C) Magnetic tape is a cheap, high-capacity backup medium; data must be read in sequence from the start of the
tape.
92. (B) These are optical discs: a laser beam reads the pits and lands on the disc surface.
93. (B) When RAM is full, the operating system moves some data to a reserved area of the disk, which acts as an
extension of RAM.
94. (C) A spreadsheet helps the user do a task, so it is application software. The others are system software that run or
manage the computer.

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95. (B) The operating system manages hardware resources, memory, files and processes. The other jobs are done by
application software.
96. (D) The loader copies the program from storage into memory and starts it. A compiler translates; an editor is used
to write code.
97. (A) Booting runs the start-up program from ROM, which then loads the operating system.
98. (C) The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) sends mail. FTP transfers files, HTML is a markup language and USB
is a hardware connection.
99. (B) DNS looks up the IP address that matches a name such as www.example.com, so the browser can reach the
server.
100. (A) The first part of a URL is the protocol (scheme); 'https' is secure HTTP. 'www.example.com' is the domain and
'menu.html' the file.

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