Shivaji University Entrance Exam 2020 Question Paper Microbiology

Shivaji University , Kolhapur
Seat Paper Code(ENT202015)
No.
M.Sc Entrance Exam , MAY-2020

58717-MICROBIOLOGY

Day And Date : Friday 20/11/2020 Total Marks : 100
Time : 13:00 To 14:30
Marks
1 Available water value for pure water is -----------. 1
A) 1.00
B) 9.99
C) 0.98
D) 0.1
2 LAL test is used for ------------testing. 1
A) pyrogen
B) carcinogenicity
C) allergy
D) toxicity
3 -------------- causes potato spindle Tuber disease. 1
A) Viroid
B) TMV
C) Prion
D) HIV
4 Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between -------------. 1
A) algae & fungi
B) plant roots & fungi
C) bacteria & fungi
D) Plant roots & bacteria
5 In carbon cycle, autotrophic bacteria fix CO2 mainly by ---------. 1
A) Calvin-Benson cycle
B) Glyoxylate cycle
C) EMP pathway
D) PP pathway
6 The organic matter usually contributes ----------% of the total volume of the soil. 1
A) 1-2
B) 3-6
C) 10-15
D) 20-30
7 Farm yard manure is prepared by using -----------. 1
A) City waste
B) Industrial waste
C) Agricultural waste
D) Domestic waste

8 For optimal composting, C:N ratio of waste should be ----------. 1
A) 20:1-4O:1
B) 10:1-15:1
C) 5:1-10:1
D) 1:1-5:1
9 ---------- is a non-nodulating nitrogen fixer used to prepare biofertilizer. 1
A) Frankia
B) Rhizobium
C) Azospirillum
D) Klebsiella
10 Insecticidal property of Bacillus thuringiensis is due to --------gene in the genome. 1
A) Lux
B) Cry
C) Col
D) Nif
11 Enzyme ------- attacks native cellulose molecule. 1
A) Beta glucosidase
B) C 1
C) C x
D) Glycosidase
12 --------- transmission is an example of direct transmission of plant pathogens. 1
A) Germinative
B) Water
C) Wind
D) Animal
13 Staphylococcal enterotoxin ----------- is more heat resistant. 1
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
14 ----------broth medium is used for production of rhizobial inoculants, 1
A) Ashby’s
B) Jensen’s
C) Okon’s
D) Yeast extract mannitol
15 Lineweaver-Burk plot is called as---------- 1
A) Michaelis and Menten plot
B) Approximate plot
C) Inverted plot
D) Double reciprocal plot
16 Turnover number is denoted by-------- 1
A) Vmax
B) K1
C) Kcat
D) Km

17 Ribozyme is……. 1
A) RNA without phosphate
B) RNA with sugar
C) RNA with extra phosphate
D) RNA with enzyme activity
18 In acid base catalysis, acids temporarily ….....a proton 1
A) Accept
B) Retain
C) Donate
D) Reject
19 Electrophoresis of enzymes is based on------------ 1
A) Size of enzymes
B) Heat sensitivity of enzymes
C) Solubility of enzymes
D) Adsorption of enzymes
20 The clover leaf model of t-RNA was proposed by -------- 1
A) Kornberg
B) Holley
C) Ehrlich
D) Jacob
21 ……. is the major enzyme involved in Glyoxylate pathway 1
A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
B) Isocitrate dehydratase
C) Isocitrate lyase
D) Isocitrate decarboxylase
22 The most widely used inorganic salt in salt precipitation process of enzyme 1
purification is …….
A) ammonium phosphate
B) ammonium sulfate
C) ammonium nitrate
D) ammonium chloride
23 ………. is the first immobilized enzyme 1
A) lipase
B) lyase
C) invertase
D) isomerase
24 Temperature of liquid nitrogen for storage of industrial cultures is ---------oC. 1
A) -120
B) -170
C) -196
D) -96
25 The valency of sulfur in the form of sulfate,S04 is……… 1
A) 6
B) 4
C) 2
D) 3

26 Interferon induces--------- enzyme that cleaves the terminal 3 –CCA sequence from 1
tRNA.
A) phosphodiesterase
B) protein kinase.
C) RNase L
D) 2,5 (A) Synthetase.
27 In monoclonal antibody technology, tumor cells that can replicate endlessly are 1
fused with mammalian cells that produce an antibody. The result of this cell fusion
is a -----------
A) lymphoblast
B) hybridoma
C) myeloma
D) hybrid
28 The altered Fc portion enables IgE to bind to glycoprotein receptors of ------------- 1
A) eosinophils
B) neutrophils
C) basophiles
D) macrophages
29 Majority of T cells contain --------type of T cell receptor 1
A) γδ
B) αβ
C) µγ
D) αγ
30 Endogenous antigens are processed by ------------ pathway in antigen presenting 1
cell.
A) Cytosolic
B) Glycolytic
C) Endocytic
D) Endoplasmic
31 ……… stem cells have the potential to develop into any cell found in the human 1
body but not the placenta.
A) Totipotent
B) Pluripotent
C) multipotent
D) unipotent
32 -------- is part of the mechanism for inducing central tolerance in B cells by clonal 1
deletion.
A) The presence of soluble antigen
B) The ability to undergo receptor editing
C) The display of self-antigen in a membrane bound form
D) Activity of functional autoimmune regulator gene.
33 In rheumatoid arthritis patients, the classic RA factor is nothing but ……. 1
A) IgM against collagen
B) IgM against Fc region of IgG
C) IgG against collagen
D) IgG against Fc region of IgM
34 ........... reduces histamine level by blocking conversion of histidine to histamine. 1
A) Theophylline
B) Cortisone
C) Epinephrine
D) Antihistamine

35 For production of grape wine, sugar concentration in grape must varies between -- 1
------- %.
A) 2-3
B) 5-6
C) 7-8
D) 3-4
36 In phagocytosis, reactive oxygen species are generated by --------------enzyme 1
complex in phagosome.
A) oxygenase
B) nitric oxide synthase
C) NADPH phagosome oxidase
D) dismutase
37 ------------ contains two identical copies of ‘plus’ sense RNA. 1
A) Adenovirus
B) HIV
C) TMV
D) Influenza
38 During lysogenic interaction lambda phage genome gets integrated in between ---- 1
------ genes of E. coli
A) gal & bio
B) Pro A & Pro B
C) his & bio
D) Pro & gal
39 ---------- genes of T4 phage codes for proteins involved in its DNA replication. 1
A) Immediate early
B) immediate late
C) Late
D) Delayed early
40 Under optimum conditions latent period of T4 phage is --------------- min 1
A) 60
B) 123
C) 40
D) 25
41 Cancerous cells are -------------- cells. 1
A) Invasive & immortal
B) Mortal & harmful
C) Immortal & harmless
D) Benign
42 Attenuation is mechanism of regulation of ____________ operon. 1
A) lactose
B) arabinose
C) tryptophan
D) histidine
43 The method used for paternity determination is _________ 1
A) DNA sequencing
B) DNA fingerprinting
C) PCR
D) Western blotting

44 The production of wild type phenotype by combining two genomes carrying 1
mutation in a diplod is called as ____________.
A) Suppression
B) Complementation
C) Transformation
D) Electroporation
45 ____________ bring about non genetic suppressor mutation 1
A) Acridine dyes
B) Streptomycin
C) Nitric acid
D) Mustard gas
46 A key intermediate in the production of L-lysine is ------------- acid. 1
A) dipicolinic
B) pyruvic
C) acetic
D) diaminopimelic
47 Dideoxynucleotide chain termination method is used for ___________. 1
A) DNA sequencing
B) DNA fingerprinting
C) DNA amplification
D) DNA degradation
48 pBR 322 is derived from ____________. 1
A) RSF 2124, pMB 1 and pSC 101
B) RSF 101, pMB 1 and pTi
C) RSF 01, pSC 101 and pRM 1
D) RSF 21, pTB 11 and pTi
49 Beadle and Tatum selected ____________ as an experimental organism. 1
A) Aspergillus niger
B) Snapdragon
C) Neurospora crassa
D) Saccharomyces sp.
50 The vector pUC 19 possess ______________ gene. 1
A) lac Z
B) lac Y
C) lac A
D) lac B
51 The end of phenotypic lag is the indication of formation of _________. 1
A) Mutant homokaryon
B) Wild type homokaryon
C) Mutant heterokaryon
D) Wild type heterokaryon
52 Paramecium aurelia contain ____________ gene necessary for reproduction of 1
kappa particles.
A) P
B) K
C) D
D) N

53 --------------- form of DNA has 11 nucleotide base pairs per turn of helix. 1
A) D
B) B
C) Z
D) A
54 Presence of ------------- protects the bacteria from phage infection. 1
A) flagella
B) capsule
C) pili
D) cell wall
55 A refractive index of oil immersion oil is similar to ----------- 1
A) air
B) water
C) glass slide
D) oil
56 ZNCF is a mixture of --------- 1
A) basic fuchsin and phenol
B) phenol and congo red
C) malachite green and basic fuchsin
D) phenol and ethanol
57 Biogas contains ----------- % of methane. 1
A) 10-30
B) 30-50
C) 50-80
D) 80-90
58 In metachromatic granule staining, the stain ----------- colours volutin granules. 1
A) toluidine blue
B) malachite green
C) Albert’s iodine
D) congo red
59 Scientist ------------- discovered that the causative agent of Tobacco Mosaic 1
Disease was filterable.
A) Robert Koch
B) Ivanowsky
C) Beijerinck
D) Loeffler
60 The existence of bacteria in thermolabile and thermostable forms was confirmed 1
by scientist --------------.
A) John Tyndall
B) Louis Pasteur
C) Joseph Lister
D) Robert Koch
61 In green and purple bacteria photosynthetic electron transport chain is located in 1
_________.
A) Cell membrane
B) Periplasmic space
C) Thallakoid membrane
D) Nuclear membrane

62 Facultative anaerobes use __________ as final electron acceptor. 1
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrate
C) Phosphate
D) Nitrogen
63 __________ enzymes are believed to be essential enzymes. 1
A) Inducible
B) Constitutive
C) Extracellular
D) Inducible and exoenzymes
64 Volutine granules are ....... in nature. 1
A) basophilic
B) acidophilic
C) neutral
D) hydrophilic
65 Chemoreceptors are involved in ........process. 1
A) chemotaxis
B) phototaxis
C) aerotaxis
D) magnetotaxis
66 The DNA polymerase involved in base excision repair is ____________ 1
A) DNA polymerase α
B) DNA polymerase β
C) DNA polymerase σ
D) DNA polymerase γ
67 .......... is the function of enzyme involved in base excision repair. 1
A) Addition of correct base
B) Addition of correct nucleotide
C) Removal of incorrect base
D) Removal of phosphodiester bond
68 Small laboratory fermenters for scale up studies are of ---------- liter capacity. 1
A) 1-10
B) 10-15
C) 15-20
D) 20-25
69 .......... mutation in which the cause of mutation is not known. 1
A) Spontaneous mutation
B) Suppressor mutation
C) Nonsense mutation
D) Mis-sense mutation
70 ......... is the detection technique of auxotrophs. 1
A) Spread plating
B) Replica plating
C) Streaking
D) Pouring

71 Damage and errors in DNA cause___________ 1
A) Mutation
B) DNA repair
C) Translation
D) Transcription
72 .......... is energy currency of a cell 1
A) ATP
B) NAD
C) PEP
D) coenzyme A
73 ......... of the following role is performed by a bacteriophage in transduction. 1
A) vector
B) donor
C) episome
D) recipient
74 .......... of E.coli strain was chosen to prove the experiment of conjugation. 1
A) prototrophs
B) auxotrophs
C) polyauxotrophs
D) autotrophs
75 ……………….is the sugar industry waste used in preparation of fermentable 1
media.
A) Press mud
B) Molasses
C) Spent wash
D) bagasse
76 Environmental monitoring is used in the preparation of ……………………… 1
A) Environmental impact assessment
B) Environmental Control
C) Bioburden
D) Remote sensing
77 The process of aging of lake is called as………………… 1
A) Asphylation
B) Assimilation
C) Mineralization Ammonification
D) Ammonification
78 The concentration of residual Cl2 in treated water should not exceed above 1
………….mg/lit.
A) 0 to 0.5
B) 0 to 1
C) 0 to 5
D) 0 to 0.05
79 --------- assays are highly specific and detect even minute amount of fermentation 1
products.
A) Metabolic response
B) Enzymatic
C) Diffusion
D) Turbidimetric

80 Indian spent wash contains large percentage of ………………in comparison to 1
spent wash from other countries.
A) Magnesium
B) Calcium
C) Phosphorus
D) Potassium
81 Use of …………for treatment of sewage water is eco-friendly energy solving 1
method.
A) Trickling filters
B) Oxidation ponds
C) Activated sludge digestion
D) Biogas digester
82 The pH of distillery waste is…………… 1
A) alkaline
B) neutral
C) acidic
D) highly alkaline
83 The sugar industry waste used in preparation of compost is…….. 1
A) Press mud
B) Molasses
C) Spent wash
D) bagasse
84 …………………level is suitable for work involving well characterised agents not 1
known to cause disease in healthy adult humans.
A) BSL 1
B) BSL 2
C) BSL 3
D) BSL 4
85 According to CPCB standards the day time limit for noise pollution in silence 1
zone is ______ dB
A) 75
B) 65
C) 60
D) 50
86 ........ is strongly antigenic component of rabbies virus. 1
A) Nucleo protein
B) Membrane protein
C) Glycolipids
D) Glycoprotein G
87 Hepatitis A virus is ......... 1
A) Single stranded RNA virus
B) Double stranded RNA virus
C) Single stranded DNA virus
D) Double stranded DNA virus
88 ....... is characteristic symptom of malarial disease when mass destruction of 1
RBC's takes place in human body.
A) Shaking chills
B) Nausea
C) Malaise
D) Anorexia

89 Under anaerobic condition colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae on blood agar 1
surrounded by a zone of .........
A) a - haemolysis
B) b - haemolysis
C) d - haemolysis
D) g - haemolysis
90 --------- is the most widely used filter aid for recovery of certain products by filtration 1
A) CaCO3
B) Saw dust
C) Kieselgurh
D) Silica
91 TCBS agar is used in cultivation of ........ 1
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Treponema pallidium
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
92 Chronic granulomata in tertiary syphilis is termed as .......... 1
A) Gummata
B) Nodule
C) Vesicle
D) Globi
93 .......... is a virulent Treponema pallidum strain. 1
A) Mitsuda strain
B) Nagler strain
C) Schawdin strain
D) Nicholas strain
94 Clostradium perfringens when inoculated in milk, they show vigrous gas it is 1
termed as ……...
A) Harricane fermentation
B) Cyclone fermentation
C) Stormy fermentation
D) Alcoholic fermentation
95 Multiple drug therapy of leprosy consist of mostly .......... 1
A) Penicillin, Streptomycin and Tetracyclin
B) Penicillin, Streptomycin and Bacitracin
C) Chloramphenicol,Vancomycin and Lamirudin
D) Dapsone, Rifampicin and Clofazime
96 Mycobacterium leprae has been adapted for growth on .......... 1
A) MacConkeys agar
B) Selenite broth
C) Tributiryne agar
D) Lowenstein-Jensen medium
97 Cancer cells shows a loss of ----------, which is a characteristic feature of normal 1
cells.
A) Precipitation
B) Anchorage independence
C) Contact inhibition
D) Aggregation

98 Cancers originating in epithelial tissues are called as --------- 1
A) Lymphomas
B) Sarcomas
C) Carcinomas
D) Adenomas
99 ------------ on the wall of E. coli acts as a receptor site for lambda phage. 1
A) Iron transport protein
B) Maltose transport protein
C) Lipopolysaccharide
D) Fagellum
100 Genome of -------------- virus is made up of unusual base composition. 1
A) T4
B) Lambda
C) HIV
D) Tobacco mosaic