Class 12 Question Paper 2025 History
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Page 1
ANNUAL EXAMINATION
Question Paper
2025
NCERT BASED SYLLABUS
FOR CBSE AND STATE BOARD
FOLLOWING NCERT
KVS QUESTION PAPERS
Question Paper
2025
NCERT BASED SYLLABUS
FOR CBSE AND STATE BOARD
FOLLOWING NCERT
KVS QUESTION PAPERS
Page 2
Series : W1XZY SET ~ 1
Q.P. Code 61/1/1
Roll No.
- -
-
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.
HISTORY
: 3 : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
NOTE
(I) - (I) Please check that this question
32 ( ) paper contains 32 printed pages
(Including Map).
(II) - 34 (II) Please check that this question
paper contains 34 questions.
(III) - - (III)
Q.P. Code given on the right hand
- - side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the
answer-book by the candidate.
(IV) (IV) Please write down the serial
number of the question in the
answer-book at the given place
before attempting it.
(V) - 15 (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to
- read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at
10.15 10.15
10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
10.30 - a.m., the candidates will read the
- question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer-
book during this period. ~
61/1/1 724-1 Page 1 of 32 P.T.O.
Q.P. Code 61/1/1
Roll No.
- -
-
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.
HISTORY
: 3 : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
NOTE
(I) - (I) Please check that this question
32 ( ) paper contains 32 printed pages
(Including Map).
(II) - 34 (II) Please check that this question
paper contains 34 questions.
(III) - - (III)
Q.P. Code given on the right hand
- - side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the
answer-book by the candidate.
(IV) (IV) Please write down the serial
number of the question in the
answer-book at the given place
before attempting it.
(V) - 15 (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to
- read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at
10.15 10.15
10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
10.30 - a.m., the candidates will read the
- question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer-
book during this period. ~
61/1/1 724-1 Page 1 of 32 P.T.O.
Page 3
(i) - 34
(ii) - – , , ,
(iii) : 1 21 1
(iv) : 22 27 - 3
60 80
(v) : 28 30 - (LA)
300 350
(vi) : 31 33 - -
(vii) : 34 -
5 -
(viii)- , - -
(ix) ,
61/1/1 Page 2 of 32
~
Page 4
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five Sections – Section A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A – question number 1 to 21 are Multiple Choice type Questions.
Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B – question number 22 to 27 are Short Answer type Questions.
Each question carries 3 marks. Write answer to each question in 60 to 80
words.
(v) Section C – question number 28 to 30 are Long Answer (LA) type
Questions. Each question carries 8 marks. Write answer to each question
in 300 to 350 words.
(vi) Section D – question number 31 to 33 are Source-based Questions
having three sub questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(vii) Section E – question number 34 is Map Based Question that includes
the identification and location of significant test items. This question
carries 5 marks. Attach the Map with the answer-book.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
in section B and C of question paper. A candidate has to write answer for
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for
Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs,
Map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired
Candidates only.
61/1/1 Page 3 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five Sections – Section A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A – question number 1 to 21 are Multiple Choice type Questions.
Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B – question number 22 to 27 are Short Answer type Questions.
Each question carries 3 marks. Write answer to each question in 60 to 80
words.
(v) Section C – question number 28 to 30 are Long Answer (LA) type
Questions. Each question carries 8 marks. Write answer to each question
in 300 to 350 words.
(vi) Section D – question number 31 to 33 are Source-based Questions
having three sub questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(vii) Section E – question number 34 is Map Based Question that includes
the identification and location of significant test items. This question
carries 5 marks. Attach the Map with the answer-book.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
in section B and C of question paper. A candidate has to write answer for
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for
Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs,
Map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired
Candidates only.
61/1/1 Page 3 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 5
21 1 = 21
1. ? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
3. , (A) (R)
: 1
(A) :
(R) :
(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(B) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(C) (A) , (R)
(D) (A) , (R)
61/1/1 Page 4 of 32
~
1. ? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
3. , (A) (R)
: 1
(A) :
(R) :
(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(B) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(C) (A) , (R)
(D) (A) , (R)
61/1/1 Page 4 of 32
~
Page 6
SECTION – A
(Multiple Choice type Questions) 21 1 = 21
1. Which of the following is correct regarding Harappan script ? 1
(A) This script was alphabetical.
(B) It was written from left to right.
(C) This script has not been deciphered so far.
(D) This script has a few signs or symbols.
2. In which of the following sites of Harappan civilization, the terracotta
models of plough have been discovered ? 1
(A) Kalibangan and Dholavira (B) Shortughai and Lothal
(C) Banawali and Cholistan (D) Sanghol and Rakhigarhi
3. Two statements have been given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate answer : 1
Assertion (A) : Buddhism grew rapidly both during the lifetime and
after the death of Buddha.
Reason (R) : Many people were dissatisfied with existing religious
practices and confused by the rapid social changes taking
place around them.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reasoning of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reasoning of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is untrue.
(D) (A) is untrue, (R) is true.
61/1/1 Page 5 of 32 P.T.O.
~
(Multiple Choice type Questions) 21 1 = 21
1. Which of the following is correct regarding Harappan script ? 1
(A) This script was alphabetical.
(B) It was written from left to right.
(C) This script has not been deciphered so far.
(D) This script has a few signs or symbols.
2. In which of the following sites of Harappan civilization, the terracotta
models of plough have been discovered ? 1
(A) Kalibangan and Dholavira (B) Shortughai and Lothal
(C) Banawali and Cholistan (D) Sanghol and Rakhigarhi
3. Two statements have been given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate answer : 1
Assertion (A) : Buddhism grew rapidly both during the lifetime and
after the death of Buddha.
Reason (R) : Many people were dissatisfied with existing religious
practices and confused by the rapid social changes taking
place around them.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reasoning of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reasoning of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is untrue.
(D) (A) is untrue, (R) is true.
61/1/1 Page 5 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 7
4. : 1
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(A) I, II III (B) II, III IV
(C) I, II IV (D) I, III IV
5. -I -II : 1
-I -II
a. I. ( )
b. II. ( )
c. III. ()
d. IV. ( )
a b c d
(A) III II I IV
(B) IV II I III
(C) III IV I II
(D) II I III IV
61/1/1 Page 6 of 32
~
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(A) I, II III (B) II, III IV
(C) I, II IV (D) I, III IV
5. -I -II : 1
-I -II
a. I. ( )
b. II. ( )
c. III. ()
d. IV. ( )
a b c d
(A) III II I IV
(B) IV II I III
(C) III IV I II
(D) II I III IV
61/1/1 Page 6 of 32
~
Page 8
4. Consider the following statements regarding Jainism and choose the
correct option : 1
I. The cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through Karma.
II. There is a need to renounce the world.
III. Worldly existence is a necessary condition for attaining salvation.
IV. Principle of Ahimsa is important.
Options :
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II and IV (D) I, III and IV
5. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the
following : 1
Column-I Column-II
(Ancient Mahajanpadas) (Present Region)
a. Magadh I. Qandhar (Eastern Afghanistan)
b. Avanti II. Ayodhya (Uttar Pradesh)
c. Gandhara III. Patna (Bihar)
d. Koshala IV. Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh)
Options :
a b c d
(A) III II I IV
(B) IV II I III
(C) III IV I II
(D) II I III IV
61/1/1 Page 7 of 32 P.T.O.
~
correct option : 1
I. The cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through Karma.
II. There is a need to renounce the world.
III. Worldly existence is a necessary condition for attaining salvation.
IV. Principle of Ahimsa is important.
Options :
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II and IV (D) I, III and IV
5. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the
following : 1
Column-I Column-II
(Ancient Mahajanpadas) (Present Region)
a. Magadh I. Qandhar (Eastern Afghanistan)
b. Avanti II. Ayodhya (Uttar Pradesh)
c. Gandhara III. Patna (Bihar)
d. Koshala IV. Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh)
Options :
a b c d
(A) III II I IV
(B) IV II I III
(C) III IV I II
(D) II I III IV
61/1/1 Page 7 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 9
6. ? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
: 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
: 7
? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
61/1/1 Page 8 of 32
~
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
: 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
: 7
? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
61/1/1 Page 8 of 32
~
Page 10
6. Prabhavati Gupta is best known for which of the following roles ? 1
(A) Wife of Ashoka and Promoter of Buddhist Sangha
(B) Queen of Mauryan Empire and Promoter of Buddhism
(C) Wife of Samudragupta and Poet of the Gupta Era
(D) Daughter of Chandragupta-II and Wife of Vakataka King
7. The following picture shows the structure of a temple carved out of single
piece of rock. Identify this temple correctly from the given options : 1
Options :
(A) Deogarh Temple (B) Kailashnatha Temple
(C) Mahabalipuram Temple (D) Brihideshwara Temple
Note : The following question is only for Visually Impaired
Candidates in lieu of Question No. 7.
In which of the following states Kailashnatha Temple is located ? 1
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Maharashtra (D) Andhra Pradesh
61/1/1 Page 9 of 32 P.T.O.
~
(A) Wife of Ashoka and Promoter of Buddhist Sangha
(B) Queen of Mauryan Empire and Promoter of Buddhism
(C) Wife of Samudragupta and Poet of the Gupta Era
(D) Daughter of Chandragupta-II and Wife of Vakataka King
7. The following picture shows the structure of a temple carved out of single
piece of rock. Identify this temple correctly from the given options : 1
Options :
(A) Deogarh Temple (B) Kailashnatha Temple
(C) Mahabalipuram Temple (D) Brihideshwara Temple
Note : The following question is only for Visually Impaired
Candidates in lieu of Question No. 7.
In which of the following states Kailashnatha Temple is located ? 1
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Maharashtra (D) Andhra Pradesh
61/1/1 Page 9 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 11
8. - ‘--’ 1
?
(A)
(B)
(C) -
(D)
9.
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
? : 1
I. 1800 .
II.
III.
IV.
(A) I, II III (B) II, III IV
(C) I, III IV (D) I, II IV
61/1/1 Page 10 of 32
~
?
(A)
(B)
(C) -
(D)
9.
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
? : 1
I. 1800 .
II.
III.
IV.
(A) I, II III (B) II, III IV
(C) I, III IV (D) I, II IV
61/1/1 Page 10 of 32
~
Page 12
8. Al-Biruni’s major work ‘Kitab-ul-Hind’ is significant for its comprehensive
study of India. Which of the following was the primary aim of this work ? 1
(A) Promote Islamic teaching
(B) Map geographical locations
(C) Critique culture and traditions
(D) Document Indian culture
9. Throughout his extensive travels, Ibn Batuta was able to explore
unfamiliar cultures and societies. Which of the following competencies did
he most likely develop ? 1
(A) Leadership and Judicial Management
(B) Cultural Competencies and Skills
(C) Knowledge of Administration and Army
(D) Scientific and Technical expertise
10. Which of the following statements regarding Colonel Colin Mackenzie are
correct ? Choose the correct option : 1
I. The ruins of Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by him.
II. He was an official of East India Company.
III. He prepared the first survey maps of the site.
IV. He received information of Vijayanagara empire from the Duarte
Barbosa.
Options :
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV (D) I, II and IV
61/1/1 Page 11 of 32 P.T.O.
~
study of India. Which of the following was the primary aim of this work ? 1
(A) Promote Islamic teaching
(B) Map geographical locations
(C) Critique culture and traditions
(D) Document Indian culture
9. Throughout his extensive travels, Ibn Batuta was able to explore
unfamiliar cultures and societies. Which of the following competencies did
he most likely develop ? 1
(A) Leadership and Judicial Management
(B) Cultural Competencies and Skills
(C) Knowledge of Administration and Army
(D) Scientific and Technical expertise
10. Which of the following statements regarding Colonel Colin Mackenzie are
correct ? Choose the correct option : 1
I. The ruins of Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by him.
II. He was an official of East India Company.
III. He prepared the first survey maps of the site.
IV. He received information of Vijayanagara empire from the Duarte
Barbosa.
Options :
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV (D) I, II and IV
61/1/1 Page 11 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 13
11. -I -II : 1
-I -II
a. I.
b. II.
c. - III.
d. -- IV.
a b c d
(A) III IV I II
(B) II III I IV
(C) I II IV III
(D) II I III IV
12. 16 17
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C) --,
(D)
13. 16 17
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
61/1/1 Page 12 of 32
~
-I -II
a. I.
b. II.
c. - III.
d. -- IV.
a b c d
(A) III IV I II
(B) II III I IV
(C) I II IV III
(D) II I III IV
12. 16 17
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C) --,
(D)
13. 16 17
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
61/1/1 Page 12 of 32
~
Page 14
11. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the
following : 1
Column-I Column-II
(Foreign Travellers) (Countries)
a. Afanasi Nikitin I. Persia
b. Domingo Paes II. Russia
c. Abdur-Razzak III. Portugal
d. Nicolo de Conti IV. Italy
Options :
a b c d
(A) III IV I II
(B) II III I IV
(C) I II IV III
(D) II I III IV
12. Which of the following is a major source to understand agrarian history of
16th and 17th century India ? 1
(A) Revenue records of Agra & Delhi
(B) Relationship between peasants and zamindars
(C) Important chronicle – the Ain-e-Akbari
(D) Types of agricultural crops grown at that time
13. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the
zamindars of 16 th and 17 th century India ? 1
(A) The zamindars were the exploitative class for the peasants.
(B) The zamindars collected revenue on behalf of the state.
(C) They always maintained cordial relations with the villagers.
(D) The zamindars had small piece of lands for personal use.
61/1/1 Page 13 of 32 P.T.O.
~
following : 1
Column-I Column-II
(Foreign Travellers) (Countries)
a. Afanasi Nikitin I. Persia
b. Domingo Paes II. Russia
c. Abdur-Razzak III. Portugal
d. Nicolo de Conti IV. Italy
Options :
a b c d
(A) III IV I II
(B) II III I IV
(C) I II IV III
(D) II I III IV
12. Which of the following is a major source to understand agrarian history of
16th and 17th century India ? 1
(A) Revenue records of Agra & Delhi
(B) Relationship between peasants and zamindars
(C) Important chronicle – the Ain-e-Akbari
(D) Types of agricultural crops grown at that time
13. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the
zamindars of 16 th and 17 th century India ? 1
(A) The zamindars were the exploitative class for the peasants.
(B) The zamindars collected revenue on behalf of the state.
(C) They always maintained cordial relations with the villagers.
(D) The zamindars had small piece of lands for personal use.
61/1/1 Page 13 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 15
14. ,
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15. 1855 ? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16. 1793 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
61/1/1 Page 14 of 32
~
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15. 1855 ? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16. 1793 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
61/1/1 Page 14 of 32
~
Page 16
14. In a modern city, a group of friends discusses the relevance of Kabir’s
teachings in today’s society. Some believe these are outdated, while others
see their significance in promoting equality and love. Which of the
following scenario best reflects Kabir’s relevance today ? 1
(A) A debate on Kabir’s historical context
(B) A discussion dismissing spirituality irrelevant
(C) Focus on societal norms and traditions only
(D) Seeking simple connection with the divine
15. Which one of the following was the main cause of the Santhal Rebellion of
1855 ? 1
(A) Imposition of the Summary Settlement
(B) Cultural suppression by the British
(C) Imposition of Western education
(D) Heavy taxes and land annexation
16. Find the odd one out regarding the Permanent Settlement of 1793. 1
(A) The Sunset law
(B) The Burdwan’s Auction
(C) The Fifth Report
(D) The Deccan Riots Commission
61/1/1 Page 15 of 32 P.T.O.
~
teachings in today’s society. Some believe these are outdated, while others
see their significance in promoting equality and love. Which of the
following scenario best reflects Kabir’s relevance today ? 1
(A) A debate on Kabir’s historical context
(B) A discussion dismissing spirituality irrelevant
(C) Focus on societal norms and traditions only
(D) Seeking simple connection with the divine
15. Which one of the following was the main cause of the Santhal Rebellion of
1855 ? 1
(A) Imposition of the Summary Settlement
(B) Cultural suppression by the British
(C) Imposition of Western education
(D) Heavy taxes and land annexation
16. Find the odd one out regarding the Permanent Settlement of 1793. 1
(A) The Sunset law
(B) The Burdwan’s Auction
(C) The Fifth Report
(D) The Deccan Riots Commission
61/1/1 Page 15 of 32 P.T.O.
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Page 17
17. -I -II : 1
-I -II
1857
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
a b c d
(A) II III IV I
(B) III IV I II
(C) III II I IV
(D) IV II III I
18.
: 1
I.
II.
III.
IV. -
(A) II, III, I IV (B) II, IV, III I
(C) III, II, I IV (D) IV, III, I II
61/1/1 Page 16 of 32
~
-I -II
1857
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
a b c d
(A) II III IV I
(B) III IV I II
(C) III II I IV
(D) IV II III I
18.
: 1
I.
II.
III.
IV. -
(A) II, III, I IV (B) II, IV, III I
(C) III, II, I IV (D) IV, III, I II
61/1/1 Page 16 of 32
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Page 18
17. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option : 1
Column-I Column-II
(Leadership of the (Regions)
Revolt of 1857)
a. Shah Mal I. Lucknow
b. Kunwar Singh II. Kanpur
c. Birjis Qadr III. Baraut
d. Nana Sahib IV. Arrah
Options :
a b c d
(A) II III IV I
(B) III IV I II
(C) III II I IV
(D) IV II III I
18. Arrange the following historical events in a correct chronological order
and choose the correct option : 1
I. Making of the Constituent Assembly
II. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
III. Quit India Movement
IV. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Options :
(A) II, III, I and IV (B) II, IV, III and I
(C) III, II, I and IV (D) IV, III, I and II
61/1/1 Page 17 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Column-I Column-II
(Leadership of the (Regions)
Revolt of 1857)
a. Shah Mal I. Lucknow
b. Kunwar Singh II. Kanpur
c. Birjis Qadr III. Baraut
d. Nana Sahib IV. Arrah
Options :
a b c d
(A) II III IV I
(B) III IV I II
(C) III II I IV
(D) IV II III I
18. Arrange the following historical events in a correct chronological order
and choose the correct option : 1
I. Making of the Constituent Assembly
II. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
III. Quit India Movement
IV. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Options :
(A) II, III, I and IV (B) II, IV, III and I
(C) III, II, I and IV (D) IV, III, I and II
61/1/1 Page 17 of 32 P.T.O.
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Page 19
19. 1798 ‘ ’
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C) -
(D)
20. ? 1
-I -II
(A) – ..
(B) –
(C) – .
(D) – ..
21. : 1
(A)
(B)
(C) ..
(D)
61/1/1 Page 18 of 32
~
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C) -
(D)
20. ? 1
-I -II
(A) – ..
(B) –
(C) – .
(D) – ..
21. : 1
(A)
(B)
(C) ..
(D)
61/1/1 Page 18 of 32
~
Page 20
19. Which one of the following was a key feature of the ‘Subsidiary Alliance’
introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1798 ? 1
(A) Free Trade Policy brought by British
(B) Maintenance of native army by British
(C) Imposition of Western Customs by British
(D) Protection of native territory by British
20. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched ? 1
List-I List-II
(Name of Important Committees (Name of President)
of Constituent Assembly)
(A) Flag Committee – H.C. Mookerjee
(B) Union Power Committee – Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Rules of Procedure Committee – S. Varadachariar
(D) States Committee – J.B. Kripalani
21. Identify the member of the Constituent Assembly with the help of the
following information : 1
He was the President of the Constituent Assembly.
He was the first President of the Independent India.
(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(B) Zakir Hussain
(C) V.V. Giri
(D) Rajendra Prasad
61/1/1 Page 19 of 32 P.T.O.
~
introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1798 ? 1
(A) Free Trade Policy brought by British
(B) Maintenance of native army by British
(C) Imposition of Western Customs by British
(D) Protection of native territory by British
20. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched ? 1
List-I List-II
(Name of Important Committees (Name of President)
of Constituent Assembly)
(A) Flag Committee – H.C. Mookerjee
(B) Union Power Committee – Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Rules of Procedure Committee – S. Varadachariar
(D) States Committee – J.B. Kripalani
21. Identify the member of the Constituent Assembly with the help of the
following information : 1
He was the President of the Constituent Assembly.
He was the first President of the Independent India.
(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(B) Zakir Hussain
(C) V.V. Giri
(D) Rajendra Prasad
61/1/1 Page 19 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 21
–
6 3 = 18
22. (a) “ ”
3
(b) ‘ ’ 3
23. “- ”
3
24. (a) 3
(b) - ?
3
25.
3
26. “1857
-
” 3
27. . .. 3
61/1/1 Page 20 of 32
~
6 3 = 18
22. (a) “ ”
3
(b) ‘ ’ 3
23. “- ”
3
24. (a) 3
(b) - ?
3
25.
3
26. “1857
-
” 3
27. . .. 3
61/1/1 Page 20 of 32
~
Page 22
SECTION – B
(Short Answer type Questions) 6 3 = 18
22. (a) “Ashokan inscriptions are the most significant sources to understand
the administration of Ashoka.” Explain the statement. 3
OR
(b) “The history of Mauryan empire has been constructed on the variety
of sources.” Explain the statement. 3
23. “The mid-first millennium BCE is considered as a significant turning
point in the course of World History.” Justify the statement. 3
24. (a) Analyse the causes that led to the ruin of Vijayanagara empire. 3
OR
(b) Analyse why was Amaranayaka system considered as a major
political innovation of the Vijayanagara empire. 3
25. Examine the role of Panchayat in advocating for the rights of common
people during the Mughal era. 3
26. “The rebellion of 1857 was seen as a war in which both Hindus and
Muslims had equally to lose or gain.” Analyse the statement. 3
27. Describe the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly. 3
61/1/1 Page 21 of 32 P.T.O.
~
(Short Answer type Questions) 6 3 = 18
22. (a) “Ashokan inscriptions are the most significant sources to understand
the administration of Ashoka.” Explain the statement. 3
OR
(b) “The history of Mauryan empire has been constructed on the variety
of sources.” Explain the statement. 3
23. “The mid-first millennium BCE is considered as a significant turning
point in the course of World History.” Justify the statement. 3
24. (a) Analyse the causes that led to the ruin of Vijayanagara empire. 3
OR
(b) Analyse why was Amaranayaka system considered as a major
political innovation of the Vijayanagara empire. 3
25. Examine the role of Panchayat in advocating for the rights of common
people during the Mughal era. 3
26. “The rebellion of 1857 was seen as a war in which both Hindus and
Muslims had equally to lose or gain.” Analyse the statement. 3
27. Describe the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly. 3
61/1/1 Page 21 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 23
–
3 8 = 24
28. (a) “ ”
8
(b) “
” ..
8
29. (a) 8
(b) 8
30. (a) 1915 1931
8
(b) 8
61/1/1 Page 22 of 32
~
3 8 = 24
28. (a) “ ”
8
(b) “
” ..
8
29. (a) 8
(b) 8
30. (a) 1915 1931
8
(b) 8
61/1/1 Page 22 of 32
~
Page 24
SECTION –
(Long Answer type Questions) 3 8 = 24
28. (a) “There were specific features of the familial relationship during the
Mahabharata period.” Explain the statement with examples. 8
OR
(b) “The political power or kingship was rarely dependent on birth as
Kshatriyas but also open to anyone who could muster support and
resources.” Explain the statement with the examples from sixth
century BCE onwards. 8
29. (a) Explain the main beliefs and teachings of Guru Nanak Dev. 8
OR
(b) Explain the major beliefs and teachings of Chishtis during medieval
India. 8
30. (a) Analyse the impact of national movement in India from 1915 to 1931
on the Indian masses. 8
OR
(b) Analyse the role of Gandhiji after independence of India. 8
61/1/1 Page 23 of 32 P.T.O.
~
(Long Answer type Questions) 3 8 = 24
28. (a) “There were specific features of the familial relationship during the
Mahabharata period.” Explain the statement with examples. 8
OR
(b) “The political power or kingship was rarely dependent on birth as
Kshatriyas but also open to anyone who could muster support and
resources.” Explain the statement with the examples from sixth
century BCE onwards. 8
29. (a) Explain the main beliefs and teachings of Guru Nanak Dev. 8
OR
(b) Explain the major beliefs and teachings of Chishtis during medieval
India. 8
30. (a) Analyse the impact of national movement in India from 1915 to 1931
on the Indian masses. 8
OR
(b) Analyse the role of Gandhiji after independence of India. 8
61/1/1 Page 23 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 25
–
3 4 = 12
31. :
: “
”
“, : - : -
..... ”
, , 1948
;
,
31.1
1
31.2 1
31.3 2
61/1/1 Page 24 of 32
~
3 4 = 12
31. :
: “
”
“, : - : -
..... ”
, , 1948
;
,
31.1
1
31.2 1
31.3 2
61/1/1 Page 24 of 32
~
Page 26
SECTION – D
(Source Based Questions) 3 4 = 12
31. Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
The most ancient system yet discovered
About the drains, Mackay noted : “It is certainly the most complete
ancient system as yet discovered.” Every house was connected to the
street drains. The main channels were made of bricks set in mortar and
were covered with loose bricks that could be removed for cleaning. In
some cases, limestone was used for the covers. House drains first
emptied into a sump or cesspit into which solid matter settled while
waste water flowed out into the street drains. Very long drainage
channels were provided at intervals with sumps for cleaning. It is a
wonder of archaeology that “little heaps of material, mostly sand, have
frequently been found lying alongside drainage channels, which shows...
that the debris was not always carted away when the drain was cleared”.
From Ernest Mackay, Early Indus Civilisation, 1948
Drainage systems were not unique to the larger cities, but
were found in smaller settlements as well. At Lothal for example, while
houses were built of mud bricks, drains were made of burnt bricks.
31.1 Analyse the possible reason behind the uniformity in the drainage
systems across the Harappan cities. 1
31.2 Analyse the implications of finding little heaps of material, mostly
sand, alongside drainage channels. 1
31.3 Assess the impact of Harappan drainage system. 2
61/1/1 Page 25 of 32 P.T.O.
~
(Source Based Questions) 3 4 = 12
31. Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
The most ancient system yet discovered
About the drains, Mackay noted : “It is certainly the most complete
ancient system as yet discovered.” Every house was connected to the
street drains. The main channels were made of bricks set in mortar and
were covered with loose bricks that could be removed for cleaning. In
some cases, limestone was used for the covers. House drains first
emptied into a sump or cesspit into which solid matter settled while
waste water flowed out into the street drains. Very long drainage
channels were provided at intervals with sumps for cleaning. It is a
wonder of archaeology that “little heaps of material, mostly sand, have
frequently been found lying alongside drainage channels, which shows...
that the debris was not always carted away when the drain was cleared”.
From Ernest Mackay, Early Indus Civilisation, 1948
Drainage systems were not unique to the larger cities, but
were found in smaller settlements as well. At Lothal for example, while
houses were built of mud bricks, drains were made of burnt bricks.
31.1 Analyse the possible reason behind the uniformity in the drainage
systems across the Harappan cities. 1
31.2 Analyse the implications of finding little heaps of material, mostly
sand, alongside drainage channels. 1
31.3 Assess the impact of Harappan drainage system. 2
61/1/1 Page 25 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 27
32. :
:
, , ,
-
;
,
( )
... ,
, ,
,
32.1 1
32.2 ? 1
32.3 -
2
33. :
, :
; ,
,
, ,
-
;
33.1 ? 1
33.2 ? 1
33.3 ? 2
61/1/1 Page 26 of 32
~
:
, , ,
-
;
,
( )
... ,
, ,
,
32.1 1
32.2 ? 1
32.3 -
2
33. :
, :
; ,
,
, ,
-
;
33.1 ? 1
33.2 ? 1
33.3 ? 2
61/1/1 Page 26 of 32
~
Page 28
32. Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
A warning for Europe
Bernier warned that if European kings followed the Mughal model :
Their kingdoms would be very far from being well-cultivated and
peopled, so well built, so rich, so polite and flourishing as we see them.
Our kings are otherwise rich and powerful; and we must avow that they
are much better and more royally served. They would soon be kings of
deserts and solitudes, of beggars and barbarians, such as those are
whom I have been representing. (the Mughals)
.... We should find the great Cities and the great Burroughs (boroughs)
rendered uninhabitable because of ill air, and to fall to ruine (ruin)
without anybodies (anybody) taking care of repairing them; the hillocks
abandon’d, and the fields overspread with bushes, or fill’d with
pestilential marishes (marshes), as hath been already intimated.
32.1 Mention any one prominent contribution of Bernier. 1
32.2 How did Bernier describe the difference between European kingdom
and the Mughal territories ? 1
32.3 Explain Bernier’s views on the socio-economic status of people under
Mughal rule. 2
33. Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
On clearance and settled cultivation
Passing through one village in the lower Rajmahal hills, Buchanan wrote :
The view of the country is exceedingly fine, the cultivation,
especially the narrow valleys of rice winding in all directions, the cleared
lands with scattered trees, and the rocky hills are in perfection; all that
is wanted is some appearance of progress in the area and a vastly
extended and improved cultivation, of which the country is highly
susceptible. Plantations of Asan and Palas, for Tessar (Tassar silk
worms) and Lac, should occupy the place of woods to as great an extent
as the demand will admit; the remainder might be all cleared, and the
greater part cultivated, while what is not fit for the purpose, might rear
Plamira (palmyra) and Mowa (mahua).
33.1 How did Buchanan describe the view of the lower Rajmahal hills ? 1
33.2 Why did Buchanan believe that the area had high potential for
improved cultivation ? 1
33.3 How did Buchanan propose utilising the land for economic benefits ? 2
61/1/1 Page 27 of 32 P.T.O.
~
A warning for Europe
Bernier warned that if European kings followed the Mughal model :
Their kingdoms would be very far from being well-cultivated and
peopled, so well built, so rich, so polite and flourishing as we see them.
Our kings are otherwise rich and powerful; and we must avow that they
are much better and more royally served. They would soon be kings of
deserts and solitudes, of beggars and barbarians, such as those are
whom I have been representing. (the Mughals)
.... We should find the great Cities and the great Burroughs (boroughs)
rendered uninhabitable because of ill air, and to fall to ruine (ruin)
without anybodies (anybody) taking care of repairing them; the hillocks
abandon’d, and the fields overspread with bushes, or fill’d with
pestilential marishes (marshes), as hath been already intimated.
32.1 Mention any one prominent contribution of Bernier. 1
32.2 How did Bernier describe the difference between European kingdom
and the Mughal territories ? 1
32.3 Explain Bernier’s views on the socio-economic status of people under
Mughal rule. 2
33. Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
On clearance and settled cultivation
Passing through one village in the lower Rajmahal hills, Buchanan wrote :
The view of the country is exceedingly fine, the cultivation,
especially the narrow valleys of rice winding in all directions, the cleared
lands with scattered trees, and the rocky hills are in perfection; all that
is wanted is some appearance of progress in the area and a vastly
extended and improved cultivation, of which the country is highly
susceptible. Plantations of Asan and Palas, for Tessar (Tassar silk
worms) and Lac, should occupy the place of woods to as great an extent
as the demand will admit; the remainder might be all cleared, and the
greater part cultivated, while what is not fit for the purpose, might rear
Plamira (palmyra) and Mowa (mahua).
33.1 How did Buchanan describe the view of the lower Rajmahal hills ? 1
33.2 Why did Buchanan believe that the area had high potential for
improved cultivation ? 1
33.3 How did Buchanan propose utilising the land for economic benefits ? 2
61/1/1 Page 27 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 29
–
( ) 5
34. 34.1 -
:
(i) - 1
(ii) - 1
(iii) (a) - 1
(b) – 1
34.2 - 1857 A
B
2
: 34
34.1 1
34.2 1
34.3 (a) 1
(b) 1
34.4 1857 2
____________
61/1/1 Page 28 of 32
~
( ) 5
34. 34.1 -
:
(i) - 1
(ii) - 1
(iii) (a) - 1
(b) – 1
34.2 - 1857 A
B
2
: 34
34.1 1
34.2 1
34.3 (a) 1
(b) 1
34.4 1857 2
____________
61/1/1 Page 28 of 32
~
Page 30
SECTION – E
(Map Based Question) 5
34. 34.1 On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the
following with appropriate symbols :
(i) Kalibanga - a mature Harappan site 1
(ii) Amravati - a Buddhist site 1
(iii) (a) Amber - a territory under the Mughals 1
OR
(b) Bijapur – An important town of Medieval India 1
34.2 On the same outline map, two places have been marked as A and B,
as the centres of revolt of 1857. Identify them and write their names
on the lines drawn near them. 2
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired
Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 34.
34.1 Mention any one mature Harappan site in India. 1
34.2 Mention any one Buddhist site in India. 1
34.3 (a) Name any one territory under the Mughals. 1
OR
(b) Name the capital of Vijayanagara empire. 1
34.4 Write any two important centres of revolt of 1857. 2
____________
61/1/1 Page 29 of 32 P.T.O.
~
(Map Based Question) 5
34. 34.1 On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the
following with appropriate symbols :
(i) Kalibanga - a mature Harappan site 1
(ii) Amravati - a Buddhist site 1
(iii) (a) Amber - a territory under the Mughals 1
OR
(b) Bijapur – An important town of Medieval India 1
34.2 On the same outline map, two places have been marked as A and B,
as the centres of revolt of 1857. Identify them and write their names
on the lines drawn near them. 2
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired
Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 34.
34.1 Mention any one mature Harappan site in India. 1
34.2 Mention any one Buddhist site in India. 1
34.3 (a) Name any one territory under the Mughals. 1
OR
(b) Name the capital of Vijayanagara empire. 1
34.4 Write any two important centres of revolt of 1857. 2
____________
61/1/1 Page 29 of 32 P.T.O.
~
Page 31
61/1/1 Page 30 of 32
~
~
Page 32
61/1/1 Page 31 of 32 P.T.O.
~
~
Page 33
61/1/1 724-1 Page 32 of 32
~
~
Page 34
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior Secondary School Certificate Examination, 2025
SUBJECT NAME HISTORY (Q.P. CODE 61/1/1)
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of
the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the
future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested
that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in
any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future
of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine
and printing in Newspaper/Website, etc. may invite action under various rules of the Board
and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done
according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly
adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on
latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-XII, while evaluating two
competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not
from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks
should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students
can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded
accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the
first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking
Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The
remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no
significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X’ be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for
different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled.
This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be
retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks 80 (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper) has to
be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day
and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects
(Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the reduced syllabus and number of questions
in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in
the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
61/1/1,2,3 1 P.T.O.
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior Secondary School Certificate Examination, 2025
SUBJECT NAME HISTORY (Q.P. CODE 61/1/1)
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of
the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the
future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested
that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in
any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future
of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine
and printing in Newspaper/Website, etc. may invite action under various rules of the Board
and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done
according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly
adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on
latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-XII, while evaluating two
competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not
from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks
should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students
can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded
accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the
first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking
Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The
remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no
significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X’ be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for
different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled.
This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be
retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks 80 (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper) has to
be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day
and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects
(Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the reduced syllabus and number of questions
in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in
the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
61/1/1,2,3 1 P.T.O.
Page 35
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly
and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked
as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by the
candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the
Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for Spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title
page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the
prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once
again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for
each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
61/1/1,2,3 2
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly
and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked
as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by the
candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the
Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for Spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title
page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the
prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once
again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for
each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
61/1/1,2,3 2
Page 36
MARKING SCHEME
HISTORY- 61/1/1
NOTE : PAGE NOS MENTIONED IN THE MARKING SCHEME ARE TAKEN FROM THE LATEST
NCERT E-BOOK
S.No Value Points P No. Marks
SECTION –A
Question number 1-21 are Multiple Choice type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
1 (C) This script has not been deciphered so far. 15 1
2 (C) Banawali and Cholistan. 3 1
3 (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reasoning of A. 94 1
4 (C) I, II and IV 88 1
5 (C) III, IV, I, II 30 1
6 (D) Daughter of Chandragupta-II and Wife of Vakataka king 40 1
7 (B) Kailashnatha Temple 107 1
For Visually Impaired Candidates :
(C) Maharashtra
8 (D) Document Indian culture 117 1
9 (B) Cultural Competencies and Skills 119 1
1
10 (A) I,II,and III 170
1
11 (B) II, III, I, IV 176
1
12 (C) Important Chronicle – The Ain- e- Akbari 197
1
13 (B) The zamindars collected revenue on behalf of the state. 211-212
1
14 (D) Seeking simple connection with the divine. 161-162
1
15 (D) Heavy taxes and land annexation 242
1
16 (D) The Deccan Riots Commission 255
1
17 (B) III, IV, I, II 262-263
1
18 (B) II, IV, III and I 290,300,
303,304
1
19 (D) Protection of Native territory by British 266
1
20 (B) Union Powers Committee – Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. 320
61/1/1,2,3 3 P.T.O.
HISTORY- 61/1/1
NOTE : PAGE NOS MENTIONED IN THE MARKING SCHEME ARE TAKEN FROM THE LATEST
NCERT E-BOOK
S.No Value Points P No. Marks
SECTION –A
Question number 1-21 are Multiple Choice type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
1 (C) This script has not been deciphered so far. 15 1
2 (C) Banawali and Cholistan. 3 1
3 (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reasoning of A. 94 1
4 (C) I, II and IV 88 1
5 (C) III, IV, I, II 30 1
6 (D) Daughter of Chandragupta-II and Wife of Vakataka king 40 1
7 (B) Kailashnatha Temple 107 1
For Visually Impaired Candidates :
(C) Maharashtra
8 (D) Document Indian culture 117 1
9 (B) Cultural Competencies and Skills 119 1
1
10 (A) I,II,and III 170
1
11 (B) II, III, I, IV 176
1
12 (C) Important Chronicle – The Ain- e- Akbari 197
1
13 (B) The zamindars collected revenue on behalf of the state. 211-212
1
14 (D) Seeking simple connection with the divine. 161-162
1
15 (D) Heavy taxes and land annexation 242
1
16 (D) The Deccan Riots Commission 255
1
17 (B) III, IV, I, II 262-263
1
18 (B) II, IV, III and I 290,300,
303,304
1
19 (D) Protection of Native territory by British 266
1
20 (B) Union Powers Committee – Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. 320
61/1/1,2,3 3 P.T.O.
Page 37
1
21 (D) Rajendra Prasad 320
SECTION – B
(Short Answer Type Questions) 3 x6 = 18
22. (a) “Ashokan inscriptions are the most significant sources to understand the 32-34 3
administration of Ashoka”. Explain the statement.
i. Ashoka’s messages have been inscribed on stone surfaces- natural rock
polished pillars.
ii. Five major political centres of administration have been mentioned.
iii. Same messages found in all the inscriptions from the North west to Orissa.
iv. He used the inscriptions for propagating his idea of Dhamma.
v. This included respect to elders, generosity to Brahmins etc.
vi. He instructed to treat slaves and servants kindly.
vii. Promoted respect for all religions and traditions.
viii. Mentions appointment of Pativedakas to report to the king.
ix. Most inscriptions were in Prakrit, , Greek and Kharosthi were used in the
northwest.
x. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be assessed)
OR
(b) “The history of Mauryan empire has been constructed on the variety of 32 3
sources”. Explain the statement.
i. Archaeological finds like sculptures, monasteries.
ii. Contemporary works like Kautilya’s Arthashastra.
iii. Account of Megasthenes.
iv. Buddhist literature.
v. Jaina works.
vi. Puranic literature.
vii. Sanskrit literary works.
viii. Inscriptions of Ashoka—edicts and pillars.
ix. Asokavadana.
x. Punch marked coins.
xi. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be assessed)
23. “The mid-first millennium BCE is considered as a significant turning point in 29 & 84 3
the course of World History”. Justify the statement.
i. Emergence of thinkers like Zarathustra in Iran / Kong Zi in China /
Socrates/Plato/Aristotle in Greece / Mahavira and Gautama Buddha in
India.
ii. Emergence of new kingdoms and cities.
iii. Changes in social and economic life.
iv. Growth of diverse systems of thought.
v. Rise of Mahajanapadas.
61/1/1,2,3 4
21 (D) Rajendra Prasad 320
SECTION – B
(Short Answer Type Questions) 3 x6 = 18
22. (a) “Ashokan inscriptions are the most significant sources to understand the 32-34 3
administration of Ashoka”. Explain the statement.
i. Ashoka’s messages have been inscribed on stone surfaces- natural rock
polished pillars.
ii. Five major political centres of administration have been mentioned.
iii. Same messages found in all the inscriptions from the North west to Orissa.
iv. He used the inscriptions for propagating his idea of Dhamma.
v. This included respect to elders, generosity to Brahmins etc.
vi. He instructed to treat slaves and servants kindly.
vii. Promoted respect for all religions and traditions.
viii. Mentions appointment of Pativedakas to report to the king.
ix. Most inscriptions were in Prakrit, , Greek and Kharosthi were used in the
northwest.
x. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be assessed)
OR
(b) “The history of Mauryan empire has been constructed on the variety of 32 3
sources”. Explain the statement.
i. Archaeological finds like sculptures, monasteries.
ii. Contemporary works like Kautilya’s Arthashastra.
iii. Account of Megasthenes.
iv. Buddhist literature.
v. Jaina works.
vi. Puranic literature.
vii. Sanskrit literary works.
viii. Inscriptions of Ashoka—edicts and pillars.
ix. Asokavadana.
x. Punch marked coins.
xi. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be assessed)
23. “The mid-first millennium BCE is considered as a significant turning point in 29 & 84 3
the course of World History”. Justify the statement.
i. Emergence of thinkers like Zarathustra in Iran / Kong Zi in China /
Socrates/Plato/Aristotle in Greece / Mahavira and Gautama Buddha in
India.
ii. Emergence of new kingdoms and cities.
iii. Changes in social and economic life.
iv. Growth of diverse systems of thought.
v. Rise of Mahajanapadas.
61/1/1,2,3 4
Page 38
vi. Use of Iron.
vii. Punch marked Coins.
viii. Development of agriculture.
ix. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be assessed)
24 (a)Analyse the Causes that led to the ruin of Vijayanagara empire. 173-174 3
i. .After the death of Krishnadeva Raya, strains began to appear within the
imperial structure.
ii.His successors were troubled by rebellious Nayaka or military chiefs.
iii. Military ambitions of the rulers of Vijayanagara and those of the Deccan
Sultanates resulted in shifting alignments.
iv. Rama Raya became the Chief Minister of Vijayanagara.
v.Rama Raya led the army against the sultans of Bijapur and Golconda.
vi. Battle of Talikota.
vii.Rama Raya was defeated and the city of Vijayanagara fell into ruins.
viii.Any other relevant point
( Any three points to be assessed)
OR
(b) Analyse why was Amara nayaka system considered as a major political
175 3
innovation of the Vijayanagara empire.
i. Many features of the Amara nayaka system were derived from the
Iqta system of Delhi Sultanate
ii. Amara nayakas were military commanders who were given some
territory to govern.
iii. They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftsperson
and traders.
iv. They retained part of the revenue for personal use.
v. They also maintained a contingent of horses and elephants, which
were used by the king as a fighting force.
vi. Amara nayakas sent tributes to the king annually.
vii. They personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to express
their loyalty.
viii. Any other relevant point.
( Any three points to be assessed)
25. Examine the role of Panchayat in advocating for the rights of common people 203-205 3
during the Mughal era.
i. Panchayats were an assembly of elders.
ii. It was a heterogeneous body.
iii. Decisions made by the Panchayats were binding on the members.
iv. Funds collected as contributions from individuals was used for
community welfare activities.
v. Panchayat ensured that caste boundaries among the various
communities were upheld.
vi. Marriages were held in the presence of the mandal or headman.
61/1/1,2,3 5 P.T.O.
vii. Punch marked Coins.
viii. Development of agriculture.
ix. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be assessed)
24 (a)Analyse the Causes that led to the ruin of Vijayanagara empire. 173-174 3
i. .After the death of Krishnadeva Raya, strains began to appear within the
imperial structure.
ii.His successors were troubled by rebellious Nayaka or military chiefs.
iii. Military ambitions of the rulers of Vijayanagara and those of the Deccan
Sultanates resulted in shifting alignments.
iv. Rama Raya became the Chief Minister of Vijayanagara.
v.Rama Raya led the army against the sultans of Bijapur and Golconda.
vi. Battle of Talikota.
vii.Rama Raya was defeated and the city of Vijayanagara fell into ruins.
viii.Any other relevant point
( Any three points to be assessed)
OR
(b) Analyse why was Amara nayaka system considered as a major political
175 3
innovation of the Vijayanagara empire.
i. Many features of the Amara nayaka system were derived from the
Iqta system of Delhi Sultanate
ii. Amara nayakas were military commanders who were given some
territory to govern.
iii. They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftsperson
and traders.
iv. They retained part of the revenue for personal use.
v. They also maintained a contingent of horses and elephants, which
were used by the king as a fighting force.
vi. Amara nayakas sent tributes to the king annually.
vii. They personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to express
their loyalty.
viii. Any other relevant point.
( Any three points to be assessed)
25. Examine the role of Panchayat in advocating for the rights of common people 203-205 3
during the Mughal era.
i. Panchayats were an assembly of elders.
ii. It was a heterogeneous body.
iii. Decisions made by the Panchayats were binding on the members.
iv. Funds collected as contributions from individuals was used for
community welfare activities.
v. Panchayat ensured that caste boundaries among the various
communities were upheld.
vi. Marriages were held in the presence of the mandal or headman.
61/1/1,2,3 5 P.T.O.
Page 39
vii. Panchayats also had the authority to levy fines.
viii. They could inflict more serious forms of punishment – expulsion.
ix. Gram and jati panchayats settled disputes on land.
x. Panchayats received petitions from the common people including
women.
xi. The decisions of the Panchayat were respected by the state.
xii. Any other relevant point.
( Any three points to be assessed)
26. “The rebellion of 1857 was seen as a war in which both Hindus and Muslims 271 3
had equally to lose or gain.” Analyse the statement.
i. All sections of Indian population took part in the revolt of 1857.
ii. The rebel proclamations repeatedly appealed to all the people to join
the struggle.
iii. The ishtahars harked back to the pre-British Hindu-Muslim past and
glorified the coexistence of different communities under the Mughal
Empire.
iv. Muslim Princes also addressed the sentiments of the Hindus.
v. The proclamation that was issued under the name of Bahadur Shah
appealed to the people to join the fight under the standards of both
Muhammad and Mahavir.
vi. The Hindu Muslim unity could not be broken by the British.
vii. Activities of the Christian missionaries to convert Hindus and
Muslims led to fear of loss of caste and religion.
viii. Any other relevant point
(Any three points to be assessed)
27 Describe the role of Dr.B. R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly. 301, 320- 3
321 , 335
i. B.R. Ambedkar, a very important member of the Assembly was a
lawyer and an economist.
ii. He joined the Union Cabinet as law minister.
iii. He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
iv. He had the responsibility of guiding the Draft Constitution through the
Assembly.
v. He spoke in favour of a strong centre.
vi. No longer supported separate electorate.
vii. He presided over the discussion of the Hindu Code Bill.
viii. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be assessed)
SECTION-C
( Long Answers Type Questions) 8x3=24
28. (a) There were specific features of the familial relationship during the 55-60, 8
65,76
Mahabharata period.” Explain the statement with examples.
61/1/1,2,3 6
viii. They could inflict more serious forms of punishment – expulsion.
ix. Gram and jati panchayats settled disputes on land.
x. Panchayats received petitions from the common people including
women.
xi. The decisions of the Panchayat were respected by the state.
xii. Any other relevant point.
( Any three points to be assessed)
26. “The rebellion of 1857 was seen as a war in which both Hindus and Muslims 271 3
had equally to lose or gain.” Analyse the statement.
i. All sections of Indian population took part in the revolt of 1857.
ii. The rebel proclamations repeatedly appealed to all the people to join
the struggle.
iii. The ishtahars harked back to the pre-British Hindu-Muslim past and
glorified the coexistence of different communities under the Mughal
Empire.
iv. Muslim Princes also addressed the sentiments of the Hindus.
v. The proclamation that was issued under the name of Bahadur Shah
appealed to the people to join the fight under the standards of both
Muhammad and Mahavir.
vi. The Hindu Muslim unity could not be broken by the British.
vii. Activities of the Christian missionaries to convert Hindus and
Muslims led to fear of loss of caste and religion.
viii. Any other relevant point
(Any three points to be assessed)
27 Describe the role of Dr.B. R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly. 301, 320- 3
321 , 335
i. B.R. Ambedkar, a very important member of the Assembly was a
lawyer and an economist.
ii. He joined the Union Cabinet as law minister.
iii. He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
iv. He had the responsibility of guiding the Draft Constitution through the
Assembly.
v. He spoke in favour of a strong centre.
vi. No longer supported separate electorate.
vii. He presided over the discussion of the Hindu Code Bill.
viii. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be assessed)
SECTION-C
( Long Answers Type Questions) 8x3=24
28. (a) There were specific features of the familial relationship during the 55-60, 8
65,76
Mahabharata period.” Explain the statement with examples.
61/1/1,2,3 6
Page 40
i. Families are usually parts of larger networks of people defined as
relatives.
ii. Familial ties are often regarded as “natural” and based on blood but
they are defined in many different ways.
iii. Some societies regard cousins as being blood relations, whereas others
do not.
iv. The Mahabharata describes a feud over land and power between two
groups of cousins, the Kauravas and the Pandavas, who belonged to a
single ruling family.
v. The Pandavas emerged victorious and they proclaimed patrilineal
succession.
vi. While Patriliny had existed before the feud of Kauravas and Pandavas,
the story of Mahabharata reinforced the ideal of patriliny.
vii. Under patriliny, sons could claim the resources (including the throne
in the case of kings) of their fathers when the latter died.
viii. Most of the ruling dynasties from 6th Century BCE claimed to follow
this system.
ix. There were variations in practicing patriliny.
x. In some situations, brothers succeeded one another.
xi. Sometimes other kinsmen claimed the throne.
xii. In exceptional circumstances, women inherited the throne or ancestral
property , e.g Prabhavati Gupta.
xiii. The Brahmins laid down the codes of social behaviour.
xiv. The Brahmanical prescription was not followed by everybody.
xv. Many common people followed these rules.
xvi. There were eight different kinds of marriages – e.g. Draupadi’s
marriage, Bhīma’s marriage to Hidimba.
xvii. Gotra rules were not followed by all ruling dynasties – e.g.
Satavahanas.
xviii. Mothers had an important place in the family. But their advice was not
always upheld - eg Kunti and Gandhari.
xix. Respect was shown on the basis of hierarchy- caste and gender.
xx. Any other relevant points.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
OR
(b) “The political power or kingship was rarely dependent on birth as 62-63 8
Kshatriyas but also open to anyone who could muster support and resources.”
Explain the statement with the examples from sixth century BCE onwards.
i. According to Dharmashastras and Dharmasutras only Kshatriyas could
be the kings.
i. The Brahmanical prescription was not followed universally.
ii. Several important ruling lineages probably had different origins.
iii. There are several examples where the people of other caste and even
low origin became the rulers.
61/1/1,2,3 7 P.T.O.
relatives.
ii. Familial ties are often regarded as “natural” and based on blood but
they are defined in many different ways.
iii. Some societies regard cousins as being blood relations, whereas others
do not.
iv. The Mahabharata describes a feud over land and power between two
groups of cousins, the Kauravas and the Pandavas, who belonged to a
single ruling family.
v. The Pandavas emerged victorious and they proclaimed patrilineal
succession.
vi. While Patriliny had existed before the feud of Kauravas and Pandavas,
the story of Mahabharata reinforced the ideal of patriliny.
vii. Under patriliny, sons could claim the resources (including the throne
in the case of kings) of their fathers when the latter died.
viii. Most of the ruling dynasties from 6th Century BCE claimed to follow
this system.
ix. There were variations in practicing patriliny.
x. In some situations, brothers succeeded one another.
xi. Sometimes other kinsmen claimed the throne.
xii. In exceptional circumstances, women inherited the throne or ancestral
property , e.g Prabhavati Gupta.
xiii. The Brahmins laid down the codes of social behaviour.
xiv. The Brahmanical prescription was not followed by everybody.
xv. Many common people followed these rules.
xvi. There were eight different kinds of marriages – e.g. Draupadi’s
marriage, Bhīma’s marriage to Hidimba.
xvii. Gotra rules were not followed by all ruling dynasties – e.g.
Satavahanas.
xviii. Mothers had an important place in the family. But their advice was not
always upheld - eg Kunti and Gandhari.
xix. Respect was shown on the basis of hierarchy- caste and gender.
xx. Any other relevant points.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
OR
(b) “The political power or kingship was rarely dependent on birth as 62-63 8
Kshatriyas but also open to anyone who could muster support and resources.”
Explain the statement with the examples from sixth century BCE onwards.
i. According to Dharmashastras and Dharmasutras only Kshatriyas could
be the kings.
i. The Brahmanical prescription was not followed universally.
ii. Several important ruling lineages probably had different origins.
iii. There are several examples where the people of other caste and even
low origin became the rulers.
61/1/1,2,3 7 P.T.O.
Page 41
iv. The Buddhist texts suggest the social background of the Mauryas as
Kshatriyas, while Brahmanical texts describe them as being of “low”
origin.
v. The Shungas and Kanvas who ruled were Brahmins.
vi. Shakas who came from Central Asia were regarded as Mlechchhas.
vii. Some powerful mlechchhas were familiar with Sanskritic traditions.
viii. The Satavahana dynasty claimed to be Brahmanas-- for e.g Gotami
Puta Siri Satakani claimed to be a unique Brahmin and a destroyer of
the pride of the Kshatriyas.
ix. All this shows that anyone who could muster support can be a king.
x. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
29. (a) Explain the main beliefs and teachings of Guru Nanak Dev. 163 8
i. The message of Baba Guru Nanak is spelt out in his hymns and teachings.
ii. He advocated a form of nirguna bhakti.
iii. He repudiated the external practices of the religions.
iv. He rejected sacrifices, ritual baths, image worship, austerities and the
scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims.
v. The Absolute or “rab” had no gender or form.
vi. He proposed a simple way to connect to the Divine by remembering and
repeating the Divine Name.
vii. He expressed his ideas through hymns called “shabad”.
viii. He organised his followers into a community.
ix. He set up rules for congregational worship (sangat) involving collective
recitation.
x. He appointed one of his disciples, Angad, to succeed him as the preceptor
(guru).
xi. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
OR
(b) Explain the major beliefs and teachings of Chistis during medieval India.
i. A group of Sufis who migrated to India in the late 12th century were the 155-157 8
Chistis.
ii.They successfully adapted to Indian environment and traditions.
iii.The Khanqah was the centre of their social life.
iv. Shaikh Nizamuddin appointed several spiritual successors and deputed them
to set up hospices.
v. Pilgrimage to tombs of Sufi saints ( Ziyarat) is prevalent all over the Muslim
world.
vi. Most of the Chistis visit the tomb of Khwaja Moinuddin at Ajmer.
vii. Sultan Ghiyasuddin Khalji and Akbar visited Ajmer several times.
viii. A part of Ziyarat is the use of music or Qawwali at the tomb.
ix. In the khanqah, there was an open kitchen (langar), run on futuh (unasked-
for charity)
x. People from all walks of life were welcome.
xi. Chistis practiced bowing before the Shaikh.
61/1/1,2,3 8
Kshatriyas, while Brahmanical texts describe them as being of “low”
origin.
v. The Shungas and Kanvas who ruled were Brahmins.
vi. Shakas who came from Central Asia were regarded as Mlechchhas.
vii. Some powerful mlechchhas were familiar with Sanskritic traditions.
viii. The Satavahana dynasty claimed to be Brahmanas-- for e.g Gotami
Puta Siri Satakani claimed to be a unique Brahmin and a destroyer of
the pride of the Kshatriyas.
ix. All this shows that anyone who could muster support can be a king.
x. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
29. (a) Explain the main beliefs and teachings of Guru Nanak Dev. 163 8
i. The message of Baba Guru Nanak is spelt out in his hymns and teachings.
ii. He advocated a form of nirguna bhakti.
iii. He repudiated the external practices of the religions.
iv. He rejected sacrifices, ritual baths, image worship, austerities and the
scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims.
v. The Absolute or “rab” had no gender or form.
vi. He proposed a simple way to connect to the Divine by remembering and
repeating the Divine Name.
vii. He expressed his ideas through hymns called “shabad”.
viii. He organised his followers into a community.
ix. He set up rules for congregational worship (sangat) involving collective
recitation.
x. He appointed one of his disciples, Angad, to succeed him as the preceptor
(guru).
xi. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
OR
(b) Explain the major beliefs and teachings of Chistis during medieval India.
i. A group of Sufis who migrated to India in the late 12th century were the 155-157 8
Chistis.
ii.They successfully adapted to Indian environment and traditions.
iii.The Khanqah was the centre of their social life.
iv. Shaikh Nizamuddin appointed several spiritual successors and deputed them
to set up hospices.
v. Pilgrimage to tombs of Sufi saints ( Ziyarat) is prevalent all over the Muslim
world.
vi. Most of the Chistis visit the tomb of Khwaja Moinuddin at Ajmer.
vii. Sultan Ghiyasuddin Khalji and Akbar visited Ajmer several times.
viii. A part of Ziyarat is the use of music or Qawwali at the tomb.
ix. In the khanqah, there was an open kitchen (langar), run on futuh (unasked-
for charity)
x. People from all walks of life were welcome.
xi. Chistis practiced bowing before the Shaikh.
61/1/1,2,3 8
Page 42
xii. They offered water to visitors.
xiii. They had to shave the heads of initiates.
xiv. They practiced yogic exercises.
xv. The Sufis remember God by reciting the zikr (the Divine Names).
xvi. They evoked His Presence through sama.
xvii. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
30. (a)Analyse the impact of national movement in India from 1915 to 1931 on the 287-297 8
Indian masses.
i. Gandhiji became the undisputed leader of the masses.
ii. Major Satyagraha movements like –Champaran, Kheda and
Ahmedabad.
iii. Idea of Satyagraha gained momentum.
iv. Mass participation in Rowlatt Satyagraha.
v. Non-Cooperation Movement.
vi. Civil Disobedience Movement.
vii. Increase in the participation of people from different regions.
viii. Participation of people from different religious traditions.
ix. Promoted indigenous handicraft industries.
x. Khadi and Charkha became the symbol of national movement among
masses.
xi. Participation of women on a large scale.
xii. Ideas of self-reliance / Swadeshi gained strength.
xiii. Boycott of British goods and institutions.
xiv. Promoted Hindu Muslim unity.
xv. There was mass resignation from British offices and institutions.
xvi. Nonpayment of taxes.
xvii. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
OR
(b) Analyse the role of Gandhiji after Independence of India. 305-306 8
i. Gandhiji was not present at the festivities in the capital on 15 August 1947.
ii. On 15th August 1947, Gandhiji was in Kolkata.
iii. He spent the day fasting for 24 hrs.
iv. He did not attend any national function.
v. Gandhiji visited hospitals and refugee camps.
vi. He consoled the distressed people.
vii. He appealed to the Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims to forget the past and live in
harmony.
viii. After bringing peace in Bengal, he shifted to Delhi.
ix.In Delhi, Gandhiji appealed to all to live peacefully.
x. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
61/1/1,2,3 9 P.T.O.
xiii. They had to shave the heads of initiates.
xiv. They practiced yogic exercises.
xv. The Sufis remember God by reciting the zikr (the Divine Names).
xvi. They evoked His Presence through sama.
xvii. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
30. (a)Analyse the impact of national movement in India from 1915 to 1931 on the 287-297 8
Indian masses.
i. Gandhiji became the undisputed leader of the masses.
ii. Major Satyagraha movements like –Champaran, Kheda and
Ahmedabad.
iii. Idea of Satyagraha gained momentum.
iv. Mass participation in Rowlatt Satyagraha.
v. Non-Cooperation Movement.
vi. Civil Disobedience Movement.
vii. Increase in the participation of people from different regions.
viii. Participation of people from different religious traditions.
ix. Promoted indigenous handicraft industries.
x. Khadi and Charkha became the symbol of national movement among
masses.
xi. Participation of women on a large scale.
xii. Ideas of self-reliance / Swadeshi gained strength.
xiii. Boycott of British goods and institutions.
xiv. Promoted Hindu Muslim unity.
xv. There was mass resignation from British offices and institutions.
xvi. Nonpayment of taxes.
xvii. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
OR
(b) Analyse the role of Gandhiji after Independence of India. 305-306 8
i. Gandhiji was not present at the festivities in the capital on 15 August 1947.
ii. On 15th August 1947, Gandhiji was in Kolkata.
iii. He spent the day fasting for 24 hrs.
iv. He did not attend any national function.
v. Gandhiji visited hospitals and refugee camps.
vi. He consoled the distressed people.
vii. He appealed to the Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims to forget the past and live in
harmony.
viii. After bringing peace in Bengal, he shifted to Delhi.
ix.In Delhi, Gandhiji appealed to all to live peacefully.
x. Any other relevant point.
(Any eight points to be assessed)
61/1/1,2,3 9 P.T.O.
Page 43
SECTION –D
( Source Based Questions) 3x4=12
31. The most ancient system yet discovered 7
(31.1)Analyse the possible reason behind the uniformity in the drainage system 1
across the Harappan cities.
(a) Urban planning and engineering skills.
(b) Possible presence of central authority.
© Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be assessed) 1
(31.2) Analyse the implications of finding little heaps of material, mostly sand,
alongside drainage channels.
(a) Harappan Civilization had established regular maintenance practices for
their drainage system, but the debris was not always carted away when the
drain was cleared.
(31.3)Assess the impact of Harappan drainage system.
(a) The advanced Harappan drainage system suggests a highly organised 2
society with strong emphasis on public health and cleanliness.
(b)The integration of every house into the drainage network implies a relatively
egalitarian approach to urban amenities, where sanitation services were
accessible to all residents.
(c )The infrastructure likely improved the quality of life by reducing waste
related health issues and promoting a cleaner living environment.
(d) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be assessed)
32. A warning for Europe 132
(32.1)Mention any one prominent contribution of Bernier. 1
(a) He wrote a book on India ‘Travels in the Mughal Empire ‘.
(b) Made a comparative study of the east and the west.
(c ) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be assessed) 1
(32.2)How did Bernier describe the difference between European kingdom and
the Mughal territories?
(a) Bernier describes European Kingdoms as well cultivated, rich populous,
polite and flourishing, in contrast to what he perceives as the desolate and
neglected state of Mughal territories.
61/1/1,2,3 10
( Source Based Questions) 3x4=12
31. The most ancient system yet discovered 7
(31.1)Analyse the possible reason behind the uniformity in the drainage system 1
across the Harappan cities.
(a) Urban planning and engineering skills.
(b) Possible presence of central authority.
© Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be assessed) 1
(31.2) Analyse the implications of finding little heaps of material, mostly sand,
alongside drainage channels.
(a) Harappan Civilization had established regular maintenance practices for
their drainage system, but the debris was not always carted away when the
drain was cleared.
(31.3)Assess the impact of Harappan drainage system.
(a) The advanced Harappan drainage system suggests a highly organised 2
society with strong emphasis on public health and cleanliness.
(b)The integration of every house into the drainage network implies a relatively
egalitarian approach to urban amenities, where sanitation services were
accessible to all residents.
(c )The infrastructure likely improved the quality of life by reducing waste
related health issues and promoting a cleaner living environment.
(d) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be assessed)
32. A warning for Europe 132
(32.1)Mention any one prominent contribution of Bernier. 1
(a) He wrote a book on India ‘Travels in the Mughal Empire ‘.
(b) Made a comparative study of the east and the west.
(c ) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be assessed) 1
(32.2)How did Bernier describe the difference between European kingdom and
the Mughal territories?
(a) Bernier describes European Kingdoms as well cultivated, rich populous,
polite and flourishing, in contrast to what he perceives as the desolate and
neglected state of Mughal territories.
61/1/1,2,3 10
Page 44
(b) Bernier warned that if European kings followed the Mughal model they
would fall into ruin.
(c) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be assessed)
(32.3)Explain Bernier’s views on the socio economic status of 2
the people under
Mughal rule.
(a) The absence of private property in land prevented the emergence of the
class of “improving” landlords
(b) Uniform ruination of agriculture, excessive oppression of the peasantry and
a continuous decline in the living standards of all sections of society, except
the ruling aristocracy.
(c) The people were reduced to beggars and barbarians, showing a significant
decline in socio-economic status and overall quality of life.
(d) The artisans had no incentive to improve the quality of their manufactures,
since profits were appropriated by the state.
(e) There was the existence of a prosperous merchant community, who were
engaged in long-distance exchange.
(f) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be assessed)
33. On clearance and settled cultivation 245
(33.1)How did Buchanan describe the view of the lower Rajmahal hills? 1
(a)Buchanan described the view as exceedingly fine, with narrow valleys of rice
winding in all directions, clear lands with scattered trees and rocky hills.
(33.2) Why did Buchanan believe that the area had high potential for improved
cultivation?
(a) Forest land could be cleared for cultivation. 1
(b) The land was fertile and fit for agriculture.
(c ) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be assessed)
(33.3)How did Buchanan propose utilizing the land for economic benefits?
2
(a) Proposed utilizing the land by replacing wood with valuable plantations like
Asan and palas, for silk and lac production.
(b) Land under forest could be cleared and brought under cultivation.
(c) Land not fit for cultivation could be used to rear Palmira and Mowa.
(d) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be assessed)
SECTION –E
( Map Based Question) 5
61/1/1,2,3 11 P.T.O.
would fall into ruin.
(c) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be assessed)
(32.3)Explain Bernier’s views on the socio economic status of 2
the people under
Mughal rule.
(a) The absence of private property in land prevented the emergence of the
class of “improving” landlords
(b) Uniform ruination of agriculture, excessive oppression of the peasantry and
a continuous decline in the living standards of all sections of society, except
the ruling aristocracy.
(c) The people were reduced to beggars and barbarians, showing a significant
decline in socio-economic status and overall quality of life.
(d) The artisans had no incentive to improve the quality of their manufactures,
since profits were appropriated by the state.
(e) There was the existence of a prosperous merchant community, who were
engaged in long-distance exchange.
(f) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be assessed)
33. On clearance and settled cultivation 245
(33.1)How did Buchanan describe the view of the lower Rajmahal hills? 1
(a)Buchanan described the view as exceedingly fine, with narrow valleys of rice
winding in all directions, clear lands with scattered trees and rocky hills.
(33.2) Why did Buchanan believe that the area had high potential for improved
cultivation?
(a) Forest land could be cleared for cultivation. 1
(b) The land was fertile and fit for agriculture.
(c ) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be assessed)
(33.3)How did Buchanan propose utilizing the land for economic benefits?
2
(a) Proposed utilizing the land by replacing wood with valuable plantations like
Asan and palas, for silk and lac production.
(b) Land under forest could be cleared and brought under cultivation.
(c) Land not fit for cultivation could be used to rear Palmira and Mowa.
(d) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be assessed)
SECTION –E
( Map Based Question) 5
61/1/1,2,3 11 P.T.O.
Page 45
34. (34.1) On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following with 31=3
appropriate symbols :
(i) Kalibanga – a mature Harappan site 1
(ii) Amravati – a Buddhist site 1
(iii) (a) Amber− a territory under the Mughals 1
OR
(iii) (b) Bijapur – an important town of medieval India 1
(34.2) On the same outline map of India, two places have been marked as A and B,
as the centres of the Revolt of 1857. Identify them and write their correct names on 2
the lines drawn near them.
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only,
in lieu of Q. No. 34 :
1
(34.1) Mention any one mature Harappan site in India.
1
(34.2) Mention any one Buddhist site in India.
(34.3) (a) Name any one territory under the Mughal.
1
OR
(b) Name the capital of the Vijayanagara empire.
1
(34.4) Write any two important centres of the Revolt of 1857.
2
61/1/1,2,3 12
appropriate symbols :
(i) Kalibanga – a mature Harappan site 1
(ii) Amravati – a Buddhist site 1
(iii) (a) Amber− a territory under the Mughals 1
OR
(iii) (b) Bijapur – an important town of medieval India 1
(34.2) On the same outline map of India, two places have been marked as A and B,
as the centres of the Revolt of 1857. Identify them and write their correct names on 2
the lines drawn near them.
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only,
in lieu of Q. No. 34 :
1
(34.1) Mention any one mature Harappan site in India.
1
(34.2) Mention any one Buddhist site in India.
(34.3) (a) Name any one territory under the Mughal.
1
OR
(b) Name the capital of the Vijayanagara empire.
1
(34.4) Write any two important centres of the Revolt of 1857.
2
61/1/1,2,3 12
Page 46
61/1/1,2,3 13 P.T.O.
Page 47
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Document Details
| Board / Org | Aglasem |
| Exam | Class 12 |
| Type | Question Paper |
| Pages | 47 |
| Updated | 24 Sep 2026 |