GATE 2024 Question Paper for Life Sciences (XL)
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Page 1
GATE
2024
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.
2024
Question Paper | Answer Key
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
(GATE) is a prestigious national-level exam
that assesses candidates for
comprehensive understanding in various
undergraduate-level subjects in
Engineering, Technology, Science,
Architecture, and Humanities.
Page 2
General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words
[walk → jog → sprint] is analogous to [bothered → ________ → daunted].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?
(A) phased
(B) phrased
(C) fazed
(D) fused
Q.2 Two wizards try to create a spell using all the four elements, water, air, fire, and
earth. For this, they decide to mix all these elements in all possible orders. They
also decide to work independently. After trying all possible combination of
elements, they conclude that the spell does not work.
How many attempts does each wizard make before coming to this conclusion,
independently?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 16
(D) 12
Page 1 of 71
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words
[walk → jog → sprint] is analogous to [bothered → ________ → daunted].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?
(A) phased
(B) phrased
(C) fazed
(D) fused
Q.2 Two wizards try to create a spell using all the four elements, water, air, fire, and
earth. For this, they decide to mix all these elements in all possible orders. They
also decide to work independently. After trying all possible combination of
elements, they conclude that the spell does not work.
How many attempts does each wizard make before coming to this conclusion,
independently?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 16
(D) 12
Page 1 of 71
Page 3
Q.3 In an engineering college of 10,000 students, 1,500 like neither their core branches
nor other branches. The number of students who like their core branches is 1/4th of
the number of students who like other branches. The number of students who like
both their core and other branches is 500.
The number of students who like their core branches is
(A) 1,800
(B) 3,500
(C) 1,600
(D) 1,500
Q.4 For positive non-zero real variables 𝑥 and 𝑦, if
𝑥+𝑦 1
ln ( ) = [ln(𝑥) + ln(𝑦)]
2 2
𝑥 𝑦
then, the value of + is
𝑦 𝑥
(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) 2
(D) 4
Page 2 of 71
nor other branches. The number of students who like their core branches is 1/4th of
the number of students who like other branches. The number of students who like
both their core and other branches is 500.
The number of students who like their core branches is
(A) 1,800
(B) 3,500
(C) 1,600
(D) 1,500
Q.4 For positive non-zero real variables 𝑥 and 𝑦, if
𝑥+𝑦 1
ln ( ) = [ln(𝑥) + ln(𝑦)]
2 2
𝑥 𝑦
then, the value of + is
𝑦 𝑥
(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) 2
(D) 4
Page 2 of 71
Page 4
Q.5 In the sequence 6, 9, 14, x, 30, 41, a possible value of 𝑥 is
(A) 25
(B) 21
(C) 18
(D) 20
Page 3 of 71
(A) 25
(B) 21
(C) 18
(D) 20
Page 3 of 71
Page 5
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 Sequence the following sentences in a coherent passage.
P: This fortuitous geological event generated a colossal amount of energy and
heat that resulted in the rocks rising to an average height of 4 km across the
contact zone.
Q: Thus, the geophysicists tend to think of the Himalayas as an active geological
event rather than as a static geological feature.
R: The natural process of the cooling of this massive edifice absorbed large
quantities of atmospheric carbon dioxide, altering the earth’s atmosphere and
making it better suited for life.
S: Many millennia ago, a breakaway chunk of bedrock from the Antarctic Plate
collided with the massive Eurasian Plate.
(A) QPSR
(B) QSPR
(C) SPRQ
(D) SRPQ
Page 4 of 71
Q.6 Sequence the following sentences in a coherent passage.
P: This fortuitous geological event generated a colossal amount of energy and
heat that resulted in the rocks rising to an average height of 4 km across the
contact zone.
Q: Thus, the geophysicists tend to think of the Himalayas as an active geological
event rather than as a static geological feature.
R: The natural process of the cooling of this massive edifice absorbed large
quantities of atmospheric carbon dioxide, altering the earth’s atmosphere and
making it better suited for life.
S: Many millennia ago, a breakaway chunk of bedrock from the Antarctic Plate
collided with the massive Eurasian Plate.
(A) QPSR
(B) QSPR
(C) SPRQ
(D) SRPQ
Page 4 of 71
Page 6
Q.7 A person sold two different items at the same price. He made 10% profit in one
item, and 10% loss in the other item. In selling these two items, the person made a
total of
(A) 1% profit
(B) 2% profit
(C) 1% loss
(D) 2% loss
Page 5 of 71
item, and 10% loss in the other item. In selling these two items, the person made a
total of
(A) 1% profit
(B) 2% profit
(C) 1% loss
(D) 2% loss
Page 5 of 71
Page 7
Q.8 The pie charts depict the shares of various power generation technologies in the
total electricity generation of a country for the years 2007 and 2023.
Year Solar Year
2007 5% 2023
Solar Coal
Coal 20% 20%
Hydro
35%
30% Gas
15%
Hydro
Gas 35%
25%
Wind
Wind
10%
5%
The renewable sources of electricity generation consist of Hydro, Solar and Wind.
Assuming that the total electricity generated remains the same from 2007 to 2023,
what is the percentage increase in the share of the renewable sources of electricity
generation over this period?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 77.5%
(D) 62.5%
Page 6 of 71
total electricity generation of a country for the years 2007 and 2023.
Year Solar Year
2007 5% 2023
Solar Coal
Coal 20% 20%
Hydro
35%
30% Gas
15%
Hydro
Gas 35%
25%
Wind
Wind
10%
5%
The renewable sources of electricity generation consist of Hydro, Solar and Wind.
Assuming that the total electricity generated remains the same from 2007 to 2023,
what is the percentage increase in the share of the renewable sources of electricity
generation over this period?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 77.5%
(D) 62.5%
Page 6 of 71
Page 8
Q.9 A cube is to be cut into 8 pieces of equal size and shape. Here, each cut should be
straight and it should not stop till it reaches the other end of the cube.
The minimum number of such cuts required is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 8
Page 7 of 71
straight and it should not stop till it reaches the other end of the cube.
The minimum number of such cuts required is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 8
Page 7 of 71
Page 9
Q.10 In the 4 × 4 array shown below, each cell of the first three rows has either a
cross (X) or a number.
The number in a cell represents the count of the immediate neighboring cells
(left, right, top, bottom, diagonals) NOT having a cross (X). Given that the last row
has no crosses (X), the sum of the four numbers to be filled in the last row is
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
Page 8 of 71
cross (X) or a number.
The number in a cell represents the count of the immediate neighboring cells
(left, right, top, bottom, diagonals) NOT having a cross (X). Given that the last row
has no crosses (X), the sum of the four numbers to be filled in the last row is
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
Page 8 of 71
Page 10
Chemistry (XL - P) - (Compulsory)
Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The CORRECT order of electronegativity is
(A) Al > Si > P > S
(B) Al > S > Si > P
(C) S > Si > Al > P
(D) S > P > Si > Al
Page 9 of 71
Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The CORRECT order of electronegativity is
(A) Al > Si > P > S
(B) Al > S > Si > P
(C) S > Si > Al > P
(D) S > P > Si > Al
Page 9 of 71
Page 11
Q.12 Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the variation of the
Gibbs free energy (G) of a substance with temperature (T) at constant pressure?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 10 of 71
Gibbs free energy (G) of a substance with temperature (T) at constant pressure?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 10 of 71
Page 12
Q.13 Among the following, the structure representing histidine is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 11 of 71
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 11 of 71
Page 13
Q.14 The CORRECT order of acidity of the following compounds is
(A) I > II > III
(B) II > III > I
(C) I > III > II
(D) III > II > I
Q.15 The molecules A and B are a pair of ____________.
(A) enantiomers
(B) diastereomers
(C) conformational isomers
(D) constitutional isomers
Page 12 of 71
(A) I > II > III
(B) II > III > I
(C) I > III > II
(D) III > II > I
Q.15 The molecules A and B are a pair of ____________.
(A) enantiomers
(B) diastereomers
(C) conformational isomers
(D) constitutional isomers
Page 12 of 71
Page 14
Q.16 The CORRECT option(s) of Y for the following reaction is/are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 13 of 71
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 13 of 71
Page 15
Q.17 The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the shell with
n = 2 is ________ (in integer).
(Given: n = principal quantum number)
Q.18 One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly to double its volume.
If the expansion work done by the system is 1728.85 J, the temperature of the system
is _____ K (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
(Given: Gas constant, R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
Q.19 The initial rate of a reaction triples when the concentration of a reactant, A, is
doubled. The order of the reaction with respect to A is _______ (rounded off to 2
decimal places).
Page 14 of 71
n = 2 is ________ (in integer).
(Given: n = principal quantum number)
Q.18 One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly to double its volume.
If the expansion work done by the system is 1728.85 J, the temperature of the system
is _____ K (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
(Given: Gas constant, R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
Q.19 The initial rate of a reaction triples when the concentration of a reactant, A, is
doubled. The order of the reaction with respect to A is _______ (rounded off to 2
decimal places).
Page 14 of 71
Page 16
Q.20 – Q.27 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.20 Each of the following alkenes undergoes addition reaction with bromine. Under the
same reaction conditions, the CORRECT trend in the reaction rates
is
(A) I > II > III
(B) II > III > I
(C) I > III > II
(D) III > II > I
Q.21 An enzyme-catalyzed conversion of a substrate at 298 K proceeds by a Michaelis-
Menten mechanism. The Lineweaver-Burk plot for the analysis of the experimental
data has an intercept along the y-axis of 0.357 mmol–1 dm3 s and a slope of 2.10 s.
The CORRECT Michaelis constant for the reaction is ________ (rounded off to 2
decimal places).
(A) 5.88 mmol dm–3
(B) 5.88 mmol dm–3 s–1
(C) 2.80 mmol dm–3
(D) 2.80 mmol dm–3 s–1
Page 15 of 71
Q.20 Each of the following alkenes undergoes addition reaction with bromine. Under the
same reaction conditions, the CORRECT trend in the reaction rates
is
(A) I > II > III
(B) II > III > I
(C) I > III > II
(D) III > II > I
Q.21 An enzyme-catalyzed conversion of a substrate at 298 K proceeds by a Michaelis-
Menten mechanism. The Lineweaver-Burk plot for the analysis of the experimental
data has an intercept along the y-axis of 0.357 mmol–1 dm3 s and a slope of 2.10 s.
The CORRECT Michaelis constant for the reaction is ________ (rounded off to 2
decimal places).
(A) 5.88 mmol dm–3
(B) 5.88 mmol dm–3 s–1
(C) 2.80 mmol dm–3
(D) 2.80 mmol dm–3 s–1
Page 15 of 71
Page 17
Q.22 Which one among the following structures is the most stable conformer of
(Z)-pent-2-ene?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 16 of 71
(Z)-pent-2-ene?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 16 of 71
Page 18
Q.23 Upon addition of compound X to an aqueous AgNO3 solution, a white precipitate
appears instantly. Also, X does not exhibit geometrical isomerism.
The CORRECT option(s) for X is/are
(A) [Cr(OH2)4Cl2]Cl
(B) [Cr(OH2)5Cl]Cl2
(C) [Cr(OH2)6]Cl3
(D) [Cr(OH2)3Cl3]
Q.24 The paramagnetic species among the following is/are
(Given: Atomic numbers of Cr = 24; Fe = 26; Ni = 28)
(A) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(B) [Ni(OH2)6]2+
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(D) [Cr(CN)6]3–
Page 17 of 71
appears instantly. Also, X does not exhibit geometrical isomerism.
The CORRECT option(s) for X is/are
(A) [Cr(OH2)4Cl2]Cl
(B) [Cr(OH2)5Cl]Cl2
(C) [Cr(OH2)6]Cl3
(D) [Cr(OH2)3Cl3]
Q.24 The paramagnetic species among the following is/are
(Given: Atomic numbers of Cr = 24; Fe = 26; Ni = 28)
(A) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(B) [Ni(OH2)6]2+
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(D) [Cr(CN)6]3–
Page 17 of 71
Page 19
Q.25 The molecule(s) with non-zero dipole moment is/are
(A) N2
(B) CO2
(C) NO
(D) SO2
Q.26 The ionic product of water at 40 ℃ is 2.92 × 10–14 M2. The pH of water at
40 ℃ is ___________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Q.27 Given the standard reduction potentials (𝐸 ⊖ )for the half-cell reactions below, the
standard Gibbs free energy of the dissolution of silver chloride in water, at 298 K,
is _____________ J mol–1 (rounded off to nearest integer).
(Given: Faraday constant, F = 96500 C mol–1; J = C × V)
AgCl(s) + 𝑒 − → Ag(s) + Cl− (aq) ; 𝐸 ⊖ = 0.22 V at 298 K
Ag + (aq) + 𝑒 − → Ag(s) ; 𝐸 ⊖ = 0.80 V at 298 K
Page 18 of 71
(A) N2
(B) CO2
(C) NO
(D) SO2
Q.26 The ionic product of water at 40 ℃ is 2.92 × 10–14 M2. The pH of water at
40 ℃ is ___________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Q.27 Given the standard reduction potentials (𝐸 ⊖ )for the half-cell reactions below, the
standard Gibbs free energy of the dissolution of silver chloride in water, at 298 K,
is _____________ J mol–1 (rounded off to nearest integer).
(Given: Faraday constant, F = 96500 C mol–1; J = C × V)
AgCl(s) + 𝑒 − → Ag(s) + Cl− (aq) ; 𝐸 ⊖ = 0.22 V at 298 K
Ag + (aq) + 𝑒 − → Ag(s) ; 𝐸 ⊖ = 0.80 V at 298 K
Page 18 of 71
Page 20
Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.28 Which one of the following pairs of amino acids is NOT incorporated in a
polypeptide chain?
(A) 4-Hydroxyproline and γ-carboxyglutamate
(B) γ-Carboxyglutamate and desmosine
(C) Ornithine and citrulline
(D) 4-Hydroxyproline and 5-hydroxylysine
Q.29 Mammalian cells cultured at low temperature (25 to 30 C) leads to an increased
sterol content in the membrane. Elevated sterols in the membrane results in
(A) an enhancement in membrane fluidity.
(B) stabilization of membrane proteins.
(C) an increase in membrane permeability to water.
(D) a decrease in membrane fluidity.
Page 19 of 71
Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.28 Which one of the following pairs of amino acids is NOT incorporated in a
polypeptide chain?
(A) 4-Hydroxyproline and γ-carboxyglutamate
(B) γ-Carboxyglutamate and desmosine
(C) Ornithine and citrulline
(D) 4-Hydroxyproline and 5-hydroxylysine
Q.29 Mammalian cells cultured at low temperature (25 to 30 C) leads to an increased
sterol content in the membrane. Elevated sterols in the membrane results in
(A) an enhancement in membrane fluidity.
(B) stabilization of membrane proteins.
(C) an increase in membrane permeability to water.
(D) a decrease in membrane fluidity.
Page 19 of 71
Page 21
Q.30 Which one of the following metabolic intermediates is common to glycolysis,
nucleotide synthesis and glycogen synthesis?
(A) Citrate
(B) Oxaloacetate
(C) Glucose 6-phosphate
(D) Glycerol 3-phosphate
Q.31 In mammals, hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to different types of blood
cells are known as
(A) totipotent stem cells.
(B) pluripotent stem cells.
(C) myeloid progenitor cells.
(D) lymphoid progenitor cells.
Page 20 of 71
nucleotide synthesis and glycogen synthesis?
(A) Citrate
(B) Oxaloacetate
(C) Glucose 6-phosphate
(D) Glycerol 3-phosphate
Q.31 In mammals, hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to different types of blood
cells are known as
(A) totipotent stem cells.
(B) pluripotent stem cells.
(C) myeloid progenitor cells.
(D) lymphoid progenitor cells.
Page 20 of 71
Page 22
Q.32 Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the addition
of N-nucleotides during the rearrangement of the immunoglobulin heavy chain-
encoding gene?
(A) Addition of N-nucleotides is template encoded.
(B) N-nucleotides are added by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase.
(C) The added N-nucleotides are common in V-D and D-J junction.
(D) N-nucleotides are added by the DNA polymerase II.
Q.33 A newly identified viral protein contains one long α-helix spanning 60 amino acid
residues. The number of main chain H-bonds formed in this helix is __________.
(Answer in integer)
Q.34 In a lactic acid solution at pH 4.8, the concentrations of lactic acid and lactate are
0.01 M and 0.087 M, respectively. The calculated pKa of lactic acid is ________.
(Round off to one decimal place)
Q.35 If a 10 mM solution of a biomolecule in a cuvette of path length 10 mm absorbs
90% of the incident light at 280 nm, the molar extinction coefficient of the
biomolecule at this wavelength is _____________ M-1cm-1.
(Round off to two decimal places)
Page 21 of 71
of N-nucleotides during the rearrangement of the immunoglobulin heavy chain-
encoding gene?
(A) Addition of N-nucleotides is template encoded.
(B) N-nucleotides are added by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase.
(C) The added N-nucleotides are common in V-D and D-J junction.
(D) N-nucleotides are added by the DNA polymerase II.
Q.33 A newly identified viral protein contains one long α-helix spanning 60 amino acid
residues. The number of main chain H-bonds formed in this helix is __________.
(Answer in integer)
Q.34 In a lactic acid solution at pH 4.8, the concentrations of lactic acid and lactate are
0.01 M and 0.087 M, respectively. The calculated pKa of lactic acid is ________.
(Round off to one decimal place)
Q.35 If a 10 mM solution of a biomolecule in a cuvette of path length 10 mm absorbs
90% of the incident light at 280 nm, the molar extinction coefficient of the
biomolecule at this wavelength is _____________ M-1cm-1.
(Round off to two decimal places)
Page 21 of 71
Page 23
Q.36 – Q.46 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 Metabolic intermediates provide the backbone for the synthesis of amino acids.
Match the metabolic intermediates listed in Column I with their corresponding
amino acids given in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. α-Ketoglutarate i. Histidine
Q. Ribose 5-phosphate ii. Glutamate
R. 3-Phosphoglycerate iii. Aspartate
S. Phosphoenolpyruvate iv. Phenylalanine
v. Serine
(A) P-ii; Q-i; R-v; S-iv
(B) P-iii; Q-ii; R-i; S-v
(C) P-iv; Q-iii; R-ii; S-v
(D) P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-v
Page 22 of 71
Q.36 Metabolic intermediates provide the backbone for the synthesis of amino acids.
Match the metabolic intermediates listed in Column I with their corresponding
amino acids given in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. α-Ketoglutarate i. Histidine
Q. Ribose 5-phosphate ii. Glutamate
R. 3-Phosphoglycerate iii. Aspartate
S. Phosphoenolpyruvate iv. Phenylalanine
v. Serine
(A) P-ii; Q-i; R-v; S-iv
(B) P-iii; Q-ii; R-i; S-v
(C) P-iv; Q-iii; R-ii; S-v
(D) P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-v
Page 22 of 71
Page 24
Q.37 Which one of the following is the correct match between the molecular properties
listed in Column I and the corresponding biochemical separation methods in
Column II?
Column I Column II
P. Solubility i. Reverse phase chromatography
Q. Ionic charge ii. Ultracentrifugation
R. Polarity iii. Salting out
S. Molecular size iv. Isoelectric focusing
v. Gel electrophoresis
(A) P-i; Q-ii; R-v; S-iii
(B) P-iii; Q-iv; R-ii; S-i
(C) P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii
(D) P-v; Q-iv; R-iii; S-ii
Page 23 of 71
listed in Column I and the corresponding biochemical separation methods in
Column II?
Column I Column II
P. Solubility i. Reverse phase chromatography
Q. Ionic charge ii. Ultracentrifugation
R. Polarity iii. Salting out
S. Molecular size iv. Isoelectric focusing
v. Gel electrophoresis
(A) P-i; Q-ii; R-v; S-iii
(B) P-iii; Q-iv; R-ii; S-i
(C) P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii
(D) P-v; Q-iv; R-iii; S-ii
Page 23 of 71
Page 25
Q.38 Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct regarding the
electromotive force generated by electron transfer chain?
(A) It is used for the synthesis of ATP.
(B) It is not used for active transport process.
(C) It includes a pH gradient component.
(D) It does not include an electrical potential gradient component.
Page 24 of 71
electromotive force generated by electron transfer chain?
(A) It is used for the synthesis of ATP.
(B) It is not used for active transport process.
(C) It includes a pH gradient component.
(D) It does not include an electrical potential gradient component.
Page 24 of 71
Page 26
Q.39 Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct regarding the transport
and retention of proteins in different cell organelles?
(A) Mannose 6-phosphate residues are involved in targeting proteins to lysosomes.
(B) Transport of proteins into the mitochondrial compartment is aided by positively
charged amino acid residues at the N-terminus and internal hydrophobic segments.
(C) The retention of protein in the ER lumen requires the KDEL sequence motif at the
C-terminus.
(D) Nuclear proteins are transported in an unfolded conformation and the nuclear
localization signal sequence is subsequently cleaved by peptidases in the
nucleoplasm.
Q.40 Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s)
fluorescence spectroscopy?
(A) The emission maxima (λmax) is independent of the excitation wavelength.
(B) The emission maxima (λmax) depends on the concentration of a quencher.
(C) The emission maxima (λmax) varies with solvent polarity.
(D) The emission maxima (λmax) varies with temperature.
Page 25 of 71
and retention of proteins in different cell organelles?
(A) Mannose 6-phosphate residues are involved in targeting proteins to lysosomes.
(B) Transport of proteins into the mitochondrial compartment is aided by positively
charged amino acid residues at the N-terminus and internal hydrophobic segments.
(C) The retention of protein in the ER lumen requires the KDEL sequence motif at the
C-terminus.
(D) Nuclear proteins are transported in an unfolded conformation and the nuclear
localization signal sequence is subsequently cleaved by peptidases in the
nucleoplasm.
Q.40 Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s)
fluorescence spectroscopy?
(A) The emission maxima (λmax) is independent of the excitation wavelength.
(B) The emission maxima (λmax) depends on the concentration of a quencher.
(C) The emission maxima (λmax) varies with solvent polarity.
(D) The emission maxima (λmax) varies with temperature.
Page 25 of 71
Page 27
Q.41 Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct in the processing of
pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?
(A) 3 → 5 exonuclease activity is involved in the conversion of pre-mRNA to mRNA.
(B) 5– capping and addition of 3– poly A tail precedes splicing.
(C) Splicing of pre-mRNA occurs via transesterification reaction.
(D) Alternative splicing can yield different mRNA products from the same pre-mRNA.
Q.42 Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the changes
upon the addition of puromycin during eukaryotic translation?
(A) Puromycin resembles aminoacyl end of the charged tRNA.
(B) Puromycin occupies the A site of the translating ribosomes.
(C) Puromycin occupies the P site of the translating ribosomes.
(D) Puromycin occupies the E site of the translating ribosomes.
Page 26 of 71
pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?
(A) 3 → 5 exonuclease activity is involved in the conversion of pre-mRNA to mRNA.
(B) 5– capping and addition of 3– poly A tail precedes splicing.
(C) Splicing of pre-mRNA occurs via transesterification reaction.
(D) Alternative splicing can yield different mRNA products from the same pre-mRNA.
Q.42 Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the changes
upon the addition of puromycin during eukaryotic translation?
(A) Puromycin resembles aminoacyl end of the charged tRNA.
(B) Puromycin occupies the A site of the translating ribosomes.
(C) Puromycin occupies the P site of the translating ribosomes.
(D) Puromycin occupies the E site of the translating ribosomes.
Page 26 of 71
Page 28
Q.43 Factor H, a complement regulatory protein in plasma, binds C3b and
(A) competes with factor B to displace Bb from convertase.
(B) initiates the catabolism of C3b into inactivate products.
(C) then binds to C3bBb convertase.
(D) acts as a cofactor for factor I.
𝑣0
Q.44 In Michaelis-Menten’s equation, if [S] = 15 Km , then the ratio is __________.
𝑉max
(Round off to three decimal places)
Q.45 A 5250 base-pair long plasmid with 10 negative supercoils would have a linking
number of ____________, considering 10.5 base pairs per turn for B DNA.
(Answer in integer)
Page 27 of 71
(A) competes with factor B to displace Bb from convertase.
(B) initiates the catabolism of C3b into inactivate products.
(C) then binds to C3bBb convertase.
(D) acts as a cofactor for factor I.
𝑣0
Q.44 In Michaelis-Menten’s equation, if [S] = 15 Km , then the ratio is __________.
𝑉max
(Round off to three decimal places)
Q.45 A 5250 base-pair long plasmid with 10 negative supercoils would have a linking
number of ____________, considering 10.5 base pairs per turn for B DNA.
(Answer in integer)
Page 27 of 71
Page 29
Q.46 The spectrum of a protein obtained using electrospray ionization mass
spectrometry (ESI-MS) is shown below. Two peaks, one at m/z = 2960.6 and the
other at m/z = 3552.5, are marked. The mass of the protein associated with the
m/z = 2960.6 peak is __________ Da. (Round off to two decimal places)
Page 28 of 71
spectrometry (ESI-MS) is shown below. Two peaks, one at m/z = 2960.6 and the
other at m/z = 3552.5, are marked. The mass of the protein associated with the
m/z = 2960.6 peak is __________ Da. (Round off to two decimal places)
Page 28 of 71
Page 30
Botany (XL-R)
Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.47 Which one of the following plant families does apple (Malus domestica) belong to?
(A) Rosaceae
(B) Rutaceae
(C) Rubiaceae
(D) Ranunculaceae
Q.48 The collateral and open type of vascular bundle with endarch xylem strand is
usually found in
(A) monocot stem
(B) dicot stem
(C) monocot root
(D) dicot root
Page 29 of 71
Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.47 Which one of the following plant families does apple (Malus domestica) belong to?
(A) Rosaceae
(B) Rutaceae
(C) Rubiaceae
(D) Ranunculaceae
Q.48 The collateral and open type of vascular bundle with endarch xylem strand is
usually found in
(A) monocot stem
(B) dicot stem
(C) monocot root
(D) dicot root
Page 29 of 71
Page 31
Q.49 Which of the following tissue types is/are established during embryogenesis in
wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana?
(A) Shoot apical meristem
(B) Rosette leaf primordium
(C) Procambium
(D) Lateral root primordium
Q.50 Which of the following plant natural products is/are cyanogenic glycoside(s)?
(A) Linustatin
(B) Limonene
(C) Luteolin
(D) Linamarin
Page 30 of 71
wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana?
(A) Shoot apical meristem
(B) Rosette leaf primordium
(C) Procambium
(D) Lateral root primordium
Q.50 Which of the following plant natural products is/are cyanogenic glycoside(s)?
(A) Linustatin
(B) Limonene
(C) Luteolin
(D) Linamarin
Page 30 of 71
Page 32
Q.51 Which of the following plant diseases is/are caused by nematode?
(A) Cereal cyst of barley
(B) Ergot of rye
(C) Wart of potato
(D) Ear-cockle of wheat
Q.52 Which of the following selectable marker genes is/are used for herbicide tolerance
during genetic transformation of plants?
(A) hpt
(B) bar
(C) nptII
(D) pmi
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(A) Cereal cyst of barley
(B) Ergot of rye
(C) Wart of potato
(D) Ear-cockle of wheat
Q.52 Which of the following selectable marker genes is/are used for herbicide tolerance
during genetic transformation of plants?
(A) hpt
(B) bar
(C) nptII
(D) pmi
Page 31 of 71
Page 33
Q.53 Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT with reference to rubber
production from plants?
(A) Para rubber is produced from Hevea brasiliensis
(B) India rubber is produced from Ficus elastica
(C) Panama rubber is produced from Manihot glaziovii
(D) Ceara rubber is produced from Castilla elastica
Q.54 In Calvin-Benson cycle, to produce 1 molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate by
fixing 3 molecules of carbon dioxide, 9 molecules of ATP and ________ molecules
(in integer) of NADPH are typically utilized.
Page 32 of 71
production from plants?
(A) Para rubber is produced from Hevea brasiliensis
(B) India rubber is produced from Ficus elastica
(C) Panama rubber is produced from Manihot glaziovii
(D) Ceara rubber is produced from Castilla elastica
Q.54 In Calvin-Benson cycle, to produce 1 molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate by
fixing 3 molecules of carbon dioxide, 9 molecules of ATP and ________ molecules
(in integer) of NADPH are typically utilized.
Page 32 of 71
Page 34
Q.55– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.55 In wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana, the four types of floral organs (sepal, petal,
stamen, carpel) are arranged in concentric whorls from outside to inside. With
reference to the ABC model of floral organ patterning, match the homeotic mutants
in Group 1 with their respective arrangements of organs in the four whorls given
in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) A class mutants (i) sepal, sepal, carpel, carpel
(Q) B class mutants (ii) sepal, petal, petal, sepal
(R) C class mutants (iii) carpel, stamen, stamen, carpel
(iv) sepal, sepal, petal, petal
(A) P−iv, Q−ii, R−i
(B) P−iii, Q−i, R−ii
(C) P−ii, Q−i, R−iii
(D) P−iii, Q−i, R−iv
Page 33 of 71
Q.55 In wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana, the four types of floral organs (sepal, petal,
stamen, carpel) are arranged in concentric whorls from outside to inside. With
reference to the ABC model of floral organ patterning, match the homeotic mutants
in Group 1 with their respective arrangements of organs in the four whorls given
in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) A class mutants (i) sepal, sepal, carpel, carpel
(Q) B class mutants (ii) sepal, petal, petal, sepal
(R) C class mutants (iii) carpel, stamen, stamen, carpel
(iv) sepal, sepal, petal, petal
(A) P−iv, Q−ii, R−i
(B) P−iii, Q−i, R−ii
(C) P−ii, Q−i, R−iii
(D) P−iii, Q−i, R−iv
Page 33 of 71
Page 35
Q.56 Match the inhibitors in Group 1 with their respective targets in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) Oligomycin (i) Cytochrome bc1 complex
(Q) Antimycin A (ii) Photosystem II
(R) 3-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-1,1- (iii) K+ ionophore
dimethylurea (DCMU)
(S) Valinomycin (iv) FO ATP synthase
(A) P−i, Q−ii, R−iii, S−iv
(B) P−iv, Q−i, R−ii, S−iii
(C) P−iii, Q−i, R−iv, S−ii
(D) P−iv, Q−ii, R−i, S−iii
Page 34 of 71
Group 1 Group 2
(P) Oligomycin (i) Cytochrome bc1 complex
(Q) Antimycin A (ii) Photosystem II
(R) 3-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-1,1- (iii) K+ ionophore
dimethylurea (DCMU)
(S) Valinomycin (iv) FO ATP synthase
(A) P−i, Q−ii, R−iii, S−iv
(B) P−iv, Q−i, R−ii, S−iii
(C) P−iii, Q−i, R−iv, S−ii
(D) P−iv, Q−ii, R−i, S−iii
Page 34 of 71
Page 36
Q.57 With reference to Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated plant transformation, match
the virulence factors in Group 1 with their protein types in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) VirG (i) Kinase
(Q) VirA (ii) Helicase
(R) VirE (iii) Transcriptional activator
(S) VirC (iv) Single strand binding protein
(A) P−i, Q−ii, R−iv, S−iii
(B) P−iii, Q−i, R−ii, S−iv
(C) P−ii, Q−iv, R−i, S−iii
(D) P−iii, Q−i, R−iv, S−ii
Page 35 of 71
the virulence factors in Group 1 with their protein types in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) VirG (i) Kinase
(Q) VirA (ii) Helicase
(R) VirE (iii) Transcriptional activator
(S) VirC (iv) Single strand binding protein
(A) P−i, Q−ii, R−iv, S−iii
(B) P−iii, Q−i, R−ii, S−iv
(C) P−ii, Q−iv, R−i, S−iii
(D) P−iii, Q−i, R−iv, S−ii
Page 35 of 71
Page 37
Q.58 Match the plant products in Group 1 with the plant species in Group 2 that produce
them and the respective plant parts in Group 3 where they accumulate the most.
Group 1 Group 2 Group 3
(P) Liquorice (i) Cinchona calisaya (a) Leaf
(Q) Quinine (ii) Lawsonia inermis (b) Root
(R) Henna (iii) Glycyrriza glabra (c) Flower
(S) Saffron (iv) Papaver somniferum (d) Bark
(v) Crocus sativus (e) Seed
(A) P−iii−b, Q−i−d, R−ii−a, S−v−c
(B) P−i−b, Q−iii−d, R−ii−a, S−iv−c
(C) P−iii−b, Q−i−d, R−ii−e, S−v−c
(D) P−iv−b, Q−i−d, R−iii−c, S−ii−a
Page 36 of 71
them and the respective plant parts in Group 3 where they accumulate the most.
Group 1 Group 2 Group 3
(P) Liquorice (i) Cinchona calisaya (a) Leaf
(Q) Quinine (ii) Lawsonia inermis (b) Root
(R) Henna (iii) Glycyrriza glabra (c) Flower
(S) Saffron (iv) Papaver somniferum (d) Bark
(v) Crocus sativus (e) Seed
(A) P−iii−b, Q−i−d, R−ii−a, S−v−c
(B) P−i−b, Q−iii−d, R−ii−a, S−iv−c
(C) P−iii−b, Q−i−d, R−ii−e, S−v−c
(D) P−iv−b, Q−i−d, R−iii−c, S−ii−a
Page 36 of 71
Page 38
Q.59 Match the types of ecological interactions in Group 1 with their respective
definitions in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) Protocooperation (i) One species is harmed but the other is neither
harmed nor benefitted
(Q) Commensalism (ii) A type of mutualism where one species is
benefitted more than the other
(R) Amensalism (iii) Both the species are benefitted but the interaction
between them is not obligatory
(S) Helotism (iv) One species is benefitted without harming the
other
(A) P−iii, Q−iv, R−i, S−ii
(B) P−ii, Q−i, R−iii, S−iv
(C) P−i, Q−iv, R−iii, S−ii
(D) P−iii, Q−i, R−iv, S−ii
Page 37 of 71
definitions in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) Protocooperation (i) One species is harmed but the other is neither
harmed nor benefitted
(Q) Commensalism (ii) A type of mutualism where one species is
benefitted more than the other
(R) Amensalism (iii) Both the species are benefitted but the interaction
between them is not obligatory
(S) Helotism (iv) One species is benefitted without harming the
other
(A) P−iii, Q−iv, R−i, S−ii
(B) P−ii, Q−i, R−iii, S−iv
(C) P−i, Q−iv, R−iii, S−ii
(D) P−iii, Q−i, R−iv, S−ii
Page 37 of 71
Page 39
Q.60 Match the types of ecological energy productivity in Group 1 with their respective
definitions in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) Net primary productivity (i) Total amount of energy
produced by autotrophs
(Q) Gross primary productivity (ii) Amount of energy stored by
autotrophs after respiration
(R) Net productivity (iii) Net gain of energy by the
consumers after energy loss
(S) Secondary productivity (iv) Unused amount of energy after
consumption by heterotrophs
(A) P−iii, Q−ii, R−iv, S−i
(B) P−ii, Q−i, R−iii, S−iv
(C) P−ii, Q−i, R−iv, S−iii
(D) P−iv, Q−i, R−ii, S−iii
Page 38 of 71
definitions in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) Net primary productivity (i) Total amount of energy
produced by autotrophs
(Q) Gross primary productivity (ii) Amount of energy stored by
autotrophs after respiration
(R) Net productivity (iii) Net gain of energy by the
consumers after energy loss
(S) Secondary productivity (iv) Unused amount of energy after
consumption by heterotrophs
(A) P−iii, Q−ii, R−iv, S−i
(B) P−ii, Q−i, R−iii, S−iv
(C) P−ii, Q−i, R−iv, S−iii
(D) P−iv, Q−i, R−ii, S−iii
Page 38 of 71
Page 40
Q.61 Which of the following combinations of plant diseases and the types of their causal
organisms is/are CORRECT?
(A) Late blight of potato − Bacteria
(B) Black rot of crucifer − Bacteria
(C) Tungro disease of rice − Mycoplasma
(D) Root knot of tomato − Nematode
Q.62 Identify the CORRECT combination(s) of plant natural products and the categories
they belong to.
(A) Dhurrin − Phenolic compounds
(B) Farnesene − Terpenoids
(C) Naringenin − Cyanogenic glycosides
(D) Vincristine − Alkaloids
Page 39 of 71
organisms is/are CORRECT?
(A) Late blight of potato − Bacteria
(B) Black rot of crucifer − Bacteria
(C) Tungro disease of rice − Mycoplasma
(D) Root knot of tomato − Nematode
Q.62 Identify the CORRECT combination(s) of plant natural products and the categories
they belong to.
(A) Dhurrin − Phenolic compounds
(B) Farnesene − Terpenoids
(C) Naringenin − Cyanogenic glycosides
(D) Vincristine − Alkaloids
Page 39 of 71
Page 41
Q.63 Identify the CORRECT combination(s) between the enzymes in Group 1 and the
reactions in Group 2 they catalyze.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) Cinnamate-4-hydroxylase (i) L-phenylalanine →
Cinnamic acid
(Q) Glycerate kinase (ii) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate →
dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(R) PEP carboxylase (iii) Glycolate + O2 →
Glyoxylate + H2O2
(S) Nitrate reductase (iv) NO3− + NAD(P)H + H+ →
NO2− + NAD(P)+ + H2O
(A) S−iv
(B) Q−ii
(C) P−i
(D) R−iii
Page 40 of 71
reactions in Group 2 they catalyze.
Group 1 Group 2
(P) Cinnamate-4-hydroxylase (i) L-phenylalanine →
Cinnamic acid
(Q) Glycerate kinase (ii) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate →
dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(R) PEP carboxylase (iii) Glycolate + O2 →
Glyoxylate + H2O2
(S) Nitrate reductase (iv) NO3− + NAD(P)H + H+ →
NO2− + NAD(P)+ + H2O
(A) S−iv
(B) Q−ii
(C) P−i
(D) R−iii
Page 40 of 71
Page 42
Q.64 In a genetic cross between two pure-line parents differing in the two independently
segregating traits, plant height (tall vs dwarf) and flower color (purple vs white), all
the F1 plants were tall with purple flowers. In a testcross population involving these
F1 individuals, the expected percentage (%) of dwarf plants with purple flower
would be _______ (in integer).
Q.65 The mRNA of a hypothetical plant gene HSDU is 800-nucleotide long and encodes
a protein of 160 amino acid residues. The calculated length of HSDU CDS would
be ________ nucleotides (in integer).
Page 41 of 71
segregating traits, plant height (tall vs dwarf) and flower color (purple vs white), all
the F1 plants were tall with purple flowers. In a testcross population involving these
F1 individuals, the expected percentage (%) of dwarf plants with purple flower
would be _______ (in integer).
Q.65 The mRNA of a hypothetical plant gene HSDU is 800-nucleotide long and encodes
a protein of 160 amino acid residues. The calculated length of HSDU CDS would
be ________ nucleotides (in integer).
Page 41 of 71
Page 43
Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.66 Which one of the following bacterial species can cause atypical pneumonia?
(A) Chlamydia pneumoniae
(B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(D) Haemophilus influenzae
Q.67 Which one of the following organisms has axial filaments?
(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(B) Pasteurella multocida
(C) Treponema pallidum
(D) Shigella dysenteriae
Page 42 of 71
Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.66 Which one of the following bacterial species can cause atypical pneumonia?
(A) Chlamydia pneumoniae
(B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(D) Haemophilus influenzae
Q.67 Which one of the following organisms has axial filaments?
(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(B) Pasteurella multocida
(C) Treponema pallidum
(D) Shigella dysenteriae
Page 42 of 71
Page 44
Q.68 Who among the following scientists was the pioneer in development of
chemotherapy?
(A) Elie Metchnikoff
(B) Robert Koch
(C) Paul Ehrlich
(D) Ronald Ross
Q.69 In which of following processes, glutaraldehyde is used as a sterilizing agent?
(A) Pasteurization
(B) Incineration
(C) Cold sterilization
(D) Autoclaving
Page 43 of 71
chemotherapy?
(A) Elie Metchnikoff
(B) Robert Koch
(C) Paul Ehrlich
(D) Ronald Ross
Q.69 In which of following processes, glutaraldehyde is used as a sterilizing agent?
(A) Pasteurization
(B) Incineration
(C) Cold sterilization
(D) Autoclaving
Page 43 of 71
Page 45
Q.70 The most abundant class of immunoglobulins in serum is __________.
(A) IgM
(B) IgA
(C) IgD
(D) IgG
Q.71 Which one of the following double-stranded sequences will NOT be recognized by
a Type IIP restriction endonuclease?
(A) 5′--GGTACC--3′
3′--CCTAGG--5′
(B) 5′--GGATCC--3′
3′--CCTAGG--5′
(C) 5′--CATATG--3′
3′--GTATAC--5′
(D) 5′--GATTTC--3′
3′--CTAAAG--5′
Page 44 of 71
(A) IgM
(B) IgA
(C) IgD
(D) IgG
Q.71 Which one of the following double-stranded sequences will NOT be recognized by
a Type IIP restriction endonuclease?
(A) 5′--GGTACC--3′
3′--CCTAGG--5′
(B) 5′--GGATCC--3′
3′--CCTAGG--5′
(C) 5′--CATATG--3′
3′--GTATAC--5′
(D) 5′--GATTTC--3′
3′--CTAAAG--5′
Page 44 of 71
Page 46
Q.72 Which one of the following use inorganic compounds as an energy source?
(A) Heterotrophs
(B) Chemolithotrophs
(C) Chemoorganotrophs
(D) Photoheterotrophs
Q.73 Which one of the following represents the abundance of the organisms found in
soil?
(A) Fungi > Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria
(B) Aerobic bacteria > Fungi > Anaerobic bacteria
(C) Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria > Fungi
(D) Anaerobic bacteria > Aerobic bacteria > Fungi
Page 45 of 71
(A) Heterotrophs
(B) Chemolithotrophs
(C) Chemoorganotrophs
(D) Photoheterotrophs
Q.73 Which one of the following represents the abundance of the organisms found in
soil?
(A) Fungi > Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria
(B) Aerobic bacteria > Fungi > Anaerobic bacteria
(C) Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria > Fungi
(D) Anaerobic bacteria > Aerobic bacteria > Fungi
Page 45 of 71
Page 47
Q.74 – Q.84 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.74 Match the antibiotics in Group I with the microorganisms that produce them in
Group II.
Group I Group II
(P) Streptomycin (i) Streptomyces griseus
(Q) Bacitracin (ii) Bacillus licheniformis
(R) Amphotericin B (iii) Streptomyces venezuelae
(S) Chloramphenicol (iv) Streptomyces nodosus
(A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)
(B) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iii)
(C) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)
(D) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii)
Q.75 Which one of the following redox couples has the highest tendency to donate
electrons?
(A) Fumarate / succinate
(B) NAD+ / NADH
(C) FAD / FADH
(D) Pyruvate / lactate
Page 46 of 71
Q.74 Match the antibiotics in Group I with the microorganisms that produce them in
Group II.
Group I Group II
(P) Streptomycin (i) Streptomyces griseus
(Q) Bacitracin (ii) Bacillus licheniformis
(R) Amphotericin B (iii) Streptomyces venezuelae
(S) Chloramphenicol (iv) Streptomyces nodosus
(A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)
(B) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iii)
(C) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)
(D) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii)
Q.75 Which one of the following redox couples has the highest tendency to donate
electrons?
(A) Fumarate / succinate
(B) NAD+ / NADH
(C) FAD / FADH
(D) Pyruvate / lactate
Page 46 of 71
Page 48
Q.76 Which of the following is/are active transport mechanism(s) in prokaryotes where
the substance is chemically altered during transport across the membrane?
(A) Group translocation
(B) Simple diffusion
(C) Facilitated diffusion
(D) Osmosis
Q.77 Which of the following cocci is/are examples of division in one plane?
(A) Staphylococci
(B) Streptococci
(C) Micrococci
(D) Diplococci
Page 47 of 71
the substance is chemically altered during transport across the membrane?
(A) Group translocation
(B) Simple diffusion
(C) Facilitated diffusion
(D) Osmosis
Q.77 Which of the following cocci is/are examples of division in one plane?
(A) Staphylococci
(B) Streptococci
(C) Micrococci
(D) Diplococci
Page 47 of 71
Page 49
Q.78 Which of the following event(s) occur(s) during translation in prokaryotes?
(A) tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 30s subunit of ribosome
(B) Anticodon of tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 50s subunit of
ribosome
(C) The ribosome continues to move along the mRNA to add new amino acids to the
polypeptide
(D) The polypeptide is released when the ribosome reaches the stop codon
Q.79 Which of the following is/are consequence(s) of nitrous acid (HNO2) mediated
deamination?
(A) Deamination of cytosine, adenine and guanine
(B) GC-to-AT transitions
(C) AT- to- GC transitions
(D) Addition of alkyl group to the bases
Page 48 of 71
(A) tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 30s subunit of ribosome
(B) Anticodon of tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 50s subunit of
ribosome
(C) The ribosome continues to move along the mRNA to add new amino acids to the
polypeptide
(D) The polypeptide is released when the ribosome reaches the stop codon
Q.79 Which of the following is/are consequence(s) of nitrous acid (HNO2) mediated
deamination?
(A) Deamination of cytosine, adenine and guanine
(B) GC-to-AT transitions
(C) AT- to- GC transitions
(D) Addition of alkyl group to the bases
Page 48 of 71
Page 50
Q.80 At root nodules, which of the following C4 organic acid(s) is/are transported across
the symbiosome membrane and into bacteroids?
(A) Succinate
(B) Pyruvate
(C) Malate
(D) Fumarate
Q.81 Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Escherichia coli chromosome?
(A) It is typically bound by histones
(B) It is circular in nature
(C) It is found in the nucleoid
(D) It contains multiple origins of replication
Q.82 At t = 0, the bacterial cell number is 10,000 cells/mL. At t = 480 minutes, the cell
number increased to 320,000 cells/mL. The mean generation time during this
exponential growth period, rounded off to the nearest integer is ________ minutes.
Page 49 of 71
the symbiosome membrane and into bacteroids?
(A) Succinate
(B) Pyruvate
(C) Malate
(D) Fumarate
Q.81 Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Escherichia coli chromosome?
(A) It is typically bound by histones
(B) It is circular in nature
(C) It is found in the nucleoid
(D) It contains multiple origins of replication
Q.82 At t = 0, the bacterial cell number is 10,000 cells/mL. At t = 480 minutes, the cell
number increased to 320,000 cells/mL. The mean generation time during this
exponential growth period, rounded off to the nearest integer is ________ minutes.
Page 49 of 71
Page 51
Q.83 A landfill sample was analyzed by dilution and plating techniques for viable
bacterial count. When one gram of the landfill sample was diluted 1 x 10-4 (w/v) it
yielded 400 CFU. The viable bacterial count (in million, rounded off to the nearest
integer) in one gram landfill sample is _______.
Q.84 A fluorescence microscope with an objective lens of numerical aperture (NA) 1.5
is used with light of wavelength (λ) 600 nanometers. The lateral resolution limit of
this microscope rounded off to the nearest integer, is _________ nanometers.
Page 50 of 71
bacterial count. When one gram of the landfill sample was diluted 1 x 10-4 (w/v) it
yielded 400 CFU. The viable bacterial count (in million, rounded off to the nearest
integer) in one gram landfill sample is _______.
Q.84 A fluorescence microscope with an objective lens of numerical aperture (NA) 1.5
is used with light of wavelength (λ) 600 nanometers. The lateral resolution limit of
this microscope rounded off to the nearest integer, is _________ nanometers.
Page 50 of 71
Page 52
Zoology (XL-T)
Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.85 Which one of the following statements about gene expression is INCORRECT?
(A) DNA is transcribed to mRNA.
(B) mRNA can be reverse-transcribed to DNA.
(C) mRNA can be translated to protein.
(D) Protein can be reverse-translated to mRNA.
Q.86 Which one of the following tissues/organs is least likely to experience
graft rejection when transplanted from a person to an unrelated person?
(A) bone marrow
(B) cornea
(C) heart
(D) kidney
Page 51 of 71
Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.85 Which one of the following statements about gene expression is INCORRECT?
(A) DNA is transcribed to mRNA.
(B) mRNA can be reverse-transcribed to DNA.
(C) mRNA can be translated to protein.
(D) Protein can be reverse-translated to mRNA.
Q.86 Which one of the following tissues/organs is least likely to experience
graft rejection when transplanted from a person to an unrelated person?
(A) bone marrow
(B) cornea
(C) heart
(D) kidney
Page 51 of 71
Page 53
Q.87 Codon bias is correlated with the relative frequencies of which one of the following
types of RNA?
(A) mRNA
(B) rRNA
(C) siRNA
(D) tRNA
Q.88 CREB1 is a eukaryotic transcription factor. In which one of the following
compartments of the cell is CREB1 predominantly localized?
(A) lysosomes
(B) mitochondria
(C) nucleus
(D) peroxisomes
Page 52 of 71
types of RNA?
(A) mRNA
(B) rRNA
(C) siRNA
(D) tRNA
Q.88 CREB1 is a eukaryotic transcription factor. In which one of the following
compartments of the cell is CREB1 predominantly localized?
(A) lysosomes
(B) mitochondria
(C) nucleus
(D) peroxisomes
Page 52 of 71
Page 54
Q.89 In certain species of salamanders, male-female pairs have multiple mating partners
in a breeding season. Which one of the following terminologies accurately describes
this mating system?
(A) monogamy
(B) polyandry
(C) polygyny
(D) polygynandry
Q.90 Which one of the following statements describes the key function of human sweat
glands?
(A) They serve as touch sensors.
(B) They are responsible for skin color.
(C) They regulate body temperature.
(D) They store fat.
Page 53 of 71
in a breeding season. Which one of the following terminologies accurately describes
this mating system?
(A) monogamy
(B) polyandry
(C) polygyny
(D) polygynandry
Q.90 Which one of the following statements describes the key function of human sweat
glands?
(A) They serve as touch sensors.
(B) They are responsible for skin color.
(C) They regulate body temperature.
(D) They store fat.
Page 53 of 71
Page 55
Q.91 Urease enzyme catalyzes the conversion of urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide.
Which one of the following organisms expresses urease enzyme?
(A) Caenorhabditis elegans
(B) Drosophila melanogaster
(C) Helicobacter pylori
(D) Homo sapiens
Q.92 The human genetic code is triplet in nature with 64 codons made using four
nucleotides. If the human genetic code was doublet in nature, the number of codons
theoretically possible from four nucleotides is ______. (Answer in integer)
Page 54 of 71
Which one of the following organisms expresses urease enzyme?
(A) Caenorhabditis elegans
(B) Drosophila melanogaster
(C) Helicobacter pylori
(D) Homo sapiens
Q.92 The human genetic code is triplet in nature with 64 codons made using four
nucleotides. If the human genetic code was doublet in nature, the number of codons
theoretically possible from four nucleotides is ______. (Answer in integer)
Page 54 of 71
Page 56
Q.93 – Q.103 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.93 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE of glycosaminoglycans?
(A) Glycosaminoglycans are composed of repeating disaccharide units.
(B) Glycosaminoglycans consist of amino sugars that are frequently sulfated.
(C) Hyaluronic acid is an example of a glycosaminoglycan.
(D) Methionine is the predominant amino acid to which glycosaminoglycan chains are
conjugated to form proteoglycans.
Page 55 of 71
Q.93 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE of glycosaminoglycans?
(A) Glycosaminoglycans are composed of repeating disaccharide units.
(B) Glycosaminoglycans consist of amino sugars that are frequently sulfated.
(C) Hyaluronic acid is an example of a glycosaminoglycan.
(D) Methionine is the predominant amino acid to which glycosaminoglycan chains are
conjugated to form proteoglycans.
Page 55 of 71
Page 57
Q.94 Which one of the options correctly matches the human tissues/organs with their
embryonic germ layers of origin?
Tissues/organs Embryonic germ layers
(P) liver (I) ectoderm
(Q) cerebellum (II) endoderm
(R) femur (III) mesoderm
(A) P-II, Q-I, R-III
(B) P-III, Q-I, R-II
(C) P-I, Q-II, R-III
(D) P-II, Q-III, R-I
Page 56 of 71
embryonic germ layers of origin?
Tissues/organs Embryonic germ layers
(P) liver (I) ectoderm
(Q) cerebellum (II) endoderm
(R) femur (III) mesoderm
(A) P-II, Q-I, R-III
(B) P-III, Q-I, R-II
(C) P-I, Q-II, R-III
(D) P-II, Q-III, R-I
Page 56 of 71
Page 58
Q.95 Consider a large population of a finch species, where both small and big beak sizes
are advantageous, and an intermediate beak size is maladaptive. Over a period of
10 years, which one of the following evolutionary processes is most likely to operate
on the beak size of this finch population?
(A) directional selection
(B) disruptive selection
(C) genetic drift
(D) stabilizing selection
Page 57 of 71
are advantageous, and an intermediate beak size is maladaptive. Over a period of
10 years, which one of the following evolutionary processes is most likely to operate
on the beak size of this finch population?
(A) directional selection
(B) disruptive selection
(C) genetic drift
(D) stabilizing selection
Page 57 of 71
Page 59
Q.96 When the blood glucose level of a healthy person is 100 mg/dL, which one of the
following options is most likely to represent the level of glucose in the urine of that
person?
(A) < 1 mg/dL
(B) 10 mg/dL
(C) 50 mg/dL
(D) 100 mg/dL
Page 58 of 71
following options is most likely to represent the level of glucose in the urine of that
person?
(A) < 1 mg/dL
(B) 10 mg/dL
(C) 50 mg/dL
(D) 100 mg/dL
Page 58 of 71
Page 60
Q.97 Which one of the following rooted tree topologies best describes the primate
phylogeny?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Page 59 of 71
phylogeny?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Page 59 of 71
Page 61
Q.98 Consider a species of brightly colored beetle. Which one or more of the following
observations suggest(s) that this species is aposematic?
(A) Both male and female beetles are brightly colored.
(B) Only male beetles are brightly colored.
(C) Only female beetles are brightly colored.
(D) The beetle species is toxic and distasteful.
Q.99 The embryos of which one or more of the following animals show meroblastic
cleavage?
(A) Danio rerio (zebrafish)
(B) Gallus gallus (chicken)
(C) Synapta digita (sea cucumber)
(D) Xenopus laevis (frog)
Page 60 of 71
observations suggest(s) that this species is aposematic?
(A) Both male and female beetles are brightly colored.
(B) Only male beetles are brightly colored.
(C) Only female beetles are brightly colored.
(D) The beetle species is toxic and distasteful.
Q.99 The embryos of which one or more of the following animals show meroblastic
cleavage?
(A) Danio rerio (zebrafish)
(B) Gallus gallus (chicken)
(C) Synapta digita (sea cucumber)
(D) Xenopus laevis (frog)
Page 60 of 71
Page 62
Q.100 Which one or more of the following parasites is/are typically transmitted by
mosquitoes as vector?
(A) Leishmania donovani
(B) Plasmodium vivax
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti
(D) Trichuris trichiura
Q.101 Consider the following nucleotide sequence:
5′-GCCGCCAUGGCGUCUGCUAGCUGGCUCGAUCGCGAGCGAUCGUAC
GUAUAGUAUGAA-3′
Assume canonical initiation, canonical termination, no post-translational
modification, and the average molecular mass of an amino acid to be 110 daltons.
The theoretical molecular mass of the polypeptide translated from the above
nucleotide sequence is _____ daltons. (Answer in integer)
Q.102 The pKa of a buffer solution with pH of 5, consisting of 0.4 M sodium acetate and
0.04 M acetic acid, is ______. (Answer in integer)
Page 61 of 71
mosquitoes as vector?
(A) Leishmania donovani
(B) Plasmodium vivax
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti
(D) Trichuris trichiura
Q.101 Consider the following nucleotide sequence:
5′-GCCGCCAUGGCGUCUGCUAGCUGGCUCGAUCGCGAGCGAUCGUAC
GUAUAGUAUGAA-3′
Assume canonical initiation, canonical termination, no post-translational
modification, and the average molecular mass of an amino acid to be 110 daltons.
The theoretical molecular mass of the polypeptide translated from the above
nucleotide sequence is _____ daltons. (Answer in integer)
Q.102 The pKa of a buffer solution with pH of 5, consisting of 0.4 M sodium acetate and
0.04 M acetic acid, is ______. (Answer in integer)
Page 61 of 71
Page 63
Q.103 Consider a healthy person with the following lung volumes:
Residual volume = 900 mL
Expiratory reserve volume = 800 mL
Tidal volume = 200 mL
If the Total lung capacity is 5500 mL, then the Inspiratory reserve volume of the
person is _____ mL. (Answer in integer)
Page 62 of 71
Residual volume = 900 mL
Expiratory reserve volume = 800 mL
Tidal volume = 200 mL
If the Total lung capacity is 5500 mL, then the Inspiratory reserve volume of the
person is _____ mL. (Answer in integer)
Page 62 of 71
Page 64
Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.104 – Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.104 Which one of the following fungi produces aflatoxins?
(A) Aspergillus niger
(B) Fusarium verticillioides
(C) Aspergillus flavus
(D) Rhizopus oligosporus
Q.105 Under standard conditions in animal feeding studies, the weight gained (in grams)
per gram of protein consumed by an animal is termed as
(A) Net Protein Ratio
(B) Net Protein Utilization
(C) Coefficient of Protein Digestibility
(D) Protein Efficiency Ratio
Page 63 of 71
Q.104 – Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.104 Which one of the following fungi produces aflatoxins?
(A) Aspergillus niger
(B) Fusarium verticillioides
(C) Aspergillus flavus
(D) Rhizopus oligosporus
Q.105 Under standard conditions in animal feeding studies, the weight gained (in grams)
per gram of protein consumed by an animal is termed as
(A) Net Protein Ratio
(B) Net Protein Utilization
(C) Coefficient of Protein Digestibility
(D) Protein Efficiency Ratio
Page 63 of 71
Page 65
Q.106 Xeropthalmia is caused due to the deficiency of
(A) Thiamin
(B) Pantothenic acid
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin C
Q.107 Which one of the following steps is used to remove phosphatides from crude oil in
the refining process?
(A) Neutralization
(B) Bleaching
(C) Degumming
(D) Deodorization
Page 64 of 71
(A) Thiamin
(B) Pantothenic acid
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin C
Q.107 Which one of the following steps is used to remove phosphatides from crude oil in
the refining process?
(A) Neutralization
(B) Bleaching
(C) Degumming
(D) Deodorization
Page 64 of 71
Page 66
Q.108 The unique flavor of chocolate and cocoa is due to the formation of
(A) 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal
(B) Cyclotene
(C) Furaneol
(D) Maltol
Q.109 Which one of the following statements regarding Hazard Analysis Critical Control
Point (HACCP) plan is NOT correct?
(A) HACCP is a management tool for ensuring food safety.
(B) HACCP involves five preliminary steps and seven principles.
(C) HACCP is not effective without prior implementation of prerequisite programs.
(D) HACCP plan involves establishment of corrective actions as second principle.
Page 65 of 71
(A) 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal
(B) Cyclotene
(C) Furaneol
(D) Maltol
Q.109 Which one of the following statements regarding Hazard Analysis Critical Control
Point (HACCP) plan is NOT correct?
(A) HACCP is a management tool for ensuring food safety.
(B) HACCP involves five preliminary steps and seven principles.
(C) HACCP is not effective without prior implementation of prerequisite programs.
(D) HACCP plan involves establishment of corrective actions as second principle.
Page 65 of 71
Page 67
Q.110 The product of cabbage fermentation by Leuconostoc mesenteroides is
(A) Tempeh
(B) Natto
(C) Sauerkraut
(D) Miso
Q.111 Which one of the following absorbents is NOT used as an ethylene absorber in
active packaging of fruits and vegetables?
(A) Potassium permanganate
(B) Activated carbon
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Silica gel
Page 66 of 71
(A) Tempeh
(B) Natto
(C) Sauerkraut
(D) Miso
Q.111 Which one of the following absorbents is NOT used as an ethylene absorber in
active packaging of fruits and vegetables?
(A) Potassium permanganate
(B) Activated carbon
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Silica gel
Page 66 of 71
Page 68
Q.112 – Q.122 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.112 Which one of the following statements regarding moisture sorption isotherms of a
dried food is NOT correct?
(A) At a given temperature, the difference between adsorption and desorption moisture
isotherms is known as hysteresis.
(B) At a given temperature and water activity, an adsorption isotherm exhibits higher
equilibrium moisture content than a desorption isotherm in hysteresis.
(C) At a given moisture content, effect of temperature on a moisture sorption isotherm
follows the Clausius- Clapeyron equation.
(D) The Guggenheim-Anderson-de Boer (GAB) equation is a multilayer moisture
sorption model.
Q.113 Processing of fluid milk at 72 ℃ for 15 seconds is termed as
(A) High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization
(B) Low-temperature, long-time (LTLT) pasteurization
(C) Ultra high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization
(D) Homogenization process
Page 67 of 71
Q.112 Which one of the following statements regarding moisture sorption isotherms of a
dried food is NOT correct?
(A) At a given temperature, the difference between adsorption and desorption moisture
isotherms is known as hysteresis.
(B) At a given temperature and water activity, an adsorption isotherm exhibits higher
equilibrium moisture content than a desorption isotherm in hysteresis.
(C) At a given moisture content, effect of temperature on a moisture sorption isotherm
follows the Clausius- Clapeyron equation.
(D) The Guggenheim-Anderson-de Boer (GAB) equation is a multilayer moisture
sorption model.
Q.113 Processing of fluid milk at 72 ℃ for 15 seconds is termed as
(A) High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization
(B) Low-temperature, long-time (LTLT) pasteurization
(C) Ultra high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization
(D) Homogenization process
Page 67 of 71
Page 69
Q.114 Match the anti-nutritional factor in Column I with their corresponding activity
given in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Lectin 1. Flatulence
Q. Stachyose 2. Chelates with divalent cations and reduces their
bio-availability
R. Phytate 3. Inhibits trypsin and chymotrypsin
S. Knuitz type inhibitor 4. Hemagglutination
(A) P-4,Q-1, R-2,S-3
(B) P-3,Q-1, R-2,S-4
(C) P-2,Q-1, R-4,S-3
(D) P-1,Q-2, R-3,S-4
Q.115 Which of the following fatty acids is/are known to increase the low density
lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol?
(A) Omega-3 Fatty acids
(B) Trans Fatty acids
(C) Conjugated Linoleic acids
(D) Saturated Fatty acids
Page 68 of 71
given in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Lectin 1. Flatulence
Q. Stachyose 2. Chelates with divalent cations and reduces their
bio-availability
R. Phytate 3. Inhibits trypsin and chymotrypsin
S. Knuitz type inhibitor 4. Hemagglutination
(A) P-4,Q-1, R-2,S-3
(B) P-3,Q-1, R-2,S-4
(C) P-2,Q-1, R-4,S-3
(D) P-1,Q-2, R-3,S-4
Q.115 Which of the following fatty acids is/are known to increase the low density
lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol?
(A) Omega-3 Fatty acids
(B) Trans Fatty acids
(C) Conjugated Linoleic acids
(D) Saturated Fatty acids
Page 68 of 71
Page 70
Q.116 The addition of which of the following to high-methoxyl pectin will result in gel
formation?
(A) Calcium ions
(B) Hydrogen ions
(C) Sodium ions
(D) Sugar
Q.117 Which of the following steps in food processing is/are used to reduce the acrylamide
formation in food products?
(A) Pretreatment using asparaginase
(B) Lowering the pH
(C) Increasing the temperature.
(D) Adding glucose.
Page 69 of 71
formation?
(A) Calcium ions
(B) Hydrogen ions
(C) Sodium ions
(D) Sugar
Q.117 Which of the following steps in food processing is/are used to reduce the acrylamide
formation in food products?
(A) Pretreatment using asparaginase
(B) Lowering the pH
(C) Increasing the temperature.
(D) Adding glucose.
Page 69 of 71
Page 71
Q.118 Which of the following enzymes is/are used for the production of high fructose
syrup (HFS) from corn starch?
(A) α-Amylase
(B) β-Amylase
(C) Xylose isomerase
(D) Glucoamylase
Q.119 Which of the following is/are typical characteristic(s) of a fungal cell?
(A) Presence of histone proteins
(B) Presence of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
(C) Presence of chitin in the cell wall
(D) Presence of pseudomurein in the cell wall
Page 70 of 71
syrup (HFS) from corn starch?
(A) α-Amylase
(B) β-Amylase
(C) Xylose isomerase
(D) Glucoamylase
Q.119 Which of the following is/are typical characteristic(s) of a fungal cell?
(A) Presence of histone proteins
(B) Presence of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
(C) Presence of chitin in the cell wall
(D) Presence of pseudomurein in the cell wall
Page 70 of 71
Page 72
Q.120 Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding food and water borne
disease and the class of causative microorganisms?
(A) Legionellosis is a bacterial disease.
(B) Giardiasis is caused by the protists.
(C) Typhoid fever is caused by the virus.
(D) Listeriosis is a fungal disease.
Q.121 Which of the following statements is/ are true?
(A) Hagen-Poiseuille’s law is used for calculation of molecular diffusion.
(B) Fick’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
(C) Rittinger’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
(D) Stokes law is used for derivation of terminal velocity.
Q.122 A 10 kg tomato pulp is concentrated from an initial moisture content of 90% (wet
weight basis) to 35% (wet weight basis). The weight of the concentrate in kg is
__________ (round off to 2 decimal places).
Page 71 of 71
disease and the class of causative microorganisms?
(A) Legionellosis is a bacterial disease.
(B) Giardiasis is caused by the protists.
(C) Typhoid fever is caused by the virus.
(D) Listeriosis is a fungal disease.
Q.121 Which of the following statements is/ are true?
(A) Hagen-Poiseuille’s law is used for calculation of molecular diffusion.
(B) Fick’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
(C) Rittinger’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
(D) Stokes law is used for derivation of terminal velocity.
Q.122 A 10 kg tomato pulp is concentrated from an initial moisture content of 90% (wet
weight basis) to 35% (wet weight basis). The weight of the concentrate in kg is
__________ (round off to 2 decimal places).
Page 71 of 71
Page 73
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Document Details
| Board / Org | IIT |
| Exam | GATE |
| Type | Question Paper |
| Pages | 73 |
| Updated | 22 Jul 2026 |