MAHA SET 2015 Question Paper 3 Environmental Sciences

Test Booklet No.
M
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
AUG - 31315 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii)
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
o rder or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.

2

Environmental Science
Paper III
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This Paper contains Seventy Five (75) multiple choice questions, each
question carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Ozone layer is found in the : 3. The unit of pressure ‘hPa’ commonly

used in meteorology is equal to :
(A) Ionosphere

(A) 1 dyne/cm2
(B) Troposphere

(B) 1 dyne/m2
(C) Mesosphere
(C) 100 dyne/m2
(D) Stratosphere
(D) 1000 dyne/cm2
2. The value of environmental lapse
4. Tropopause is at its highest level
rate is :
at :

(A) ~10°C per km
(A) Poles

(B) ~6°C per km
(B) Equator

(C) ~1°C per km (C) Subtropics

(D) ~4°C per km (D) Mid-latitude

3 [P.T.O.

7. The oldest macrofossils of plants
5. How many agreements are there in
and animals are only .................. years

Agenda 21 ? old and if these were the remains of

the original living organisms, the
(A) 2 planet would have been lifeless for

almost .................... years.
(B) 5
(A) 0.6-0.7; 4.0 billion

(C) 6 (B) 0.5-0.6; 3.0 billion

(C) 0.4-0.5; 2.0 billion
(D) 7
(D) 0.3-0.4; 1.0 billion

6. Darwin’s finches are a good 8. Which of the following air

pollutant(s) is (are) mainly
example of :
responsible for poor air quality

at most of the Indian sites ?
(A) Convergent evolution

(A) Carbon soot
(B) Industrial menalism
(B) Atmospheric dust

(C) Connecting link (C) Carbon soot + atmospheric

dust

(D) Adaptive radiation
(D) CO2

4

9. Which of the following is a must for 11. The most preferred technique for the

rice sheath blight pathogen, analysis of metals is :

Pellicularia sasakii ? (A) Ion chromatography

(A) Polyoxin D
(B) Atomic absorption spectroscopy

(B) Polyoxin B
(C) Mass spectrometry

(C) Polyoxin L
(D) Titrimetry

(D) Polyoxin
12. A radioactive sample shows an

10. Acetylene reduction technique is an activity of 40,000 cpm. What will be

important assay to measure : its activity after four half lives ?

(A) Rate of phosphate solubilization (A) 10,000

(B) Rate of Nitrogen fixation (B) 4,000

(C) Rate of Carbon fixation (C) 2,500

(D) Rate of photosynthesis (D) 2,000

5 [P.T.O.

13. As compared to the aridified regions 15. Which of the following consists of

of the globe, rain water in India has only one element ?

an excess of : (A) Sand

(A) Chloride (B) Marble

(B) Calcium (C) Glass

(D) Diamond
(C) Sodium

16. Carrying capacity is :
(D) Methyl sulphonic acid

(A) prevention of population
14. Which of the following is correct
explosion
order with respect to solubility

(B) the maximum number of
product ?
organisms that a habitat can
(A) AgI < AgBr < AgCl
sustain

(B) AgI > AgBr > AgCl
(C) the limiting factors existing in

(C) AgI < AgCl < AgBr an ecosystem

(D) AgI > AgCl > AgBr (D) the upper limit of J curve

6

17. Which one of the following is 19. The source of energy for the green

plants in any ecosystem is :
an abiotic component of the

(A) Glucose
ecosystem ?

(B) Sunlight
(A) Bacteria
(C) ATP
(B) Plants
(D) Protein
(C) Fungi
20. The largest number of species on

(D) Humus earth belongs to :

18. The total biomass of any organism (A) Fungi

is determined by the nutrients (B) Angiosperms

present in the minimum (C) Insects

concentration in relation to the (D) Crustaceans

requirements of that organism, 21. The commonly used medium for

known as : submerged bacterial fermentation at

commercial scale is :
(A) Liebig’s law of the minimum
(A) Molasses
(B) Shelford’s law of tolerance
(B) Liver extract

(C) Liebig’s law of tolerance
(C) Germinated seed

(D) Shelford’s law of minimum (D) Peptone

7 [P.T.O.

22. An ecosystem is a complex of 25. ............................. Planet in the solar

interacting systems of : system is also known as a Blue
Planet.
(A) Individuals
(A) Venus
(B) Populations
(B) Jupiter
(C) Communities and their soils
(C) Earth
(D) Biotic and abiotic components
(D) Mars
23. GIS and remote sensing are very
26. Which one of the following is
useful to analyse : an example for assessing Land

(A) Quality of life quality ?

(B) Spatio-temporal data (A) Fauna

(B) Sulfur
(C) Behavioral pattern of flora and

fauna (C) Slope

(D) Sound-economic data (D) Community

27. Vegetation cover has maximum
24. The earth’s atmosphere is divided
reflectance level in which one of
into layers based on the vertical
the following electromagnetic
profile of :
radiation spectrum ?
(A) Air pressure
(A) Middle infrared
(B) Air temperature
(B) Visible
(C) Air density (C) Near infrared

(D) Wind speed and direction (D) Ultraviolet
8

28. What are the major weather related 31. CO2 emissions from the burning of
hazards during winter ? fossil fuel affect largely :

(A) Floods (A) Sulphur cycle

(B) Fog and coldwave (B) Nitrogen cycle

(C) Tropical cyclones (C) Carbon cycle

(D) Dust storms (D) Water cycle

29. Salinity of sea water depends upon
32. The rich source of energy that
evaporation and precipitation
never causes atmospheric pollution
difference. Thus it is highest near :
is :
(A) Poles
(A) Nuclear energy
(B) Equator
(B) Solar energy
(C) Subtropics
(C) Fossil fuel
(D) Mid-latitudes
(D) Biomass energy
30. GIS is an efficient tool for :
33. A photovoltaic cell is not limited in
(A) analysing spatial and aspatial
efficiency by :
data
(A) top surface emissivity
(B) analysing attribute data only
(B) quantum efficiency
(C) manipulating behaviour of
(C) excess photon energy
flora and fauna

(D) top surface reflection
(D) assessing ecological pyramids

9 [P.T.O.

34. Gasohol used to run the vehicles is 37. Radiation from sun is due to :

a mixture of : (A) Nuclear fission reactions

(A) Petrol and Diesel (B) Nuclear fusion reactions

(B) Petrol and Methane (C) Physical melting

(C) Petrol and Alcohol (D) Atomic collision

(D) Petrol and Kerosene 38. In a typical sewage treatment plant

35. Greenhouse gases usually comprise : the following is the flow diagram of

the plant :
(A) CO2 only

(A) Collection Pre-treatment
(B) CH4 only
Secondary Treatment
(C) CH 4, CO 2 mainly and NOx
Disinfection
slightly
(B) Collection Pre-treatment
(D) CH4 and CO2 only
Primary Treatment
36. The optimum range of wind
Disinfection
speed for generating energy with
(C) Collection Pre-treatment
windmills is :
Primary Treatment
(A) 5 to 30 km/hr
Secondary Treatment
(B) 5 to 20 km/sec Disinfection

(C) 0 to 10 km/sec (D) Collection Primary

(D) 0 to 20 km/hr Treatment Disinfection

10

39. The noise level measurements are 41. The mechanism of biomagnification

accumulation of intracellular uptake
often expressed in unit of dB(A).

and storage by microorganisms is
What does ‘A’ refer to ?
mainly due to :

(A) frequency weighting
(A) Active cation transport system

(B) amplitude weighting
(B) Passive cation transport system

(C) phase weighting (C) Active anion transport system

(D) category of noise zone (D) Passive anion transport system

40. Indicator used in hardness 42. Air pollutants are toxic to plants in

the following ascending order of
measurement of water is :

severeness :
(A) Methyl orange
(A) SO2, NO2, HF, CO

(B) Eriochrome black
(B) NO2, HF, CO, SO2

(C) Phenolphthalein
(C) CO, NO2, SO2, HF

(D) Potassium chromate (D) SO2, NO2, CO, HF

11 [P.T.O.

43. One of the precursors of tropospheric 46. UASB is an advance level of
wastewater treatment. UASB stands
ozone is :
for :
(A) SO2
(A) Urban Area Sewage Board
(B) NO2
(B) Upflow Anaerobic Sludge
(C) N2O Blanket

(D) H2S (C) Upflow Aerobic Sludge Blanket

(D) Urban Area Sludge Board
44. Fraction of atmospheric sulphur

contributed by the anthropogenic 47. Lichens indicate pollution by :

sources is : (A) Ozone

(B) SO2
(A) ~10%
(C) NO2
(B) ~25%
(D) CO
(C) ~75%
48. “The pollutants emitted to the
(D) ~99% atmosphere are uniformly mixed in

45. After N2 and O2, the third most a volume of air.” Which of the
following models is based on this
abundant gas found in the air is :
assumption ?
(A) CO 2
(A) Fugitive dust Model
(B) Ar
(B) Vossler Model

(C) He (C) Box Model

(D) CH4 (D) Screen Model
12

49. The expanded Environmental 51. Environmental Impact Assessment

Impact Assessment for policies for various developmental project is
programs and plan is :
carried out by a team of experts.

(A) Rapid Environmental Impact
Each expert member associated for
Assessment
EIA requires accrediation from :

(B) Short-run Environmental
(A) NEERI
Impact Assessment
(B) NABET/QCI
(C) Special Environmental Impact

Assessment (C) CPCB

(D) Strategic Environmental (D) SPCB

Impact Assessment
52. The secondary and tertiary impacts

50. Which of the following forms of land
of developmental action can be
degradation is dominently prevalent
addressed by :
in India ?
(A) Simple matrix
(A) Desertification

(B) Stepped or cross impact matrix
(B) Soil erosion

(C) Checklists
(C) Landslides

(D) Soil submergence (D) Overlay maps

13 [P.T.O.

53. Problem of soil salinity along coastal 56. Which of the following is not a
belts is often mitigated by treating
characteristic of hazardous waste ?
the land with :

(A) Urea (A) Toxicity

(B) Organic compost (B) Corrosivity

(C) Superphosphate
(C) Ignitability
(D) Calcium sulphate
(D) Porosity
54. Interpretation of the anticipated

impacts of any developmental 57. The emissions of air pollutants
project does not consider :
from automobiles were initially
(A) Individual species
regulated under :
(B) Characteristics of habitat
(A) The Air (Protection and Control
(C) Characteristics of ecosystem
of Pollution) Act, 1981
(D) Monetary cost of project

55. Natural decomposition of solid (B) The Environment (Protection)

waste is a :
Act, 1986
(A) Biodegradable process
(C) The Water (Protection and
(B) Pyrolysis
Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(C) Carbonization

(D) Corrosion (D) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

14

58. Which of the following is first Act 60. In which year the Forest

passed by Indian Government in (Conservation) Act was passed ?

confirmation to the United Nation’s (A) 1974
Conference ?
(B) 1981
(A) The Water (Prevention and
(C) 1980
Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(D) 1986
(B) The Environment (Protection)
61. In order to cover the areas not
Act, 1986
covered by other laws regarding
(C) The Air (Prevention and
environmental pollution in the wake
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
of Bhopal Tragedy, the notable
(D) The Indian Forest Act, 1927 legislation passed in India is :

59. All the members of a State Pollution (A) The Wildlife (Protection) Act,
Control Board except the member- 1972
secretary can hold the office for a
(B) The Environmental (Protection)
term of :
Act, 1986
(A) Six years
(C) The Water (Prevention and
(B) Three years Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

(C) Four years (D) The Air (Prevention and

(D) Five years Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

15 [P.T.O.

62. A population grows exponentially 64. The normal distribution is also

with the growth rate of 2% per expressed in terms of normalized
x
parameter z = ; where symbols
year. After how many years it will 2
have their usual meaning. The
double ?
standard deviation of such a
(A) ~25 years
distribution, (z) is :

(B) ~70 years
(A) 2

(C) ~35 years (B) 0.5

(D) ~30 years (C) 1.0

63. A Log-Normal distribution has a (D) 0

mean of 5 and standard deviation 65. The eigenvalues of the matrix

of 2. Its ~67% of the area under the 2 1

curve is between the values of the 1 2

variable lying between :
are :

(A) 3 and 7
(A) 1 and 0

(B) 2.5 and 10 (B) 2 and 0

(C) 1.25 and 20 (C) 1 and 2

(D) 1 and 9 (D) 1 and 3

16

66. In simple regression equation : 68. The most abundant hydrocarbon in
natural gas is :
Y = + x + ;
(A) Methane
the expectation value of the random
(B) Ethane
error term < > is :
(C) Propane

(A) 0 (D) Butane

(B) ; is standard deviation 69. ‘Ozone hole’ over Antarctica is seen
during :
(C) 2
(A) September—November
(D) 2
(B) July—August

67. In a multiple regression analysis, (C) May—June

the explained variance per degree (D) December—January

of freedom is found to be 100 and 70. Carbon intensity of a country is a

the unexplained variance per degree measure of :

of freedom is 20. The value of (A) Carbon dioxide emissions per
unit GDP
F-statistic will be :
(B) Carbon dioxide emissions per
(A) 5
unit electrical energy produced

(B) 0.2 (C) Carbon dioxide emissions per
unit area per year
(C) 80
(D) Carbon dioxide emissions
(D) 120 produced per person

17 [P.T.O.

71. Global warming potential (relative 74. Ozone concentration is measured in
to CO2) of N2O over a time horizon
Dobson unit. One Dobson unit
of 20 years is :
represents a layer of ozone around
(A) 100
the earth which at standard
(B) 280

(C) 170 atmospheric pressure ?

(D) 25 (A) 1 mm thick

72. Grazing cattle suffer mottling of
(B) .1 mm thick
teeth due to emission of ....................

from a factory in the neighbourhood. (C) .3 mm thick

(A) Chlorides
(D) 0.01 mm thick
(B) Fluorides
75. Soil salinity is caused mainly due
(C) Ammonia
to excess concentration of .................
(D) Benzene
in black cotton soil.
73. One of the following waste is not

classified as hazardous waste : (A) Sodium

(A) Electronic waste
(B) Calcium
(B) Chemical waste
(C) Magnesium
(C) Biomedical waste

(D) Kitchen waste (D) Potassium

18

ROUGH WORK

19 [P.T.O.

ROUGH WORK

20