RUHS Pharmacy 2021 Question Paper

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RUHS Entrance Examination
2021
Question Paper
BD Pharmacy 2021
Q. No. 1 A student performs an experiment to determine Young's modulus of wire, exactly 2 m
0042001 long, by Searle's method. In a particular reading, the student measures the extension
in the length of the wire to be in 0.8 mm with an uncertainty of +0.05 mm at a load of
exactly 1.0 Kg. The student also measures the diameter of the wire to be 0.4 mm with
an uncertainty of +0.01 mm. Take g=9.8 m2/s (exact). The young's modulus obtained
from the reading is:

Option A (2.0+0.3)x1011N/m2

Option B (2.0+0.2)x1011N/m2

Option C (2.0+0.1)x1011N/m2

Option D (2.0+0.05)x1011N/m2

Q. No. 2 Two full of circular scales of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main
0042002 scale. The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that
the screw gauge has a zero error of -0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of the
wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale
divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire is:

Option A 3.67 mm

Option B 3.38 mm
Option C 3.32 mm

Option D 3.73 mm

Q. No. 3
The dimensional formula of angular momentum is:
0042003

Option A ML2T -3

Option B ML2T -2

Option C ML2T -1

Option D MLT -1

Q. No. 4 A particle is projected to at 60o to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic
0042004 energy at the highest point is:
Option A Zero
Option B K/4

Option C K/2
Option D K

Q. No. 5 The range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15o is 50 m. If it is fired with the same

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0042005 speed at an angle of 45o, its range will be

Option A 25 m
Option B 37 m
Option C 50 m
Option D 100 m

Q. No. 6 A driver takes 0. 20 s to apply the brakes after he sees a need for it. This is called the
0042006 reaction time of the driver. If he is driving a car at a speed of 54 km/h and the brakes
cause a deceleration of 6.0 m/s2, find the distance travelled by car after he sees the
need to put the brakes on.

Option A 243 m
Option B 18.75 m
Option C 21.75 m
Option D 259.2 m

Q. No. 7 In the adjoining diagram, the masses of A and B are 10 kg and 5 kg respectively.
0042007 Calculate the minimum mass of C which may stop A from slipping. The coefficient of
static friction between A and the table is s=0.2

Option A 15 Kg
Option B 14 Kg
Option C 12 Kg
Option D 13 Kg

Q. No. 8 What is the maximum value of the force F so that the block (mass m = Kg) shown
0042008 in the arrangement does not move? The coefficient of static friction between the two

surfaces is

Option A 15 N
Option B 10 N

Option C 12 N
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Option D 20 N

Q. No. 9 A stone of mass m is tied to one end of a string and is rotated in a vertical plane. The
0042009 tension in the string at the highest point of the path of the stone is zero. What will be
the tension in the string at the lowest point
Option A 6 mg

Option B 3 mg
Option C 4 mg
Option D 2 mg

Q. No. 10 A particle is placed at point A of a frictionless track ABC as shown in the figure below.
0042010 It is pushed slightly towards the right. What will be the speed of the particle when it
reaches point B. (Given g = 10 m/s2)

Option A

Option B 100

Option C

Option D 121

Q. No. 11 A small block of mass 100 g is pressed against a horizontal spring fixed at one end to
0042011 compress the spring through 5.0 cm as shown in the figure below. The spring
constant is 1000 N/m. When released, the block moves horizontally till it leaves the
spring. Where will it hit the ground 10 cm below the spring

Option A 0.85 m

Option B 0.80 m
Option C 0.90 m

Option D 0.70 m

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Q. No. 12
The center of mass of a system:
0042012

Option A is always at its geometric center
Option B is always anywhere inside it

Option C is always outside it

Option D maybe inside or outside it

Q. No. 13 One-quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular disc of radius R. This sector has a
0042013 mass M. It is made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its plane and pass through
the center of the original disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation is

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Q. No. 14 A solid sphere of mass M slides with a velocity v without rotating in the first case and
0042014 in the second case it rolls without slipping with the same speed. What will be the ratio
of kinetic energy in two cases
Option A 7/2

Option B 5/7
Option C 2/7

Option D 4/7

Q. No. 15 In a ring, disc, solid sphere, and spherical shell of the same mass and same radius, in
0042015 which case the moment of inertia about the axis passing through the center will be
maximum
Option A Ring

Option B Solid sphere

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Option C Disc

Option D Spherical Shell

Q. No. 16
As we go from the equator to the poles, the value of g
0042016
Option A Increases

Option B Decreases
Option C Remains constant

Option D Slightly less than at the equator

Q. No. 17
The Physical quantity on the conservation of which, Kepler's second law is based
0042017
Option A Energy

Option B Linear momentum

Option C Mass
Option D Angular momentum

Q. No. 18 The escape velocity from the earth's surface is 11 km/s. If the radius of a planet is
0042018 double to that of the earth but the average density is the same as that of earth, then
escape velocity from the planet would be
Option A 22 Km/s

Option B 11 Km/s

Option C 5.5 Km/s
Option D 15.5 Km/s

Q. No. 19
The time period of the second's pendulum in a satellite is
0042019

Option A zero
Option B 2s

Option C
Option D Depends on the mass of the pendulum

Q. No. 20
The dimension of modulus of rigidity are:
0042020

Option A ML -1T -2

Option B MLT -1

Option C MLT -2

Option D ML -1T -1
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Q. No. 21 A spherical liquid drop of radius R is sprayed up into 8 spherical droplets of equal
0042021 radii. The surface tension of liquids is T, Work done in this process will be

Option A 2 R2T

Option B 3 R2T

Option C 4 R2T

Option D 8 R2T

Q. No. 22 The height of a liquid column in a capillary tube on earth is h. On the moon, where the
0042022 acceleration due to the gravity is (1/6)th that of the earth, it will be

Option A h
Option B 6h

Option C h/6

Option D The liquid will not rise

Q. No. 23 The neutral temperature of a thermocouple thermometer is 270 oC. Its temperature of
0042023 inversion will be

Option A 270 oC

Option B 540 oC

Option C 135 oC

Option D 0 oC

Q. No. 24 A faulty thermometer has its fixed points marked 5o and 95 oC. This thermometer
0042024
reads the temperature of a body as 50 oC. The correct temperature on the Celsius
scale is

Option A 59 oC

Option B 48.6 oC

Option C 60 oC

Option D 50 oC

Q. No. 25
In the cyclic process
0042025
Option A Work done is zero
Option B Work done by the system is equal to the quantity of heat given to the system
Option C Work done does not depend upon the quantity of heat given to the system

Option D The internal energy of the system increases

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Q. No. 26 For an ideal gas, in adiabatic expansion, the value of P/P is equal to
0042026

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Q. No. 27 Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic
0042027 gas at 300 K. The piston of A is free to move, while that of B is held fixed. The same
amount of heat is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise in temperature of the
gas in A is 30 K, then the rise in temperature of the gas in B is

Option A 30 K
Option B 18 K
Option C 50 K
Option D 42 K

Q. No. 28 If the mass of gas molecules be m, then the root-mean-square speed (vrms) of the
0042028 gas molecules at temperature T will be

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Q. No. 29 A tuning fork of frequency 345 Hz is vibrated just above a tube of height 100 cm.
0042029 Water is filling slowly in the tube. What minimum height of water will be necessary
for the resonance (Velocity of sound in air = 345 m/s)
Option A 20 cm
Option B 25 cm

Option C 30 cm

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Option D 28 cm

Q. No. 30 A tuning fork when vibrating with a sonometer produces 6 beats per second when the
0042030 length of the sonometer wire is either 20 cm or 21 cm. What will be the frequency of
the tuning fork
Option A 246 Hz
Option B 220 Hz

Option C 346 Hz
Option D 200 Hz

Q. No. 31 The force between two electric dipoles separated by a distance r is directly
0042031 proportional to

Option A r2

Option B r4

Option C r-2

Option D r-4

Q. No. 32
The unit of intensity of electric field
0042032
Option A Newton/meter

Option B Colomb/newton
Option C Newton/Colomb
Option D Joule/newton

Q. No. 33 What will be the equivalent capacitance between the point P and Q
0042033

Option A 12 F
Option B 1.27 F
Option C 2.25 F

Option D 6.71 F

Q. No. 34 What will be the power loss in the given circuit
0042034

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Option A 38 W
Option B 42 W
Option C 40 W

Option D 45 W

Q. No. 35 When an external resistance of 75 is connected to the terminal of a battery, a
0042035 current of 0.5 ampere flows in it. When the resistance is increased to 135 , the
current decreases to 0.3 amperes. Determine the emf and the internal resistance of
the battery
Option A 42 V

Option B 50 V
Option C 68 V
Option D 45 V

Q. No. 36 A current of 4.8 A flows in a wire. The number of electrons flowing per second
0042036 through the wire

Option A 3 x 1019

Option B 3 x 1020

Option C 7.68 x 1020

Option D 76.8 x 1020

Q. No. 37
What will be the magnetic field due to a long straight current-carrying wire
0042037

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

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Q. No. 38 Those substances in which the magnetic moment of the molecules are zero are,
0042038
Option A Paramagnetic
Option B Diamagnetic
Option C Ferromagnetic

Option D Paramagnetic or ferromagnetic depending on temperature

Q. No. 39 A bar magnet of magnetic moment 2.5 ampere-meter2is placed in a magnetic field of
0042039 0.2 tesla. Find the work done to rotate the magnet from parallel to antiparallel
direction relative to the magnetic field.
Option A 2J
Option B 0J

Option C 1J
Option D 3J

Q. No. 40 The self-inductance of a current-carrying coil is 40 mH. What will be the induced emf
0042040 when the current increase from 1A to 11A in 4 millisecond

Option A -90 V
Option B -103 V
Option C -91 V

Option D -100 V

Q. No. 41
Power factor is maximum in alternating current when circuit is
0042041
Option A Inductive only

Option B Capacitive only
Option C L-C
Option D Resistive only

Q. No. 42 The output voltage of an ideal transformer connected to a 240 V a.c. mains is 24 V.
0042042 The current in the secondary coil of the transformer is 1A. What will be the current
flowing in the primary coil of the circuit
Option A 0
Option B 0.1 A
Option C 0.2 A

Option D 0.4 A

Q. No. 43 The distance of an object from the first focus of a thin lens is x1 and that of the image
0042043 from the second focus is x2. If f1 and f2 are the focal lengths of the two sides of the
lens respectively, then

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Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Q. No. 44 When a light ray is an incident at an angle 50o on the refracting surface of a 60o
0042044 prism, it suffers minimum deviation. The angle deviation is

Option A 40o

Option B 45o

Option C 50o

Option D 60o

Q. No. 45 If f1 and f2 are focal lengths of two plano-convex lenses and d is the distance
0042045 between them, the defect of spherical aberration will be minimum in this lens
combination if

Option A d=f1f2

Option B d=f1+f2

Option C d=f1-f2

Option D d=f1/f2

Q. No. 46
The resolving power of a telescope depends upon
0042046
Option A The focal length of the objective

Option B The focal length of the eyepiece
Option C The length of the telescope
Option D The aperture of the objective

Q. No. 47 At what temperature will the speed of sound in hydrogen be the same as in oxygen at
0042047 100 oC. The densities of oxygen and hydrogen are in the ratio 16:1

Option A 23.3 oC

Option B 249.7 K

Option C -249.7 oC
Option D 250 K

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Q. No. 48 What will be the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron having a kinetic energy of 100
0042048 eV

Option A 1.227 Ao

Option B 0.1227 Ao

Option C 12.227 Ao

Option D 122.7 Ao

Q. No. 49
The minimum energy of a photon for pair production is
0042049
Option A 931 eV
Option B 9.31 eV
Option C 102 MeV
Option D 1.02 MeV

Q. No. 50
The mutual conductance of triode valve is
0042050

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Q. No. 51
The number of moles present in 6 gms of carbon is:
0072051
Option A 2
Option B 0.5
Option C 5
Option D 1

Q. No. 52
In the ground state, an element has 13 electrons in its M-shell. The element is_____.
0072052
Option A Copper
Option B Chromium
Option C Nickel
Option D Iron

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Q. No. 53 Which of the following statements does not form a part of Bohr's model of hydrogen
0072053 atom?
Option A Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantised
Option B The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has the lowest energy

Option C Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus
Option D The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously

Q. No. 54
The element with atomic number 35 belongs to
0072054

Option A d - Block
Option B f - Block
Option C p - Block
Option D s - Block

Q. No. 55
The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can have is
0072055
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 4

Q. No. 56
When you heat a sample of gas, what happens to the particles that make up the gas?
0072056
Option A The particles move faster
Option B The particles break apart

Option C The particles get smaller
Option D The particles become more dense

Q. No. 57
One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy?
0072057

Option A Liquid Nitrogen
Option B Hydrogen Gas
Option C Mercury
Option D Diamond

Q. No. 58 In a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium, if the concentration of any one of the
0072058 reactants is doubled, then the equilibrium constant will
Option A Also be Doubled

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Option B Be Halved

Option C Remain the Same
Option D Become One-Fourth

Q. No. 59
Loss of electron is termed as -
0072059
Option A Oxidation
Option B Reduction
Option C Combustion
Option D Neutralization

Q. No. 60
The structure of H2O is-
0072060
Option A Planar
Option B Non-planar
Option C Spherical
Option D Linear

Q. No. 61
Which of the following alkali metals has the least melting point?
0072061
Option A Na
Option B K

Option C Rb
Option D Cs

Q. No. 62
Which of the following will not produce hydrogen gas?
0072062

Option A Reaction between Fe and dil. HCl
Option B Reaction between Zn and NaOH

Option C Reaction between Zn and conc. H2SO4

Option D Electrolysis of NaCl in Nelsons cell

Q. No. 63
Who is known as the father of chemistry ?
0072063
Option A Lavoisier
Option B Priestley
Option C Faraday

Option D Rutherford
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Q. No. 64
The Number of structural isomers for C6H14 is
0072064
Option A 3

Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6

Q. No. 65
LPG mainly contain-
0072065
Option A Methane
Option B Ethane
Option C Propane
Option D Butane

Q. No. 66
Which of the following gas is found in coal mines and marshy places?
0072066
Option A Methane
Option B Ethane
Option C Propane
Option D Benzene

Q. No. 67
Which of the following is the coldest region?
0072067
Option A Troposphere
Option B Mesosphere

Option C Stratosphere
Option D Thermosphere

Q. No. 68
Depletion of ozone layer causes
0072068
Option A Blood cancer
Option B Lung cancer
Option C Skin cancer
Option D Breast cancer

Q. No. 69
Who proposed the atomic theory?
0072069
Option A John Dalton

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Option B Robert Millikan
Option C J. J. Thomson
Option D Neils Bohr

Q. No. 70
Which of the following aqueous solution will be the best conductor of electricity?
0072070

Option A NH3

Option B CH3COOH

Option C HCl

Option D C6H12O6

Q. No. 71
Which of the following is not a crystalline solid?
0072071
Option A KCl
Option B CsCl

Option C Glass
Option D Rhombic S

Q. No. 72
A crystalline solid -
0072072
Option A changes abruptly from solid to liquid when heated
Option B has no definite melting point
Option C undergoes deformation of its geometry easily
Option D has an irregular 3-dimensional arrangements

Q. No. 73
What is the co-ordination number of sodium in Na2O?
0072073
Option A 6
Option B 4
Option C 8
Option D 2

Q. No. 74 Mole fraction of glycerineC3H5(OH)3 in solution containing 36 g of water and 46 g of
0072074 glycerine is

Option A 0.46
Option B 0.40
Option C 0.20
Option D 0.36

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Q. No. 75
A plant cell shrinks when it is kept in a
0072075
Option A hypotonic solution
Option B hypertonic solution
Option C isotonic solution

Option D pure water

Q. No. 76
Which of the following is a quantitative description of the solution?
0072076
Option A Dilute

Option B Concentrated
Option C Saturated
Option D Molar

Q. No. 77 The cell reaction of the galvanic cell.
0072077

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Q. No. 78
Fused NaCl on electrolysis gives ............... on cathode.
0072078
Option A Chlroine
Option B Sodium
Option C Sodium amalgam
Option D Hydrogen

Q. No. 79
Faraday's law of electrolysis is related to
0072079
Option A Atomic number of cation
Option B Speed of cation
Option C Speed of anion
Option D Equivalent weight of electrolyte

Q. No. 80 In chemical equation H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI (g) the equilibrium constant Kp depends
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0072080 on
Option A total pressure
Option B catalyst used

Option C amount of H2 and I2

Option D temperature

Q. No. 81
The overall rate of a reaction is governed by
0072081
Option A the rate of fastest intermediate step

Option B the sum total of the rates of all intermediate steps
Option C the average of the rates of all the intermediate steps
Option D the rate of slowest intermediate step

Q. No. 82
The order of reaction is decided by
0072082
Option A temperature
Option B mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration of reactants
Option C molecularity
Option D pressure

Q. No. 83
Volume of one mole of any gas at NTP is
0072083
Option A 11.2 litre
Option B 22.4 litre
Option C 10.2 litre
Option D 22.8 litre

Q. No. 84
The process of separating a crystalloid from a colloid by filtration is called
0072084
Option A Emulsification
Option B Dialysis

Option C Coagulation
Option D Peptization

Q. No. 85 A colloidal system in which liquid is dispersed phase and solid is dispersion medium is
0072085 classified as

Option A gel
Option B sol
Option C emulsion
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Option D aerosol

Q. No. 86
Malachite is an ore of
0072086
Option A iron
Option B copper
Option C zinc
Option D silver

Q. No. 87
Malachite is an ore of
0072087
Option A iron
Option B copper

Option C zinc
Option D silver

Q. No. 88
Sulphide ore of zinc/copper is concentrated by
0072088

Option A floatation process
Option B electromagnetic process
Option C gravity separation
Option D distillation

Q. No. 89
H2S is more acidic than H2O because
0072089
Option A oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur.
Option B atomic number of sulphur is higher than oxygen.
Option C H - S bond dissociation energy is less as compared to H - O bond.
Option D H - O bond dissociation energy is less as compared to H - S bond.

Q. No. 90
The set with correct order of acidity is
0072090

Option A HClO< HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

Option B HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO

Option C HClO< HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2

Option D HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO

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Q. No. 91 Which one of the following elements is most metallic ?
0072091
Option A P

Option B As
Option C Sb
Option D Bi

Q. No. 92
Which of the following are d-block elements but not regarded as transition elements?
0072092
Option A Cu, Ag, Au
Option B Zn, Cd, Hg
Option C Fe, Co, Ni
Option D Ru, Rh, Pd

Q. No. 93
Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
0072093

Option A Mg2+

Option B Ti3+

Option C V3+

Option D Fe2+

Q. No. 94
Zinc and mercury do not show variable valency like d-block elements because
0072094
Option A They are soft
Option B Their d-shells are complete
Option C They have only two electrons in the outermost subshell
Option D Their d-shells are incomplete

Q. No. 95
According to Werner's theory of co-ordination compounds
0072095
Option A Primary valency is ionisable
Option B Secondary valency is ionisable
Option C Primary and secondary valencies are ionisable

Option D Neither primary nor secondary valency is ionisable

Q. No. 96
Which of the following has magnesium?
0072096

Option A Chlorophyll
Option B Haemocyanin
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Option C Carbonic anhydrate

Option D Vitamin B12

Q. No. 97
Mohr's salt is
0072097

Option A Fe2(SO4) . 3 (NH4)2SO4 .6H2O

Option B FeSO4 . (NH4)2 .SO4 . 6H2O

Option C MgSO4 .7H2O

Option D FeSO4 . 7H2O

Q. No. 98
The hybridisation of carbon in diamond is
0072098

Option A sp3

Option B sp2
Option C sp

Option D dsp2

Q. No. 99
Organic compound must contain an element
0072099
Option A oxygen
Option B carbon
Option C hydrogen
Option D nitrogen

Q. No. 100
Single bond length between carbon-carbon is
0072100

Option A 1.34

Option B 1.20

Option C 1.54

Option D 1.31

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