PU CET PG 2017 Question Paper MSc_HS 2Yr__Biotechnology_

MSc(HS/2Yr)(Biotechnology)

1. Which of the following enzymes have Ribonuclease H like acivity
A) 3’ 5’ Exonuclease B) Polynucleotide kinase
C) S1 Exonuclease D) 5’ 3’ Exonuclease

2. Recognizing self antigen over the nonself antigen represents;
A) Immuno-tolerance B) Immuno-rejection
C) Immuno-compromization D) Immuno-adherence

3. Industrial production of yoghurt from milk protein is produced by which of the
following component
A) Aceto-acetic acid B) Succinic Acid
C) Lactic Acid D) Acetic Acid
4. Isoschizomers are the endonucleases that represent
A) Enzymes isolated from different species of bacteria but recognize and cut same
palindrome sequence
B) Enzymes isolated from same species of bacteria but recognize same site but cut at
different palindrome sequence
C) Enzymes isolated from same species of bacteria but recognize more than two
different site but cut at different palindrome sequence
D) Enzymes isolated from different species of bacteria but recognize more than two
different site but cut at different palindrome sequence

5. What are the Shine-Dalgarno sequences;
A) Sequences on mRNA where ribosome’s binds
B) Sequences on tRNA on to which mRNA binds
C) Sequences on tRNA on to which protein is extended
D) Sequences on rRNA on to which mRNA binds

6. The infectious agent that lack any protein coat and consists of RNA only is represented
as:
A) Prophage B) Autophage C) viroid D) Cyanobacteria

7. Iron forms an important metal ion for functional activity of the proteins, which one of
the
following proteins does not use Iron for its functional activity
A) Cytoschrome c B) Chlorophyll C) Hemoglobin D) Catalase

8. A protein with approximate molecular weight of 5720, would have how many number
of amino acids:
A) 57 amino acids B) 52 amino acids C) 42 amino acids D) 55 amino acids

9. During generation of synthetic organism the host cell in which foreign DNA was
inserted is represented by:
A) M capricolum B) M mycoids C) M. bovis D) M. tuberculli

10. During somatic cell nuclear transfer , which of the following event is practiced
A) Nuclear DNA of somatic cell is removed and mixed with nucleus of oocytes to
generate Embryo.
B) Nuclear DNA of somatic cell is removed and added to enucleated oocytes to
generate Embryo
C) Nuclear DNA of oocytes is added to enucleated somatic cell to generate
Embryo,
D) Mitochondrial DNA of oocyte is inserted into somatic cell to generate embryo
11. Which one of the following methodology would you use to identify the terminal ends
of RNA molecule?
A) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
B) Repeated Restriction of DNA ends
C) Rapid Amplification of cDNA Ends
D) Restricted Amplification of DNA molecule

12. All the following methods except one can be used for identifying protein binding sites
on DNA molecules
A) Gel retardation method B) DNA foot printing assay
C) Modification interference Assay D) Flowcytometry assay

13. A techniques used to assemble a clone contig is represented by
A) Chromosome reduction B) Chromosome destruction
C) Chromosome recombination D) Chromosome walking

14. Concentration of Magnesium ten times higher than the recommended will result in
which of the outcome on gel following PCR reaction.
A) Absence of any amplified band on gel
B) Appearance of multiple bands with high intensity of desired product size
C) Appearance of multiple bands with absence of desired product size.
D) Single very specific size band will be amplified
15. Vaccines that uses only the component of pathogenic organism to elicit immune
response
are called
A) Vector vaccine
B) Attenuated vaccine
C) Subunit vaccines
D) Non infections strain of the infectious species
16. During which cycle of PCR would you first time get the right size Fragment being
amplified
A) 3 cyles B) 30 cycles C) 5 cycles D) 35
cycles
17. Antibiotics that are synthesized by successive enzymatic condensation of small
carboxylic acids like acetate, propionate and butyrate are called
A) Polyketide antibiotics B) Polyacidic antibiotics
C) Lactam series antibiotics D) sulfuranyl antibiotics

18. Microbially produced polyhydroxyalkanoates are used for making which of the
following product
A) Increasing the taste of the cheese B) Producing biodegradable
plastic
C) Producing collagenous scaffolds D) Producing digestible colours

19. Which of the following microorganism, classified as world’s toughest microorganism,
can be potentially exploited for the bioremediation of radioactive contaminants..
A) Deinococcus radiodurans B) Bacillus radiodurans
C) Candida albicans D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

20. Soil microorganism synthesize and secrete a molecule of low molecular mass, called
siderophore, which is being exploited in the biotechnology for binding of which of
the following ion
A) Ferric ion B) Magnessium ion C) Phopshate ion D) Nitrogen
ion

21. Increase in the lipid content more than the normal, specifically of cholesterol, in
plasma membrane will produce which type of effects on membrane.
A) Increase in the membrane fluidity
B) Increase in the membrane permeability
C) increase in the membrane flip flop mechanism
D) Increase in the membrane rigidity

22. Oubain an known inhibitor of Na+-K+ ATPase activity blocks the active transport
through which side of the membrane
A) Extracellular part of enzyme that binds Na+ ion.
B) Intracellular part of enzyme binds K+ ion.
C) Extracellular part of enzyme that binds K+ ion.
D) Intracellular part of enzyme binds Na+ ion.

23. The serum in the animal cell culture medium provides all the following, except
A) Growth hormones B) Trypsin inhibitor
C) Buffering action D) Albumin

24. Repeated guanine containing nucleotide in DNA would adopt which type of DNA
structure.
A) G-double helical Watson crick DNA B) G-quadruplex
C) G- singlet D) G-triplex

25. DNA Gyrase, assists in unwinding the DNA strand by catalyzing one of the
following:
A) Inducing telomerase activity
B) Inducing supercoiling activity
C) Inducing RNAase H activity
D) Inducing compactness of chromatin

26. One of the following is called as mechanism based inhibition
A) Compititive inhibition B) Noncompititive inhibition
C) Suicide inhibition D) Uncompetitive inhbition

27. Removal of sigma subunit from holoenzyme will result in which of the following
action
A) Weak binding of Core enzyme B) Strong binding of Core
enzyme
C) Core enzyme dissociates from Strands D) Holoenzyme stops RNA synthesis

28. The term ‘capsid’ signifies
A) The protein coat of a virus B) The protein coat of a bacteria
C) The 5’ cap of newly synthesized protein D) The3’ cap of newly synthesized
protein

29. One of the following represents a gratuitous inducer for lac operon
A) 5-bromo-4-chloro-3-indolyl-β-D-galactopyranoside (X-Gal)
B) Isopropyl β-D-1-thiogalactopyranoside ( IPTG)
C) β-D-galactopyranosyl-(1→4)-D-glucose (Lactose)
D) Galactopyranoside ( Galactose)
30. Which one of the following are defective leading to unnatural folding of proteins
A) Chaperones B) Proeteosomes C) Polyribosomes D)
Peroxisomes

31. Which one of the following strategies based on the important proteins from Bacillus
Thuringiensis, was adopted for generating BT- Crops
A) N-terminal portion of insecticidal protoxin was produced
B) C-terminal portion of insecticidal protoxin was produced
C) N-terminal portion of Herbicidal protoxin was produced
D) C-terminal portion of Herbicidal protoxin was produced

32. Which of the following does not participate in the formation of antigen antibody
complexes?
A) Hydrophobic bonds B) Covalent bonds
C) Hydrogen bonds D) Electrostatic interactions

33. Which of the following does not constitute a part of ELISA kit to be used for
screening patients infected with a bacteria
A) Substrate
B) Primary antibody to the antigenic sites of bacteria
C) Enzyme labelled Secondary antibody to the primary antibody
D) Enzyme labelled Secondary antibody to the antigenic parts of bacteria
34. The T-DNA region of Ti plasmid is defined by which of the following set of genes.
A) Left and Right borders, Auxin, Cytokine, Opine.
B) Left and Right borders, Auxin, Cytokinin, Opine.
C) Left and Right borders, ori, Cytokinin, Opine.

D) Left and Right borders, ori, Cytokine, Opine.

35. Which of the following orders will hold true for relative permeability in descending
order for different classes of molecules across lipid bilayer,
A) Hydrophobic molecules>small uncharged polar molecules> large uncharged polar
molecules>ions
B) Hydrophobic molecules>large uncharged polar molecules> small uncharged polar
molecules>ions
C) ions >small uncharged polar molecules> large uncharged polar molecules>
Hydrophobic molecules
D) ions> large uncharged polar molecules> small uncharged polar molecules>
Hydrophobic molecules

36. The following statements are true for complement system, except
A) It consists of water soluble proteins
B) It consists of inactive proteins that can be activated
C) These proteins are continuously made by liver
D) These proteins are always active do not need any activation
37. During capping of mRNA which of the following is unusually formed
A) 5’-3’ cyclic triphosphate covalent bond formation
B) 3’-3’ triphosphate covalent bond formation
C) 5’-5’ Triphosphate covalent bond formation
D) 5’-3’ Triphosphate covalent bond formation
38. Which of the following represents an important characters of normal animal cells
inculture incomparison to transformed cell in culture.
A) Crossing of Hayflick limit B) High nuclear to cytosol ratio
C) Polyploidy D) Contact Inhibition
39. The resolution limit of a microscope is dependent on
A) Wavelength of the light and medium of the sample fixation used
B) Wavelength of the light and quality of light souce used
C) Numerical aperture of the lens system and medium of the sample fixation used
D) Numerical aperture of the lens system and wavelength used
40. The eukaryotic cells have three types of RNA polymerases, which of these are used
for transcription of protein coding genes.
A) RNA polymerase I only B) RNA polymerase II only
C) RNA polymerase III only D) RNA polymerase I , II and III
41. The human cells use many of the vitamins as critical coenzymes, Identify which of
the following does not belong to this group.
A) Lipoic Acid B) Biotin C) Niacin D) Ascorbic

acid

42. The Dendritic cells captures antigen in an innate response and displays it on
A) Random cells B) MHC molecules
C) Antibody molecules D) Complement systems

43. One of the following character best explains the nature of phospholipids
A) Polar head groups and chain
B) Polar head groups and hydrophobic chain
C) Hydrophobic head and polar chain
D) Hydrophobic head and chain

44. As per the Lambert-Beer’s law
A) Absorbance of a solution is inversely proportional to transmittance
B) Absorbance of a solution is directly proportional to transmittance
C) Absorbance has no relation with transmittance
D) Absorbance is indirectly related to molar equivalence of solute in solution

45. Which of the following mutation is responsible for manifestation of Sickle Cell
Anemia disease?
A) Individuals homozygous for change in codon for sixth amino acid of the α-chain
of haemoglobin.
B) Individuals homozygous for change in codon for sixth amino acid of the β -chain
of haemoglobin.
C) Individuals heterozygous for change in codon for sixth amino acid of the α -chain
of haemoglobin.
D) Individuals heterozygous for change in codon for sixth amino acid of the β-chain
of haemoglobin.

46. Which of the following components do not constitute a part of the series of electron
carriers in mitochondrial electron transport chain?
A) Succinyl –CoQ Reductase B) NADPH –CoQ Reductase
C) NADPH –Cyt P450 Reductase D) Cytochrome c oxidase
47. A culture of animal cells with an indefinite life span is termed as.
A) Primary cell culture B) Secondary cell culture
C) Cell line D) Cell strain

48. Allergy is a result of an antigen leading to dimerization of:
A) IgE B) IgD C) IgM D) IgG

49. The spindle poles in mitotic dividing animal cells are responsible for organization of
which of the proteins?
A) Tubulin B) Myelin C) Myosin D) Kinesin

50. Identify which of the following stages do not take place in Anaphase of Mitosis.
A) Duplicated chromosomes separate.
B) Chromosomes aligned at equatorial plate.
C) Shortening of the kinetochore microtubules at spindle poles.
D) Spindle poles move apart

51. The rationale for carrying out fermentation under anearobic conditions is:
A) To regenerate NAD+ from NADH for continuing glycolysis

B) To prevent the loss of energy currency by inhibiting proton pump
C) To halt glycolysis due to absence of oxygen
D) To restore glucose level due to anaerobic condition.

52. A specialized invagination of the inner mitochondrial membrane is termed as
A) Crista B) Thylakoid C) Stroma D) Lamella

53. The pH of 10-4 M HCL is equal to:
A) 8 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6

54. The active site of an enzyme is constituted of the following functionally important
regions
A) Substrate binding site only
B) Catalytic site only
C) Substrate binding as well as catalytic site
D) Substrate binding site serves as the catalytic site also.

55. A living actively metabolizing cell despite production of many acids is able to
maintain constant pH due to
A) Its buffer reservoir of weak bases and acids
B) Its buffer reservoir of strong bases and weak acids
C) Its buffer reservoir of weak bases and strong acids
D) Its buffer reservoir of strong bases and acids

56. DNA fragments are made up of repeating units of nucleotides that are composed of
bases sugars and phosphates. When DNA fragments are separated by agarose
electrophoresis, the separation proceeds from which of the following ends of
electrodes .
A) From negative to positive
B) From positive to negative
C) First from negative to positive and then from positive to negative
D) First from positive to negative and then from negative to positive
57. The term heterochromatin describes the
A) Regions of chromatin that remain highly condensed and transcriptionally inactive
during interphase
B) Regions of chromatin that remain highly condensed and transcriptionally active
during interphase
C) Regions of chromatin that remain loosely condensed and transcriptionally
inactive during interphase
D) Regions of chromatin that remain loosely condensed and transcriptionally active
during interphase
58. The term sn- glycerol in lipids stands for
A) Specific numbering B) Stereospecific numbering
C) Similar numbering D) Simplified numbering
59. The signalling mechanism in which a target cell responds to a neurotransmitter
produced by a nearby cells and reaching to target by diffusion is termed as.

A) Paracrine B) Endocrine C) Autocrine D)
Exocrine

60. The majority of digestive enzymes are secreted as zymogens, identify which of the
following does not belong to this group
A) Pepsin B) Trypsin C) Elastase D)
Amylase

61. During fermentation, an Ideal filtration system for sterilization of animal cell culture
media, fulfils all the following criteria except.
A) Filtered medium must be free of fungal, bacterial and mycoplasma contamination
B) Minimal adsorption of proteins to the filter surface
C) Filter pores must be more than 4.0 micron mesh size
D) Filtered medium should be free of endotoxins

62. All the following products are the outcome of fermentation process except
A) Acetate B) Lactate C) Alcohol D) Oxygen

63. You are asked to chalk out the plan for industrial production of chemical X, which
steps would you follow to produce chemical X at industrial scale
A) Screening, fermentation, downstream processing, Inoculation, removal of waste
B) Screening, Inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste
C) inoculation, screening, removal of waste, Fermentation, downstream processing
D) inoculation , Fermentation, screening, downstream processing, removal of waste,

64. Which of the following genetic change increases the foreign DNA transformation
efficiency in bacterial host?
A) Host cells that are transposases negative
B) Host cells that are both recombination negative and transposases negative
C) Host cells that are both recombination negative and endonucleases negative
D Host cells that are both transposases negative and endonucleases negative

65. All except one are known method of fermentation
A) Batch culture B) Continuous culture
C) Exhausting culture D) Fed Batch culture

66. Fatty acids that predominate in phospholipids have been listed below. Identify which
one of the Following is unsaturated
A) Myristic acid B) Palmitic acid C) Stearic acid D)
Palmitoleic

67. Which one of the following is the most abundant carbohydrate in nature
A) Collagen B) Albumin C) Starch D)
Cellulose

68. The half life of 32P

A) 4.9 days B) 14.9 days C) 140.9 days D) 1400.9
days

69. As per linkage analysis, if two loci are inherited together then one of the outcome is
possible
A) These must be very close on the same chromosome
B) These must be distant away on the same chromosome
C) The loci got duplicated
D) A mediator DNA fragment connected the two loci

70. Formation of inclusion bodies following transformation of expression plasmid with in
bacteria lead to which of the difficulty.
A) Recovering supercoiled plasmid DNA
B) Recovering correctly folded proteins
C) Recovering correctly folded mRNA
D) Recovering miRNA

71. While studying the protein-protein interaction, a common method of phage display
works on the bases that
A) Phage expresses different proteins on their surface
B) Phage expresses different proteins within the coat proteins
C) Phage expresses single protein on their surface
D) Phage expresses single protein with in coat proteins

72. Among the following, the _________give the Humoral immunity while
________give cell mediated immunity.
A) B cells/T cells B) T cells/B cells
C) Antibodies /Antigens D) Antigens /Antibodies

73. The Kanamycin resistance is used as selection criteria for recombinant DNA selection
but as an antibiotic it works through which of the following mechanism.
A) Binds to 30S subunit & prevents translocation from aminoacyl tRNA site to peptidyl
site.
B) Binds to 50S subunit & prevents translocation from aminoacyl tRNA site to peptidyl
site.
C) Inhibits cell wall formation
D) Blocks initiation complex formation

74. SDS –PAGE separates the proteins based on which of the following basis
A) Molecular size B) Electric charge
C) pH D) Protein confirmation

75. Which of the following is the biological buffer
A) Tris-hydrochloride Buffer B) K2HPO4/KH2PO4 buffer
C) HEPES Buffer D) Carbonate/Bicarbonate buffer
x-x-x