CUSAT CAT 2022 Question Paper B.Voc Shift 1

B.VOC SHIFT 1

1. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds.
What is the length of the train?
(A) 150 meters
(B) 180 meters
(C) 324 meters
(D) 120 meters

2. What is the difference in the place value of 5 in the numeral 754853?
(A) 49500
(B) 49950
(C) 45000
(D) 49940

3. What is the compound interest on Rs.2500 for 2 years at rate of interest 4% per annum?

(A) Rs. 180/-
(B) Rs. 204/-
(C) Rs. 210/-
(D) Rs. 220/-

4. A mother is twice as old as her son. If 20 years ago, the age of the mother was 10 times
the age of the son, what is the present age of the mother?

(A) 38 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 43 years
(D) 45 years

5. A running man crosses a bridge of length 500 meters in 2 minutes.
At what speed he is running?

(A) 15 km/hr
(B) 17 km/hr
(C) 19 km/hr
(D) 13 km/hr

6. If January 1, 1996, was Monday, what day of the week was January 1, 1997?

(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Sunday

7. 45 × ? = 35% of 900

(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 4

8. If 30% of 1520 + 40% of 800 = x % of 5000, find the value of x.

(A) 14.42%
(B) 15.52%
(C) 12.22%
(D) 18.82%

9. Wages for 45 women amount to rupees 15525 in 48 days. How many men require to
work 16 days to receive rupees 5750, the daily wages of a man being double of those
of a woman?

(A) 25 men
(B) 50 men
(C) 75 men
(D) 20 men

10. If the average of three consecutive even numbers is 34, find the largest of these numbers.

(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 34
(D) 36

11. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 15 years. If we include the age of two
teachers the average age increases by 1. Find the sum of ages of the two teachers.

(A) 55 years
(B) 58 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 64 years

12. Four years ago, the average age of A and B was 20 years. If today average age of
A, B and C is 25 years, what will be age of C after 7 years?

(A) 32 years
(B) 34 years
(C) 36 years
(D) 38 years

13. If two values are 20% and 60% of a third value, what percentage is the first value of
the second value?

(A) 22.2%
(B) 33.3%
(C) 27.7%
(D) 31.1%

2
14. In the given expression (1.05) × Z = 44.1. Find the value of Z.

(A) 40.01
(B) 42
(C) 40
(D) 42.01

15. The average weight of X, Y and Z is 45 kg. If the average weight of X and Y be 40 kg
and that of Y and Z be 43 kg, then the weight of Y is

(A) 30
(B) 29
(C) 31
(D) 32

16. What is twenty percent of 25% of 20?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 1

17. How many seconds will a 500 meter long train take to cross a man walking at a speed
of 3 km/hr in the direction of the moving train if the speed of the train is 63 km/hr?

(A) 33
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 32

18. Four teams, Team A, B, C and D participated in a tournament. Team C scored the
least. Team B scored more than team D but not as much as Team A. Who amongst the
four teams scored third highest?

(A) Team A
(B) Team B
(C) Team C
(D) Team D

19. A man has Rs. 480/- in the denominations of one rupee notes, five rupee notes and ten
rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total
number of notes that he has?

(A) 60
(B) 90
(C) 100
(D) 85

20. Aiswarya has a lot of stuff in her pencil case. There are 14 items in her pencil case,
including 2 pencils. What is the probability that a randomly selected item from her
pencil case will be a pencil?

(A) 0.14
(B) 0.014
(C) 1/6
(D) 1/14

21. A cow is tied in the middle of a field with a rope that is 14 ft long.
If the cow grazes 100 sq.ft per day, approximately how many days
will the cow take to graze the whole field?

(A) 15
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 14

22. What would be the cost of building a fence 10 feet high around a square plot with area
equal to 400 sq.ft., if the price per foot of building the fence is Rs. 80/-?

(A) Rs. 2000/-
(B) Rs. 50000/-
(C) Rs. 80000/-
(D) Rs. 64000/-

23. The smallest 4 digit prime number is

(A) 1001
(B) 1003
(C) 1007
(D) 1009

24. Three numbers a, b, c are in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 1. Average of their reciprocals is
13 81. Then the largest number among a, b, c is

(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 27

25. A train starts full of passengers. At the first station, the train drops one-third of the
passengers and takes in 96 more. At the next station, one-half of the passengers on
board get down while 12 new passengers get on board. The number of passengers
now was 240. The number of passengers in the beginning was

(A) 540
(B) 600
(C) 444
(D) 430

26. Due to a fall of rate of interest by 2% per annum, the loss of annual simple interest
for a person is Rs. 240/-. Then the principal amount is

(A) Rs. 9000/-
(B) Rs. 10,000/-
(C) Rs. 12,000/-
(D) Rs. 13,000/-

27. A wire is cut into four equal parts. These pieces are then cut into 2, 3, 4, 5 equal parts.
Each of their resulting pieces has an integer length. Then the minimum length of the
wire is

(A) 60 units
(B) 150 units
(C) 100 units
(D) 240 units

Direction: Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The graph given below represents the production of cars (in 1000) from 2010 to 2017.

28. What is the average number of cars produced between 2010 and 2017?

(A) 60.75
(B) 45.30
(C) 53.75
(D) 55.50

29. What was the percentage decline in the production of cars from 2014 to 2015?

(A) 25
(B) 23
(C) 21
(D) 24

30. In how many of the given years was the production of cars more than the average
production of the given years?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

31. In which year was the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous
year the maximum?

(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2014
(D) 2016

32. The average production of 2011 and 2012 was exactly equal to the average production
of which of the following pairs of years?

(A) 2010 and 2017
(B) 2013 and 2015
(C) 2013 and 2014
(D) 2012 and 2013

Direction: Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Classification of 100 students based on the marks obtained by them in Physics and
Chemistry in an Examination.
Marks out of 50
Subject 40 and 30 and 20 and 10 and 0 and
above above above above above
Physics 9 32 80 92 100
Chemistry 4 21 66 81 100
Average
7 27 73 87 100
(aggregate)

33. What is the difference between the number of students passed with 30 as cut-off
marks in Chemistry and those passed with 30 as cut-off marks in aggregate?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

34. If at least 60% marks in Physics are required for pursuing higher studies in Physics,
how many students will be eligible to pursue higher studies in Physics?

(A) 27
(B) 32
(C) 41
(D) 34

35. The percentage of number of students getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry over
those getting at least 40% marks in aggregate, is approximately what according to the
table chart?

(A) 29
(B) 21
(C) 31
(D) 22

36. The number of students scoring less than 40% marks in aggregate is

(A) 13
(B) 16
(C) 20
(D) 27

37. If it is known that at least 35 students were eligible for a course on Chemistry, then
the minimum qualifying marks in Chemistry for eligibility to the course would lie in
the which range?

(A) 40 – 45
(B) 30 – 40
(C) 20 – 30
(D) Below 20

Direction: Study the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in
publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it.

38. What is the central angle of the sector corresponding
to the expenditure incurred on Royalty?

(A) 54°
(B) 48°
(C) 24°
(D) 15°

39. Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by:

(A) 5%
(B) 30%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%

40. If 5000 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to
Rs. 82500, then what should be the selling price of the book so that the
publisher can earn a profit of 25%?

(A) 210.50
(B) 207.75
(C) 206.25
(D) 205

41. If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 75,630 as printing cost,
then what will be amount of promotion cost to be paid for these books?

(A) 36,515
(B) 37,815
(C) 35,685
(D) 38,425

42. The price of the book is marked 20% above the Cost Price. If the marked price of the
book is Rs. 240, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book?

(A) 52
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 49

Direction: The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India
Bonds from different categories of investors. Answer the following questions by referring pie
chart data.

Subscriptions Generated for India Bonds

43. In the corporate sector, approximately how many degrees should be there in the
central angle?

(A) 120
(B) 121
(C) 122
(D) 123

44. If the investment by NRI's are Rs 4,000 crore, then the investments by corporate
houses and FII's together is:

(A) 24,000 crore
(B) 24,363 crore
(C) 25,423 crore
(D) 25,643 crore

45. What percentage of the total investment is coming from FII's and NRI’s?

(A) 33%
(B) 11%
(C) 44%
(D) 22%

46. If the total investment other than by FII and corporate houses is Rs 335,000 crore,
then the investment by NRI's and Offshore funds will be (approximately) ?

(A) 274,100
(B) 285,600
(C) 293,000
(D) Cannot be determined

47. If the total investment flows from FII's were to be doubled in the next year and the
investment flows from all other sources had remained constant at their existing levels
for this year, then what would be the proportion of FII investment in the total
investment into India Bonds next year (in US $ millions) ?

(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 70%

48. The number of students below 14 years of age is 30% and the number of students
above 14 years are 3/4 of those with 14 years age. If the number of students with
14 years age is 64, then the total number of students is

(A) 30
(B) 70
(C) 112
(D) 160

1
49. If 1 is added to the denominator of a fraction, the fraction becomes . If 1 is added to
2
the numerator of the fraction, the fraction becomes 1. Then the fraction is

1
(A)
3
2
(B)
3
3
(C)
4
3
(D)
2

50. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the
ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is

(A) 1:3
(B) 1:4
(C) 1:5
(D) 1:6

51. On selling 17 balls together at Rs. 720/-, there is a loss equal to the cost price of
5 balls. Then cost price of a ball is

(A) Rs. 45/-
(B) Rs. 50/-
(C) Rs. 55/-
(D) Rs. 60/-

52. A is faster than B. A and B each walk 24 km. The sum of their speeds is 7 km/hr and
the sum of times taken by them is 14 hrs. Then, A’s speed is equal to

(A) 3 km/hr
(B) 4 km/hr
(C) 5 km/hr
(D) 7 km/hr

53. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next
one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr, and the last one-third distance with a
speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is

(A) 18 km/hr
(B) 24 km/hr
(C) 30 km/hr
(D) 36 km/hr

54. 900 pens were distributed equally among some ‘n’ children. Each child got 25% of
‘n’ pens. How many pens did each child get?

(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 14
(D) 15

55. The least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20%
compound interest will be more than doubled is

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

56. On dividing a number by 5, we get 3 as remainder. What will the remainder when the
square of this number is divided by 5?

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4

57. A, B and C together earn Rs 1350 in 9 days. A and C together earn Rs 470 in 5 days.
B and C together earn 760 in 10 days. Find the daily earning of C.

(A) 25
(B) 20
(C) 12
(D) 15

58. The average of Mohan's marks in 6 subjects is 74. If his average in five subjects
excluding science is 70, how many marks he obtained in science?

(A) 94
(B) 92
(C) 90
(D) 88

59. The ratio of length and breadth of a rectangular park is 5:3. Its perimeter is 480 meters.
What is the area of the park?
2
(A) 7200 m
2
(B) 15000 m
2
(C) 13500 m
2
(D) 54000 m

60. Some students planned a picnic. The budget for food was Rs. 500. But, 5 of them
failed to go and thus the cost of food for each member increased by Rs.5. How many
students attended the picnic?

(A) 25
(B) 20
(C) 18
(D) 22

PROFICIENCY IN ENGLISH

61. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

DEMOLISH
(A) Raze
(B) Impair
(C) Create
(D) Elevate

62. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

CEREMONIOUS

(A) Momentous
(B) Stately
(C) Informal
(D) Proper

63. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

FORTIFY

(A) Dispute
(B) Alarm
(C) Support
(D) Weaken

64. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

ANTAGONIST

(A) Scribe
(B) Ally
(C) Bandit
(D) Author

65. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

CHEERY

(A) Unhappy
(B) Unfortunate
(C) Merry
(D) Imbecilic

66. Complete the sentence using the word for the blank that best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.

The airplane manufacturer realized a flaw in its design when tests revealed that the
cabin door required too much force to be opened in an emergency: for safety
purposes, the door needs to be difficult to open but not ………………

(A) indelible
(B) immutable
(C) immobile
(D) impossible

67. Complete the sentence using the set of words for the blanks that best fit the meaning
of the sentence as a whole.

The three-legged race is ………………teambuilding activity: when two people are
……………… together, they must communicate effectively in order to move
forward.

(A) a superb, weaned
(B) an excellent, yoked
(C) an obvious, waffled
(D) an ineffective, cuffed

68. Complete the sentence using the word for the blank that best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.

The film’s story seemed so ……………… that audiences couldn’t believe that it was
based on a true story.

(A) implausible
(B) tenable
(C) orchestrated
(D) conceivable

69. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate answer.

Owing to frequent power cuts in this area, many factories
are being forced to …………….. men.

(A) throw away
(B) send off
(C) put off
(D) lay off

70. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate answer.

The old woman was deluded by the …………….. who claimed he could cure all
diseases with his miracle machine.

(A) salesman
(B) inventor
(C) charlatan
(D) doctor

71. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate answer.

All the employees here are …………….. to look after their families.

(A) beholden
(B) obliged
(C) betrothed
(D) substituted

72. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate answer.

Mumbai is …………….. many other cities in Asia.

(A) as big as
(B) big
(C) bigger
(D) biggest

73. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate answer.

Iyadurai Solomon was a great teacher because he …………….. in the children a sense
of their own worth.

(A) imbibed
(B) influxed
(C) instilled
(D) absorbed

74. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

We must adapt ourselves …………….. our circumstances.

(A) with
(B) in
(C) to
(D) by

75. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

Our school is …………….. the museum.

(A) front
(B) beside
(C) besides
(D) front of

76. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

I was late because my car broke down …………….. the way here.

(A) from
(B) in
(C) on
(D) during

77. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

The interview will be held between 3 …………….. 5 pm.

(A) and
(B) from
(C) to
(D) by

78. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

The labourers have suffered a lot …………….. the policies of the new management.

(A) because
(B) in
(C) due to
(D) and

79. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

The pharmacy is just …………….. the corner.

(A) from
(B) round
(C) in front
(D) besides

80. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

My grandmother is arriving …………….. the Chennai Express.

(A) on
(B) from
(C) to
(D) by

81. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

This room has just been painted. I hope you are okay …………….. the smell of paint.

(A) with
(B) in
(C) to
(D) for

82. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

I had met your father while I was …………….. the University of Delhi.

(A) on
(B) still
(C) at
(D) from

83. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank.

A couple of days after the accident, the poor man died …………….. his injuries.

(A) because
(B) of
(C) due
(D) in

84. Identify in which part of the sentence there is an error.

The child rushed in my room, panting for breath.

(A) The child
(B) rushed in my room
(C) panting
(D) for breath

85. Identify in which part of the sentence there is an error.

Abdul Rahman is an Arab, while Sylvia is an European.

(A) Abdul Rahman
(B) is an Arab
(C) while Sylvia
(D) is an European

86. Identify in which part of the sentence there is an error.

This dog is still remembering you after such a long time.

(A) This dog
(B) is still remembering you
(C) after such a
(D) long time

87. Direction: Change the sentence into indirect speech.

“Stay in bed for a few more days”, the doctor said to my father.

(A) The doctor ask my father to stay in bed for a few more days.
(B) The doctor advised my father to stay in bed for a few more days.
(C) The doctor tells my father to stay in bed for a few more days.
(D) The doctor asks my father to stay in bed for a few more days.

88. Direction: Change the sentence into indirect speech.

“Please don’t tell anyone about my exam results,” Soman told me.

(A) Soman requests me not to tell anyone about his exam results.
(B) Soman requested me not to tell anyone about my exam results.
(C) Soman requested me to tell anyone about his exam results.
(D) Soman requested me not to tell anyone about his exam results.

89. Direction: Change the sentence into indirect speech.

The detective said, “The lost jewel has been found.”

(A) The detective said that the lost jewel was found.
(B) The detective said that the lost jewel had been found.
(C) The detective said that the lost jewel is found.
(D) The detective said that the lost jewel is been found.

90. Direction: Change the sentence into indirect speech.

“I woke up feeling sick, so I did not go to the office,” said Sirisha.

(A) Sirisha said that she had woke up feeling sick, so she hadn’t gone to the office.
(B) Sirisha said that she had woken up feeling sick, so she didn’t go to the office.
(C) Sirisha said that she had woken up feeling sick, so she did not go to the office.
(D) Sirisha said that she had woken up feeling sick, so she hadn’t gone to the office.

91. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined phrasal verb.

The Indian cricket team called on the Sports Minister of South Africa.

(A) Paid a visit
(B) Made a phone call
(C) Made a conference call
(D) Requested a call

92. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined phrasal verb.

The issues raised by the Chief Manager, were backed up by the members of the board
of directors.

(A) Questioned
(B) Supported
(C) Requested
(D) Reasoned

93. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined idiom.

Powered hang gliding is all the rage in adventure sports now.

(A) Played in anger
(B) Very dangerous
(C) Handle with caution
(D) Extremely popular

94. Choose the one word which can be substituted for the given sentence.

Misappropriation of money

(A) Plagiarism
(B) Ambiguous
(C) Embezzlement
(D) Onerous

95. Choose the one word which can be substituted for the given sentence.

To transfer one's authority to another

(A) Upgrade
(B) Modulate
(C) Relegate
(D) Delegate

96. Choose the one word which can be substituted for the given sentence.

A person who loves books

(A) Bookish
(B) Nerdish
(C) Bibliophile
(D) Selenophile

97. Choose the word that is most nearly same in meaning to the word in capital letters.

VITAL
(A) Relieve
(B) Remain
(C) Crucial
(D) Attract

98. Choose the word that is most nearly same in meaning to the word in capital letters.

SOOTHE
(A) Ease
(B) Lively
(C) Bright
(D) Interest

99. Choose the word that is most nearly same in meaning to the word in capital letters.

ETERNAL

(A) Cruel
(B) Real
(C) Charm
(D) Forever

100. Choose the word that is most nearly same in meaning to the word in capital letters.

LAMENT

(A) Concise
(B) Wonderful
(C) Mourn
(D) Fraud

101. Choose the word that is most nearly same in meaning to the word in capital letters.

MEAGRE

(A) Small
(B) Destroy
(C) Efface
(D) Cryptic

102. Direction: Choose the appropriate voice form of the sentence given below.

This company is owned by a much larger company.

(A) A much larger company owns this company.
(B) A much larger company is owning this company.
(C) A much larger company is owned by this company.
(D) A much larger company has owned this company.

103. Direction: Choose the appropriate voice form of the sentence given below.

Ravi’s colleagues accused him of various wrongdoings.

(A) His colleagues accused Ravi of various wrongdoings.
(B) Various wrongdoings were accused Ravi by his colleagues.
(C) Accusations of various wrongdoings were made by his colleagues.
(D) Ravi was accused of various wrongdoings by his colleagues.

104. Direction: Choose the appropriate voice form of the sentence given below.

I think my parcel has been sent to the wrong address.

(A) I think they have sent my parcel to the wrong address.
(B) I think they send my parcel to the wrong address.
(C) I think my parcel is send to the wrong address.
(D) I think the wrong address has been sent for my parcel.

105. Direction: Choose the appropriate voice form of the sentence given below.

Sunil feels that somebody is following him.

(A) According to Sunil, somebody is following him.
(B) Sunil feels that he is followed by somebody.
(C) Sunil feels that he is being followed by somebody.
(D) Sunil is followed by somebody.

COMPREHENSIVE ABILITY AND LOGICAL REASONING

Direction: Read the passage below and choose the most appropriate answers for the
following questions.

In the growth of modern towns and cities, an important factor to be remembered is the
density of population. Mr. J.P. Orr, the Chairman of the Mumbai Improvement Trust, pointed
out in a recent lecture on the subject, how it affected the health and prosperity of the
inhabitants. Life in most thriving towns is intimately connected with the local trades and
industries.

Unhealthy conditions in factories and workshops, and offensive trades had been prevented in
important towns and this had led to better health. The question of density is more difficult to
deal in India because the older towns have been built on different principles. People not only
want to live in health but in such form as gives them greater social convenience, comforts and
safety. They care for the health, comfort and beauty of the town, and these conditions of a
well-built and well-arranged town are still insisted upon by the people. So long as individuals
obey the laws of health and their habits and customs are free from insanitary effects, mere
density of population does not perhaps tend to increase death rate and harbour diseases. But
in the present day, it is apparent that the habits of the people have greatly changed and they
do not obey the laws of health and cleanliness as well as their forefathers used to do in days
when cities expanded and people flourished. It is therefore, necessary to modify the old plans
of city building in the light of modern sanitary laws and requirements.

Mr. Orr, in his lecture, spoke mainly of the population density of the city of Bombay. But his
observations are of considerable interest to other cities whose population is huddled in
narrow quarters without adequate air and light.

106. The density of population does not increase death rate and harbour diseases as long
as ……………..

(A) unhealthy conditions in factories and workshops are prevented
(B) people obey the laws of health and their habits are free from insanitary effects
(C) towns are well-built and well-arranged
(D) the older towns are properly expanded

107. It is necessary to modify the old plans of city building because ……………..
(A) the population of India is increasing
(B) the density of population has increased
(C) the habits of people have greatly changed and they do not obey the laws of health
(D) people want to live in good and healthy surroundings

108. Life in most thriving cities is connected with the ……………..
(A) density of population
(B) size of the town and its planning
(C) local trade and industry
(D) size of population

109. In addition to health, what do people in cities want?
(A) Lesser density of population.
(B) Social convenience, comforts and safety.
(C) Well-planned and well-arranged cities.
(D) Good factories and working conditions.

110. What had led to better health in important towns?
(A) Lower density of population.
(B) Prevention of unhealthy conditions in factories and workshops.
(C) Well-built and well-planned towns.
(D) Sanitation and cleanliness.

Direction: Read the passage below and choose the most appropriate answers for the
following questions.

Psychologists tell us that there are four basic stages that human beings pass through when
they enter and live in a new culture. This process, which helps us to deal with culture shock,
is the way our brain and our personality reacts to the strange new things we encounter when
we move from one culture to another. If our culture involves bowing when we greet
someone, we may feel very uncomfortable in a culture that does not involve bowing. If the
language we use when talking to someone in our own culture is influenced by levels of
formality based on the other person's age and status, it may be difficult for us to feel

comfortable communicating with people in the new culture.Culture shock begins with the
"honeymoon stage". This is the period of time when we first arrive in which everything about
the new culture is strange and exciting. We may be suffering from "jet lag" but we are thrilled
to be in the new environment, seeing new sights, hearing new sounds and language, eating
new kinds of food. This honeymoon stage can last for quite a long time because we feel we
are involved in some kind of great adventure.

Unfortunately, the second stage of culture shock can be more difficult. After we have settled
down into our new life, working or studying, buying groceries, doing laundry, or living with
a home-stay family, we can become very tired and begin to miss our homeland and our
family. All the little problems that everybody in life have seems to be much bigger and more
disturbing when you face them in a foreign culture. This period of cultural adjustment can be
very difficult and lead to the new arrival rejecting or pulling away from the new culture. This
"rejection stage" can be quite dangerous because the visitor may develop unhealthy habits
(smoking and drinking too much, being too concerned over food or contact with people from
the new culture). This can, unfortunately lead to the person getting sick or developing skin
infections or rashes which then makes the person feel even more scared and confused and
helpless. This stage is considered a crisis in the process of cultural adjustment and many
people choose to go back to their homeland or spend all their time with people from their
own culture speaking their native language.

The third stage of culture shock is called the "adjustment stage". This is when you begin to
realize that things are not so bad in the host culture. Your sense of humour usually becomes
stronger and you realize that you are becoming stronger by learning to take care of yourself in
the new place. Things are still difficult, but you are now a survivor! The fourth stage can be
called "at ease at last". Now you feel quite comfortable in your new surroundings. You can
cope with most problems that occur. You may still have problems with the language, but you
know you are strong enough to deal with them. If you meet someone from your country who
has just arrived, you can be the expert on life in the new culture and help them to deal with
their culture shock.

There is a fifth stage of culture shock which many people don't know about. This is called
"reverse culture shock". Surprisingly, this occurs when you go back to your native culture
and find that you have changed and that things there have changed while you have been
away. Now you feel a little uncomfortable back home.

111. Culture shock happens when you ……………..

(A) reach your teens
(B) go to a big city
(C) meet foreigners for the first time
(D) go to live in a foreign land.

112. How do you feel during the first phase of culture shock?
(A) Lonely and depressed
(B) Bored and homesick
(C) Happy and excited
(D) Angry and frustrated

113. The second stage is also called …………….. stage.
(A) adjustment
(B) rejection
(C) enthusiasm
(D) anger

114. ‘Bowing’ as an integral part of a culture is mentioned in the …………….. paragraph.
(A) first
(B) second
(C) third
(D) fourth

115. How do you feel during the fourth stage of culture shock?
(A) Tensed
(B) Relaxed
(C) Negative and stressed
(D) Afraid

Direction: Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Due to the media and communication explosion and the effect of globalization, markets all
over the world are going through a phase of metamorphosis. The visual media is regularly
exposing a newer life-style, products and services to the fast expanding netizen-driven
society. Today, consumers have become quite concerned about health issues and are taking a
great interest in food matters. Environmental issues, greater segmentation and increased
mobility are the added factors. Besides, the Green Movement supported by media coverage
has been creating urge for natural food.

116. What is the unique role of visual media?

(A) it creates new markets
(B) it regularly exposes a newer life-style, products and services
(C) it influences every aspect of life
(D) it brings out the glamour of modern life

117. What is a netizen-driven society?

(A) a society crazy about internet
(B) a society crippled by internet
(C) a society exploited by internet
(D) a society making the optimum use of internet

118. What is the major concerns of consumers?

(A) support for the Green Movement
(B) urge for natural food
(C) environmental issues and increased mobility
(D) health and food matters

119. Direction: The statements X and Y given below may either be independent causes or
may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements
may be the effect of the order statement. Read both the statement and decide which of
the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.

X: Ahmed is a healthy boy.
Y: His mother is very particular about the food he eats.

(A) Statement X is the cause and statement Y is its effect
(B) Statement Y is the cause and statement X is its effect
(C) Both the statements X and Y are independent causes
(D) Both the statements X and Y are effects of independent causes

120. Direction: The statements X and Y given below may either be independent causes or
may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements
may be the effect of the order statement. Read both the statement and decide which of
the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.

X: The staff of airport authorities called off the strike they were observing in
protest against privatization.
Y: The staff of airport authorities went on strike, anticipating a threat to their jobs.

(A) Statement X is the cause and statement Y is its effect
(B) Statement Y is the cause and statement X is its effect
(C) Both the statements X and Y are independent causes
(D) Both the statements X and Y are effects of independent causes

121. Direction: Read the definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer that
provides the best example of the given definition.

Establishing a Power of Attorney occurs when a legal document is created that gives
one individual the authority to act for another. Which situation below is the best
example of Establishing a Power of Attorney?

(A) Louise is selling her house and she hires a lawyer to review the contract.
(B) Simone's mother can no longer get to the bank to cash her cheques and make
deposits, so she has taken legal steps to enable Simone to do these things for
her.
(C) Jack's father is elderly and Jack thinks he is no longer able to make decisions
for himself.
(D) At her daughter's urging, Mrs. Lenox opens up a retirement account with the
local bank.

122. Which word DOES NOT match with the rest of the group?

Fox, Wolf, Deer, Panther

(A) Deer
(B) Fox
(C) Panther
(D) Wolf

123. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement: Sealed tenders are invited from competent contractors experienced in
executing construction jobs.
Conclusion I Tenders are invited only from experienced contractors
Conclusion II It is difficult to find competent tenders in construction business.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows

124. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement: The distance of 900 KM by Road between Bombay and Jafra will be
reduced to 280 KM by Sea. This will lead to a saving of Rs.7.92 Crores
per annum on fuel
Conclusion I Transportation by sea is cheaper than by Road
Conclusion II Fuel must be saved to greatest extent.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows

125. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement: The manager humiliated Sachin in the presence of his colleagues
Conclusion I The manager did not like Sachin
Conclusion II Sachin was not popular with his colleagues

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows

126. Direction: In the following question consists of a statement followed by two
arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and select
the correct option from given alternatives.

Statement: Should English be the medium of instruction for higher education in
India
I Yes. Even in advanced countries like England and USA, the
Argument
medium of instruction is English for Higher Education.
Argument II Yes. English is a widely spoken language in the world.

(A) Only argument I is strong
(B) Only argument II is strong
(C) Both I and II are strong
(D) Neither I and II are strong

127. Direction: In the following question consists of a statement followed by two
arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and select
the correct option from given alternatives.

Statement: Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged?
Argument I Yes. They will help industrial development of the country
Argument II Yes. They will reduce the burden on Employment market

(A) Only argument I is strong
(B) Only argument II is strong
(C) Both I and II are strong
(D) Neither I and II are strong

128. Direction: In the following question consists of a statement followed by two
arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and select
the correct option from given alternatives.

Statement: Should luxury hotels be banned in India?
Argument I Yes. They are places from where international criminals operate
Argument II No. Affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay

(A) Only argument I is strong
(B) Only argument II is strong
(C) Both I and II are strong
(D) Neither I and II are strong

129. Choose missing term from options.

U, O, I, ?, A

(A) P
(B) E
(C) S
(D) G

130. Choose missing term from options.

A, C, F, H, ?, M

(A) L
(B) K
(C) J
(D) I

131. Study the series and fill in the missing number(s).

1, 1, 8, 4, 27, 9, 64, ?

(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 64
(D) 16

132. In the figure given below, there is a definite relationship between figures 1 and 2.
Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 and 4 by choosing a suitable figure
from the set of answer figures.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Direction: Study the following figure and answer the questions. The triangle represents
Doctors. The circle represents Players and the rectangle represents Artists.

133. How many doctors are neither artists nor players?

(A) 17
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 30

134. How many doctors are both players and artists?

(A) 22
(B) 8
(C) 3
(D) 30

135. How many artists are players?

(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 25
(D) 16

136. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?

(A) 25
(B) 17
(C) 5
(D) 10

137. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?

(A) 10
(B) 17
(C) 30
(D) 15

138. Look at this series.

664, 332, 340, 170, ………, 89

What number should fill the blank?

(A) 85
(B) 97
(C) 109
(D) 178

139. Look at this series.

70, 71, 76, ………, 81, 86, 70, 91

What number should fill the blank?

(A) 70
(B) 71
(C) 80
(D) 96

140. Look at this series.

8, 43, 11, 41, ………, 39, 17

What number should fill in the blank?

(A) 8
(B) 14
(C) 43
(D) 44

141. Look at this series.

4, 8, 16, 32, 64, ………

What number should fill in the blank?

(A) 48
(B) 52
(C) 128
(D) 132

142. Look at this series.

2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, ………

What number should fill in the blank?

(A) 21
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 22

143. Look at this series.

1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ………

What number should fill in the blank?

(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 27
144. Look at this series.

500, 475, 425, 350, 250, ………

What number should fill in the blank?

(A) 200
(B) 150
(C) 100
(D) 125

145. Fill the blank in the following series.

SCD, TEF, UGH, ………, WKL

(A) CMN
(B) UJI
(C) VIJ
(D) IJT

146. Fill the blank in the following series.

FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ………

(A) JAK
(B) HAL
(C) HAK
(D) JAI

147. Fill the blank in the following series.

ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ………, MLNA

(A) OLPA
(B) KLMA
(C) LLMA
(D) KLLA

148. Fill the blank in the following series.

QPO, NML, KJI, ………, EDC

(A) HGF
(B) CAB
(C) JKL
(D) GHI

149. Fill the blank in the following series.

JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, ………

(A) OEP
(B) NEO
(C) MEN
(D) PFQ

150. Fill the blank in the following series.

BCB, DED, FGF, HIH, ………

(A) JKJ
(B) HJH
(C) IJI
(D) JHJ

Final Answer Key
Sl. No Key Sl. No Key Sl. No Key Sl. No Key Sl. No Key
1 A 31 A 61 C 91 A 121 B
2 B 32 A 62 C 92 B 122 A
3 B 33 D 63 D 93 D 123 A
4 D 34 B 64 B 94 C 124 B
5 A 35 A 65 A 95 D 125 D
6 A 36 D 66 D 96 C 126 B
7 C 37 C 67 B 97 C 127 C
8 B 38 A 68 A 98 A 128 B
9 A 39 D 69 D 99 D 129 B
10 D 40 C 70 C 100 C 130 B
11 C 41 B 71 B 101 A 131 D
12 B 42 B 72 A 102 A 132 B
13 B 43 C 73 C 103 D 133 A
14 C 44 B 74 C 104 A 134 C
15 C 45 C 75 B 105 C 135 C
16 D 46 A 76 C 106 B 136 A
17 C 47 B 77 A 107 C 137 C
18 D 48 D 78 C 108 C 138 D
19 B 49 B 79 B 109 B 139 A
20 A 50 C 80 D 110 B 140 B
21 B 51 D 81 A 111 D 141 C
22 D 52 B 82 C 112 C 142 C
23 D 53 A 83 B 113 B 143 B
24 D 54 D 84 B 114 A 144 D

25 A 55 B 85 D 115 B 145 C
26 C 56 D 86 B 116 B 146 A
27 D 57 B 87 B 117 D 147 D
28 C 58 A 88 D 118 D 148 A
29 B 59 C 89 B 119 B 149 B
30 D 60 B 90 D 120 D 150 A