CUET UG 2024 Question Paper Biology

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Test Booklet No. Subject : BIOLOGY Test Booklet Code

A
Code : 304 E
Medium : English
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)

Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40

Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.

Important Instructions for the Candidates :

1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.

2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.

3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.

4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.

5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.

6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.

7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark. P.T.O.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________

Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________

Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________

Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________

304 E/A (2)

1. Analogous structures are a result of :
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Retrogressive evolution

2. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?
(1) Natural selection (2) Genetic drift
(3) Gene pool (4) Gene migration

3. Which of the following primates was more like an ape ?
(1) Homo erectus (2) Dryopithecus
(3) Australopithecines (4) Ramapithecus

4. Nucleosome is associated with _______ molecules of histones.
(1) Four
(2) Nine
(3) Two
(4) Eight

5. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct.
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
(3) (A), (C) and (E) only (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

304 E/A (3)
6. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Placental mammals Counterpart Marsupials
(A) Anteater (I) Spotted cuscus
(B) Bobcat (II) Numbat
(C) Lemur (III) Flying Phalanger
(D) Flying squirrel (IV) Tasmanian tiger cat
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
7. Identify the incorrect statement/s :
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
Choose the answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) (B) and (E) only
(3) (D) only (4) (A) and (D) only
8. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Types of barriers Examples
(A) Cytokine barriers (I) Mucus coating
(B) Physical barriers (II) Tears from eyes
(C) Cellular barriers (III) Phagocytosis
(D) Physiological barriers (IV) Interferons
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

304 E/A (4)

9. Smack is chemically :
(1) Diacetyl morphine (2) Cocaine
(3) Benzodiazepine (4) Amphetamine
10. Antibodies are secreted by :
(1) T-Cells (2) B-Cells
(3) -Cells (4) -Cells
11. In sewage treatment, flocs are :
(1) the solids that settle during sedimentation.
(2) the supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge.
(3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
(4) the bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters.
12. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Products Organisms
(A) Statin (I) Streptococcus
(B) Clot buster (II) Trichoderma
(C) Swiss cheese (III) Monascus
(D) Cyclosporin-A (IV) Propionibacterium
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
13. The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is :
(1) Trichoderma (2) Dragonflies
(3) Ladybird (4) Silver fish
14. Downstream processing method involves :
(1) Identification (2) Amplification
(3) Fermentation (4) Purification

304 E/A (5)
15. Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading
enzyme ?
(1) Fungi – Chitinase (2) Algae – Methylase
(3) Plant cells – Cellulase (4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

16. Arrange the following steps involved in transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end.
(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice
(B) Treatment with divalent cations
(C) Heat shock treatment
(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate
(E) Placed them again on ice
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E) (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E) (4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
17. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA.
(B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector.
Choose the answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (C) only (2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
18. Which of the following statements are true ?
(A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk.
(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorisation from MNCs.
(C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively.
(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease.
(1) (A) and (C) only (2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (A) and (D) only (4) (B) and (C) only

304 E/A (6)
19. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Transgene Used for/Products
(A) -1-antitrypsin (I) Meloidegyne incognitia
(B) cryIAc (II) Corn borer
(C) Antisense RNA (III) Treat emphysema
(D) cryIAb (IV) Cotton bollworms
(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

20. Expand “GEAC” :
(1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee
(2) Gene Establisment Approval Committee
(3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee
(4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

21. When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active
protein in :
(1) Alkaline pH of the gut.
(2) Acidic pH of the gut.
(3) Acidic pH of saliva.
(4) Alkaline pH of saliva.

304 E/A (7)
22. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Interspecies Relationships Features
(A) Commensalism (I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other
(B) Mutualism (II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected
(C) Amensalism (III) Both the species are benefitted
(D) Parasitism (IV) One species benefits and other remains unaffected
(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

23. In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of youngs and mature ones. What type of
growth does it reflect ?
(1) Expanding (2) Declining (3) Stable (4) S-shaped

24. Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate the Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion
Principle’ by :
(1) eliminating the inferior species.
(2) resource partitioning.
(3) interacting with each other symbiotically.
(4) changing the area of grazing.

25. The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of :
(1) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.
(2) organic nutrients from humus.
(3) inorganic nutrients from humus.
(4) organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.

26. In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers ?
(1) Forests (2) Grassland (3) Desert (4) Sea

304 E/A (8)

27. Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following :
(A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process.
(B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it.
(C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching.
(D) Humification follows mineralisation.
(1) (B) and (D) only (2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (D) only

28. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Concepts Explanation
(A) Standing state (I) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs
(B) Secondary productivity (II) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers
(C) Standing crop (III) Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time
(D) Net primary productivity (IV) Amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Read the passage carefully and give the answer to the next five questions :
India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to
attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951
and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related
areas are currently in operation. Creating awareness among the people about various reproduction-related aspects
and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under
these programmes.
29. Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease ?
(1) Chlamydiasis (2) Filariasis
(3) Genital herpes (4) Trichomoniasis

304 E/A (9)
30. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy ?
(1) They are considered safe during the first trimester.
(2) It is legalised in India from 1971.
(3) MTPs can be performed even after 24 weeks, but with the opinion of 2 registered medical
practitioners on specific grounds.
(4) About 20% of the total number of conceived pregancies undergo MTP in a year globally.

31. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Various Assisted Process Involved
Reproductive Technologies
(A) ZIFT (I) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm directly
into ovum
(B) ICSI (II) Transferring of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into
the uterus
(C) IUI (III) Transferring of fertilised egg up to 8 blastomeres into
fallopian tube
(D) IUT (IV) Transfer of semen from a healthy donor into the uterus
artificially
(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

32. Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females ?
(1) IUDs
(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Vasectomy
(4) Condoms

33. ‘Saheli’ – an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the ‘Once a week’ pill, was developed by :
(1) AIIMS (2) NBRI
(3) CDRI (4) NBPGR

304 E/A ( 10 )
Read the passage carefully and give the answers to the next five questions :
Does the number of species in a community really matter to the functioning of the ecosystem ? This is a question
for which ecologists have not been able to give a definitive answer. For many decades, ecologists believed that
communities with more species, generally, tend to be more stable than those with less species. According to the
International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) (2004), the total number of plant
and animal species described so far is more than 1.5 million.

34. Which of the following is not a characterstic of a stable biological community ?
(1) It must be resistant to invasions by alien species.
(2) It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year.
(3) All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its
unstability.
(4) It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made.
35. In ‘rivet popper hypothesis’ the ‘rivet’ signifies :
(1) Key species (2) Endemic species
(3) Community (4) Species
36. The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community,
was ____________ .
(1) Paul Ehrlich (2) David Tilman
(3) Robert May (4) Edward Wilson
37. Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group ?
(1) Reptiles (2) Fishes
(3) Insects (4) Mammals
38. The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics
except :
(1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively
undisturbed.
(2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish.
(3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.
(4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence,
biodiversity.

304 E/A ( 11 )

39. Cells present in the mature pollen grains are ____________ .
(1) Central cell and generative cell (2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell
(3) Vegetative cell and generative cell (4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell

40. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Structures Functions
(A) Filiform apparatus (I) Made up of sporopollenin
(B) Tapetum (II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta
(C) Exine (III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid
(D) Funicle (IV) Nourishes the pollen grain
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

41. Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of :
(1) Double fusion (2) Triple fusion
(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Apomixis

42. In humans, mammary gland is divided into _____________ lobes.
(1) 10 – 12 (2) 25 – 30
(3) 30 – 35 (4) 15 – 20

43. Sex in human embryo is determined by :
(1) ‘X’ chromosome of egg
(2) ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
(3) Only ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
(4) Health of mother

304 E/A ( 12 )

44. Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence.
(A) Ovum (B) Oogonia
(C) Primary oocyte (D) Secondary oocyte
(1) (C), (B), (D), (A) (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(3) (D), (C), (A), (B) (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

45. Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel ?
(1) Pink and white flowers
(2) Inflated and constricted pods
(3) Axial and terminal flowers
(4) Green and yellow pods

46. Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell division cycle results in :
(1) Polyploidy (2) Euploidy
(3) Aneuploidy (4) Autopolyploidy

47. Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anaemia :
Genotype : Phenotype
(A) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype
(B) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype
(C) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype
(D) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease

(1) (C) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B), and (C) only

304 E/A ( 13 )
48. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Scientists Discovery
(A) Sutton and Boveri (I) X-Body
(B) Sturtevant (II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(C) Henking (III) Transformation in bacteria
(D) Griffith (IV) Genetic maps
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

49. Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides ?
(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.
(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.
(C) Phosphate group is linked to – OH of 5 C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional – OH group present at 2 position in the ribose.
(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.
(1) (A), (B) and (E) only (2) (D) and (E) only
(3) (B) and (D) only (4) (B) and (E) only

50. Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end.
(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (D), (C), (B)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C) (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

304 E/A ( 14 )

304 E/A ( 15 )

304 E/A ( 16 )

Read carefully the following instructions :

8. No candidate will be allowed to leave the OMR Answer Sheet blank. If any OMR Answer Sheet is found
blank, it shall be crossed by the Invigilator with his/her signature, mentioning “Cancelled” on it.

9. Do not tear or fold any page of the Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet.

10. Candidates are advised to ensure that they fill the correct particulars on the OMR Answer Sheet, i.e.,
Application No., Roll No., Test Booklet No., Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name and Signature.

11. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

12. The answers will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete or incorrect entries may
render the OMR Answer Sheet invalid.

13 Candidates are advised not to fold or make any stray marks on the OMR Answer Sheet. Use of Eraser,
Nail, Blade, White Fluid/Whitener, etc., to smudge, scratch or damage in any manner the OMR Answer
Sheet during examination is strictly prohibited. Candidature and OMR Answer Sheet of candidates using
Eraser, Nail, Blade or White Fluid/Whitener to smudge, scratch or damage in any manner shall be
cancelled.

14. There will be one copy of OMR Answer Sheet i.e., the Original Copy. After the examination is over, the
candidate shall hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. The candidate can take away the
Test Booklet after the examination is over. If the candidate does not hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to
the Invigilator and goes away with the OMR Answer Sheet, his/her candidature shall be cancelled and
criminal proceedings shall also be initiated against him/her.

15. Candidates are advised strictly not to carry handkerchief, any mobile phone, any type of watch, belt or
wear ornaments like ring, chain, ear-ring, etc., electronic or communication device, pen, pencil, eraser,
sharpener and correction fluid to the Examination Centre. If any candidate is found possessing any such
item, he/she will not be allowed to enter the examination centre. Possession of a mobile phone or any
other aiding material as mentioned above by the candidate in the examination room will be treated as a
serious violation and it may lead to cancellation of the candidature and debarring him/her from future
examinations.

16. If a candidate violates any instructions or shows any indiscipline or misbehaviour, appropriate action will
be taken including cancellation of candidature and debarring from future examinations.

17. Use of electronic/manual calculator is not allowed.
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