CUSAT CAT 2022 Question Paper LLB 3 Year

3 YEAR LLB
(FINAL)

PART I – LEGAL APTITUDE
1. On the recommendation of the President of India, Money Bill is introduced in
(A) Either House of Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Both the Houses simultaneously

2. The power to disqualify a Lok Sabha member on the ground of defection is conferred on
(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) The Vice President

3. The President of India exercises power of pardon

(A) on the advice of the Council of Ministers
(B) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(C) on the advice of the Supreme Court of India
(D) at his discretion

4. The president of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of

(A) All the members of both Houses of Parliament
(B) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(C) All the members of both Houses of Parliament and all the members of the
Legislative Assemblies of the States
(D) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the
Legislative Assemblies of the States

5. Article 32 which guarantees a fundamental right to move the Supreme Court of India
for the enforcement of the fundamental rights has been described as the “Heart and
Soul” of our Constitution by

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vallabhai Patel

6. Part IV of the Constitution which deals with the directive principles of state policy is
incorporated from

(A) The Constitution of USA
(B) The United Kingdom
(C) The Constitution of Ireland
(D) The Constitution of Japan

7. The Constitution of India to a major extent owes its origin to

(A) The Govt. of India Act, 1858
(B) The Govt. of India Act, 1919
(C) The Govt. of India Act, 1935
(D) India’s Independence Act, 1947

8. Constitutionalism connotes

(A) The theory of limited government
(B) The theory of unlimited government
(C) Exercise of discretionary power
(D) The doctrine of eminent Domain

9. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India ruled that women of all
ages can enter Sabarimala Temple for the purpose of worship?

(A) S. Mahendran v State of Kerala
(B) Indian Young Lawyers Association v State of Kerala
(C) Nambiar v State of Kerala
(D) N M Thomas v State of Kerala

10. Local Bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) have been conferred constitutional
status by the Constitution
rd th
(A) 53 and 54 Amendments
rd th
(B) 63 and 64 Amendments
rd th
(C) 73 and 74 Amendments
th th
(D) 77 and 78 Amendments

11. The Supreme Court of India has decriminalized adultery in

(A) Yusuf Abdul Aziz v. State of Bombay
(B) Joseph Shine v. Union of India
(C) Sowmitri Vishnu v. Union of India
(D) Revathi v. Union of India

12. The Amendment which enabled Goods and Services Tax (GST) is
th
(A) 98 Constitution Amendment Act
th
(B) 99 Constitution Amendment Act
th
(C) 100 Constitution Amendment Act
st
(D) 101 Constitution Amendment Act

13. A price tag attached to an article in a shop meant for sale is

(A) an offer
(B) an acceptance
(C) an invitation to offer
(D) a promise

14. Quid pro quo means

(A) Something in return
(B) What value
(C) Injury to one’s interest
(D) Nothing in return

15. A, offers to sell his car to B, and keeps the offer open over a period of time.
A’s offer is known as

(A) Specific offer
(B) General offer
(C) Standing offer
(D) Invitation to offer

16. A threatens B that if his demand is not obliged he would commit suicide. A is guilty of

(A) Force
(B) Pressure
(C) Coercion
(D) Abetment

17. Vis Major means

(A) Act of State
(B) Act of God
(C) Act of Third party
(D) Act of an Individual

18. The killing of a new born child by its parents is
(A) Malfeasance
(B) Abortion
(C) Infanticide
(D) Foeticide

19. A document issued by the court, calling upon the person to whom it is directed to
attend before the judge is called

(A) Bench
(B) Summons
(C) Supra
(D) Bailiff

20. An act in excess of the authority conferred by law is

(A) Ultra Vires
(B) Intra Vires
(C) Illegal
(D) Extra – legal

21. A person dying intestate means

(A) died without legal heirs
(B) died without making a will
(C) died without any property
(D) died without a son

22. The Sarkaria Commission constituted by the Central Government to
deal with the issues relating to

(A) Foreign affairs
(B) Identifying the backward communities
(C) Population Control
(D) Centre-State relations

23. In India, the supremacy vest with the

(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Constitution

24. The Lawyers are considered to be the Social Engineers, it was propounded by

(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) John Austin
(C) H.L.A. Hart
(D) Roscoe Pound

25. In which case the Supreme Court lay down guidelines against the prevention of sexual
harassment of women at workplace?

(A) Seema Vs Ashwini Kumar
(B) Vishaka Vs State of Rajasthan
(C) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India
(D) Gyan Kaur Vs State of Punjab

26. Which one of the following is NOT a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act?

(A) Buyer of goods for personal use
(B) User of goods with the approval of the buyer
(C) Buyer of goods for commercial use
(D) Buyer of goods for self-employment

27. A statement defining the constitution and objects of the company is known as

(A) Memorandum of Association
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Prospectus
(D) Statement in lieu of prospectus

28. The minimum number of persons required for a public limited company is

(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 7

29. The liability of a banker for wrongful refusal to honour a cheque is

(A) to the payee
(B) to the drawer
(C) to both payee and drawer
(D) to none

30. The President of India appoints Supreme Court and High Court judges on the
recommendation of

(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) National Judicial Appointments Commission
(D) Supreme Court Collegium

31. “Caveat venditor” means

(A) Let the seller beware
(B) Let the buyer beware
(C) Let both the buyer and seller beware
(D) Let no person beware

32. The rule that ‘last comes first goes’ applies to cases of

(A) Retirement
(B) Retrenchment
(C) Lock - out
(D) Lay- off

33. Cognizable offence means

(A) Serious criminal wrong
(B) Light criminal wrong
(C) Civil wrong
(D) Light civil wrong

34. A writ petition is filed

(A) in any Court
(B) in the Supreme Court only
(C) in the High Courts only
(D) in both the High Courts and the Supreme Court

35. The doctrine of strict liability means

(A) Liability based on fault
(B) State liability
(C) No fault liability
(D) Absolute liability

36. A married man had sex with an unmarried woman with her consent but without the
consent of his wife. He is guilty of

(A) Rape
(B) Adultery
(C) No offence
(D) Bigamy

37. To constitute ‘unlawful assembly’ the minimum number of persons required is

(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six

38. The President of India can quit by submitting a resignation letter addressed to

(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Vice President

39. The Information Technology Act has been passed by the Parliament in the year

(A) 1999
(B) 2000
(C) 2001
(D) 2005

40. Once appointed, judges of the Supreme Court serve till they attain the age of

(A) 62 years
(B) 63 years
(C) 64 years
(D) 65 years

41. The Proclamation of ‘National Emergency’ can be immediately turn the federal system
of India into a

(A) Unitary System
(B) Military System
(C) Federal System
(D) Monarchical System

42. In India, International Treaties are ratified by

(A) the President of India
(B) the Prime Minister
(C) the Ministry of External Affairs
(D) the Parliament

43. The Extent of territorial waters of India is

(A) 10 Nautical miles
(B) 15 Nautical miles
(C) 24 Nautical miles
(D) 12 Nautical miles

44. The Principle that decisions of courts in previous cases must be followed in
subsequent cases of similar nature is called
(A) Res judicata
(B) Stare decisis
(C) Sub judice
(D) Status quo

45. When loan is taken on the security of a movable property, it is called

(A) Mortgage
(B) Partnership
(C) Pledge
(D) Agency

46. The manager of WAQF is known as

(A) Khadim
(B) Mutawalli
(C) Mujawar
(D) Sajjadanashin

47. Result of successful prosecution is

(A) Charge sheeting
(B) Acquittal
(C) Discharge
(D) Conviction

48. An authority given by one person to another to act on his behalf is legally termed as

(A) Passing off
(B) Ostensible power
(C) Power of attorney
(D) Share authority

49. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of

(A) Ethical value
(B) Commercial value
(C) Social value
(D) Moral value

50. When a director acts dishonestly to the interest of the company,
he will be held liable for

(A) Negligence
(B) Breach of fiduciary duty
(C) Mala fide acts
(D) Ultra vires acts

PART I - LOGICAL REASONING

51. Find the next term of the sequence.

132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, ………

(A) 74
(B) 76
(C) 77
(D) 75

52. Observe the number sequence and find out the next number.

6, 9, 7, 10, 8, 11, …

(A) 9
(B) 13
(C) 14
(D) 15

53. Three of the following four words belong to one pattern and one
does not belong to them. Find the odd one out.

(A) Mile
(B) Hector
(C) Kilo meter
(D) Nautical mile

54. Find out the odd word from the following.

(A) Just
(B) Fair
(C) Biased
(D) Impartial

55. In the following four pairs of words, each word in the pair is inseparably linked with
the other word except one pair. Find out the odd pair

(A) Vehicle : Wheel
(B) Chair : Leg
(C) Cover : Page
(D) Flower : Petal

56. Find out the odd word from the following.

(A) Withdrawal
(B) Debit
(C) Deposit
(D) Deduction

57. Direction: Read the statements given below and decide which of the following answer
choice correctly depicts the relationship between the two statements.

Statement I: Literacy rate in the State is on the increase for the past few years.
Statement II: State has been organising training programmes on literacy drive.

(A) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
(B) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect
(C) Statements I and II are independent effects
(D) Statements I and II are effects of the same cause

58. Direction: Read the statements given below and decide which of the following answer
choice correctly depicts the relationship between the two statements.

Statement I: Senior students ragged junior students
Statement II: Those senior students were suspended

(A) Statement I is the effect and Statement II is its cause
(B) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect
(C) Statements I and II are causes
(D) Statements I and II are effects

59. Direction: Read the statements given below and decide which of the following answer
choice correctly depicts the relationship between the two statements.

Statement I: A disease called ‘Madras eye’ spread in Kerala
Statement II: Large number of people from Madras entered Kerala

(A) Statement I is cause and Statement II is its effect
(B) Statement I is effect and Statement II is its cause
(C) Statements I and II are independent causes
(D) Statements I and II are independent effects of independent causes

60. Ramesh, the father of Suresh says to his son, “I was as old as you are now at
the time of your birth”. If the age of Ramesh is 38 years now, the age of Suresh
5 years back was

(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 18

61. X runs faster than Y.
Z runs faster than X.
Y runs faster than Z.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

(A) False
(B) True
(C) Uncertain
(D) None of the above

62. X starts walking straight facing south. After walking 35 meters he turns to
his right, walks 25 meters and turns left. Again after walking a distance of
10 meters he turns to his left. In which direction he is now?

(A) North
(B) South
(C) West
(D) East

63. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC.
How is MEDICINE written in the same code?

(A) EOJDJEFM
(B) EOJDEJFM
(C) MFEJDJOE
(D) MFEDJJOE

64. Fill in the blank.
ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ……………, MLNA
(A) OLPA
(B) KLMA
(C) LLMA
(D) KLLA

65. In a top secret message, if LIVING is coded as KGSHLD.
How will BUDDHA be coded?

(A) ATEEIB
(B) ATACFX
(C) ATCCGZ
(D) KGSHLD

66. In an archery match, Peter’s team got more scores than David’s team but not as many
as Smith’s team. Smith’s team got more scores than Taiwa’s team. Taiwa’s team got
less score than David’s team. Which team is in second place in the descending order of
scores?
(A) Smith’s team
(B) Taiwa’s team
(C) Peter’s team
(D) David’s team

67. If Pen < Pencil, Pencil < Book and Book > Cap,
then which one of the following is always true?

(A) Pen > Cap
(B) Pencil > Cap
(C) Pencil = Cap
(D) Pen < Book

68. In their class, Chumley, Peter, Kenel, Donald and Senthil are sitting on a
bench. Chumley is sitting next to Peter, Kenel is sitting next to Donald.
Donald is not sitting with Senthil. If Chumley and Senthil sit on either end
of the bench where does Donald sit?

(A) Between Peter and Donald
(B) Between Donald and Senthil
(C) Between Peter and Kenel
(D) Between Kenel and Senthil

69. The day before yesterday was Saturday. What day will it be the day after tomorrow?

(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Friday

70. David prefers Economics to Mathematics, English to Social Science, and Political
Science to History. If he prefers Mathematics to History, and Social Science to
Mathematics, which is David’s least preferred subject?

(A) History
(B) Mathematics
(C) Social Science
(D) Economics

71. Choose the number which is different from others.

(A) 7 : 343
(B) 9 : 243
(C) 8 : 512
(D) 6 : 216

72. A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights
of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of the
children and their father is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what
is the weight of the mother?

(A) 50
(B) 48
(C) 52
(D) 54

73. Mr. and Mrs. Rahul have three daughters and each daughter has one brother.
How many persons are there in the family?

(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 6

74. Which of the following alternatives represents a meaningful order
of words of words given?

1. Printing
2. Manuscript
3. Editing
4. Composing
5. Binding

(A) 32415
(B) 24351
(C) 23145
(D) 23415

75. If ROUGH is written as ORRJE, how will you write SMOOTH?

(A) PPLLOK
(B) PPLRQK
(C) PJLLOK
(D) PPRRKK

PART II - PROFICIENCY IN ENGLISH

76. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

The train goes ……………….. many tunnels on the way to Rome.

(A) in
(B) through
(C) to
(D) past

77. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

You can have ice cream ……………….. cake, but not both.

(A) or
(B) but
(C) and
(D) nor

78. Direction: Choose the correct form of answer for the following question.

How long have you been living in London?

(A) For 7 years
(B) At least 7 years
(C) Since 7 years
(D) 7 years ago

79. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

We haven't got ……………….. money.

(A) a lot
(B) some
(C) any
(D) many

80. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

She ……………….. never been to America.

(A) does
(B) has
(C) haven’t
(D) hadn’t

81. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

It’s no use ……………….. to him. He doesn’t listen.

(A) to speak
(B) spoke
(C) speaking
(D) have spoken

82. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

The lady ……………….. in the corner is my aunt.

(A) whose
(B) is sitting
(C) sits
(D) sitting

83. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

Finishing a course is always ………………..

(A) satisfaction
(B) satisfies
(C) satisfying
(D) satisfied

84. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

After many years of research, they found the solution ………………..

(A) at last
(B) at the end
(C) by the end
(D) on the end

85. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

On my return from a long holiday, I had to …………… with a lot of work.

(A) catch up
(B) catch on
(C) take up
(D) make up

86. Direction: Fill in the blanks.

He was caught red-handed and could not …………… charges.

(A) refuse
(B) refute
(C) rebuke
(D) revoke

87. Choose the correctly spelt one word.

(A) Intirrogation
(B) Interogation
(C) Interrogation
(D) Introgation

88. Choose the correctly spelt one word.

(A) Inquisitorial
(B) Inquestorial
(C) Inquesstorial
(D) Inquistorial

89. Give the SYNONYM for the following word.

CRITERION

(A) Contend
(B) Yardstick
(C) Demand
(D) Willful

90. Give the SYNONYM for the following word.

ASSERTION

(A) Announce
(B) Statement
(C) Intent
(D) Session

91. Direction: In the given question an Idiomatic expression/Phrase has been given,
followed by four alternatives. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning
of the given idiom/phrase.

A dead letter

(A) One that has not reached its destination
(B) One of rejection
(C) One which has not been posted
(D) No longer in use

92. Direction: In the given question an Idiomatic expression/Phrase has been given,
followed by four alternatives. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning
of the given idiom/phrase.

To take away one’s breathe

(A) To put an end to one’s life
(B) To take away one’s Money
(C) To suffocate one
(D) To surprise one

93. Direction: Choose an alternative which can replace the given sentence so as to
communicate the same meaning.

A person who is always concerned for the well-being of others

(A) Friendly
(B) Altruistic
(C) Self-centered
(D) Parsimonious

94. Direction: Choose an alternative which can replace the given sentence so as to
communicate the same meaning.

An introvert person

(A) Always mix with other
(B) Enjoys spending time alone
(C) Finds pleasure in activities that involve large social gatherings
(D) Concerned with what is outside the self

95. Direction: Choose an alternative which can replace the given sentence so as to
communicate the same meaning.

A person appointed by two parties to solve a dispute

(A) Dictator
(B) Instigator
(C) Arbitrator
(D) Agitator

96. Direction: Choose an alternative which can replace the given sentence so as to
communicate the same meaning.

One who has vowed not to marry

(A) Celibate
(B) Bachelor
(C) Spinster
(D) Callous

97. Direction: Choose an alternative which can replace the given sentence so as to
communicate the same meaning.

One who is not sure of existence of God

(A) Deistic
(B) Polytheism
(C) Agnostic
(D) Atheist

98. Direction: Choose an alternative which can replace the given sentence so as to
communicate the same meaning.

Someone having many skills

(A) Versatile
(B) Veteran
(C) Anglophile
(D) Arbitrator

99. Direction: Choose an alternative which can replace the given sentence so as to
communicate the same meaning.

The study of the origin and history of words

(A) Taxonomy
(B) Etymology
(C) Anthology
(D) Linguistics

100. Direction: Choose an alternative which can replace the given sentence so as to
communicate the same meaning.

The first model of a new device

(A) Icon
(B) Photograph
(C) Prototype
(D) Sculpture

PART II - COMPREHENSIVE ABILITY

Directions (Question No. 101 to 113): Answer the following questions on the basis of
information provided in the text.

If the present trend in increase of population, urbanisation and industrialisation
continues then the world in the year 2050 AD will be more crowded and more polluted than
what it is at the moment. According to conservative estimates by 2050 AD population will
increase to 9.7 billion to make the situation worst, for the poor countries, 90 percent of the
increase in population will be in the poor countries. It will widen the gap between the rich and
the poor countries. Due to tremendous increase in the population more areas will be used for
dwelling which may lead to reduction in the area under cultivation. So any increase in the
agriculture production will not be due to increase in the area under cultivation but by
advancement in the agricultural technology.

With such great pressure on land for habitation unhygienic particularly in big cities as the
civic authorities may not be able to cope up with the problem. Increased demand for consumer
goods will not only gear up production of the existing industries but also demand setting up
for more industries. This will lead to greater pollution than even before. Scarcity of water in
urban centres and in the industrial town will be another problem of the future. If the present
trend continues then hundreds of millions of people will have to sleep without having a meal.

101. In the year 2050 AD the world will be more

(A) Crowded
(B) Polluted
(C) Rich
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct

102. The world population in 2050 AD will be

(A) 9.7 million
(B) 9.7 trillion
(C) 9.7 billion
(D) 9700 million

103. According to the passage, the world population in 2050 AD has been estimated as

(A) liberal
(B) scientific
(C) conservative
(D) strict

104. Where there will be a greater increase in population?

(A) In China
(B) In India
(C) In Russia
(D) In the poor countries

105. The poor countries will contribute to the increase of population to the extent of

(A) 10 percent
(B) 30 percent
(C) 90 percent
(D) 100 percent

106. In 2050 AD the gap between the rich and the poor countries will

(A) decrease
(B) remain same
(C) disappear
(D) increase

107. Where there will be scarcity of water?

(A) In industrial towns
(B) Urban centres
(C) Seas
(D) Both (A) and (B)

108. If the present trend continues, then in the year 2050 AD

(A) billions of people will go without meals
(B) the world will be more crowded
(C) the world will be more polluted
(D) All the above

109. In the year 2050 AD if there is advancement in technology the agricultural production
is likely to

(A) remain same
(B) decline
(C) increase
(D) tremendously decreases

110. Any increase in agricultural production will be because of

(A) improvement in the agricultural technology
(B) increase in the area under cultivation
(C) government taking over all the land
(D) increase in the number of farmers

111. In the year 2050 AD demand for the consumer goods will

(A) remain same
(B) decrease
(C) increase
(D) decline

112. In the year 2050 AD there will be need for
(A) more industries
(B) increase in industrial production
(C) greater efficiency of the civic authorities
(D) All the above

113. The message/s in the above paras are

(A) Population should be controlled
(B) Population should be regulated
(C) Population should be increased
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

But I did not want to shoot the elephant. I watched him beating his bunch of grass
against his knees, with the preoccupied grandmotherly air that elephants have. It seemed to
me that it would be murder to shoot him. I had never shot an elephant and never wanted to.
(Somehow it always seems worse to kill large animal.) Besides, there was the beast's owner to
be considered. But I had got to act quickly. I turned to some experienced-looking Burmans
who had been there when we arrived, and asked them how the elephants had been behaving.
They all said the same thing; he took no notice of you if you left him alone, but he might
charge if you went too close to him.

114. The phrase 'Preoccupied grandmotherly air' signifies

(A) being totally unconcerned
(B) pretending to be very busy
(C) a very superior attitude
(D) calm, dignified and affectionate disposition

115. From the passage it appears that the author was

(A) an inexperienced hunter
(B) kind and considerate
(C) possessed with fear
(D) a worried man

116. The author did not want to shoot the elephant because he

(A) was afraid of it
(B) did not have the experience of shooting big animals
(C) did not wish to kill animal which was not doing anybody any harm
(D) did not find the elephant to be ferocious

Direction : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

What needs to be set right is our approach to work? It is a common sight in our country of
employees reporting for duty on time and at the same time doing little work. If an assessment
is made of time they spent in gossiping, drinking tea, eating "pan" and smoking cigarettes, it
will be shocking to know that the time devoted to actual work is negligible. The problem is
the standard which the leadership in administration sets for the staff. Forgot the ministers
because they mix politics and administration. What do top bureaucrats do? What do the below
down officials do? The administration set up remains week mainly because the employees do
not have the right example to follow and they are more concerned about being in the good
books of the bosses than doing work.

117. The employees in our country

(A) are quite punctual but not duty conscious
(B) are not punctual, but somehow manage to complete their work
(C) are somewhat lazy but good natured
(D) are not very highly qualified

118. According to the writer, the administration in India

(A) is by and large effective
(B) is very strict and firm
(C) is affected by red tape
(D) is more or less ineffective

119. The word 'assessment' means

(A) enquiry
(B) report
(C) evaluation
(D) summary

120. The leadership in administration

(A) sets a fine example to the employees
(B) is of a reasonably high standard
(C) is composed of idealists
(D) is of a very poor standard

Direction : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

"Science cannot reduce the magic of a sunset to arithmetic. nor can it express friendship with
a formula" ob-served the eminent medical researcher, Dr. Lous Orr. He added, " also beyond
science's mastery of nature are love and laughter, pain and loneliness and insights into truth
and beauty". This distancing of science from the human condition perhaps explains why most
foreign tourists visiting Britain flock predictably to see the hallowed homes of playwrights,
writers and poets, but choose to ignore the habitations where its eminent scientists lived and
worked.

121. Why is it that science cannot express friendship with a formula?

(A) Science and friendship cannot co-exist
(B) It is abstract term which cannot be grappled by science
(C) Friendship is beyond science's mastery
(D) Friendship is unknown to scientists

122. The word magic refers to

(A) Evening dusk
(B) The sunrise
(C) Solar and lunar eclipse
(D) Setting of the sun, with all its beauty

123. Which of the following are beyond science's reach, according to the passage?

(A) Love and laughter, pain and loneliness
(B) Derivation of a formula
(C) Complexity of time and tide
(D) Work of the mind

124. The verb flock refers to

(A) Tourists in Britain
(B) Local people
(C) Large number of foreign tourists visiting homes of playwrights, writers, poets
(D) Indian tourists

125. Why according to the author do tourists prefer to visit hallowed homes of playwrights,
writers and poets rather than visiting the habitation of eminent scientists?

(A) The houses of playwright and writers are well-decorated and are full of splendor
(B) Science cannot explain human emotions. Hence, people have a soft corner for
those who produce a splendid display of emotions in their work
(C) Scientists are loathsome
(D) Houses of scientists are untidy and not well-preserved

PART. II - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

126. When is the National Voter’s Day celebrated?

(A) January 25
(B) March 21
(C) April 22
(D) May 31

127. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) is a

(A) Statutory Body
(B) Constitutional Body
(C) Non-Governmental Organization
(D) Advisory Body

128. Which city is recorded as the most polluted megacity in the World by World Health
Organisation?

(A) Beijing
(B) Cairo
(C) Delhi
(D) Hong Kong

129. Which famous philosopher was also the tutor of Alexander the Great?

(A) Socrates
(B) Aristotle
(C) Rousseau
(D) Thebes

130. Which country recently withdraws from UN Human Rights Council?

(A) Egypt
(B) Brazil
(C) United Kingdom
(D) United States of America

131. In which state the Statue of Unity is located?

(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu

132. International Human Rights Day is observed on
st
(A) December 1
th
(B) December 6
th
(C) December 10
th
(D) December 12

133. ISRO headquarters is located in

(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Bangalore

134. The point that lies directly above the source of an earthquake is known as

(A) Earthquake
(B) Epicentre
(C) Gravitational Centre
(D) Geological Centre

th
135. Which of the following is considered as 8 Continent?

(A) Zealandia
(B) West Asia
(C) New Zealand
(D) None of the above

136. International Women’s Day is celebrated each year on

(A) 12 March
(B) 16 March
(C) 6 March
(D) 8 March

137. Ryder Cup related to which sport?

(A) Tennis
(B) Golf
(C) Hockey
(D) Football

138. Sangam Age is related to

(A) Telugu literature
(B) Malayalam literature
(C) Kannada literature
(D) Tamil literature

139. Who among the following was called “Grand Old Lady of Indian Independence
Movement’’?

(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Aruna Asaf Ali
(D) Indira Gandhi

140. Palaeontology is a branch of Science deals with

(A) Oceans
(B) Fossils
(C) Minerals
(D) Historical Monuments

141. Euro Cup is related to which sports?

(A) Football
(B) Badminton
(C) Hockey
(D) Lawn Tennis

142. Who is known as “Father of Carnatic Music”?

(A) Kanaka Dasa
(B) Tyagaraja
(C) Muthuswami Dikshitar
(D) Purandara Dasa

143. The Bermuda Triangle is Mysterious Place that covers roughly 500,000 square miles
in which Ocean?

(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Pacific Ocean
(D) Antarctic Ocean

144. Who developed the E-Office, Cloud-enabled software?

(A) Central Statistics Office
(B) National Informatics Centre
(C) National Statistics Office
(D) Indian Data and Information Service

145. Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?

(A) Magnesium
(B) Lithium
(C) Sodium
(D) Bromine

146. Who is considered as the first woman teacher of India?

(A) Savitribai Phule
(B) Vimla Kaul
(C) Asima Chatterjee
(D) Roshni Mukherjee

147. In which year, the Citizenship Act has passed by the Parliament?

(A) 2019
(B) 1955
(C) 1965
(D) 2003

148. Which type of soil retains maximum water?

(A) Sandy
(B) Clay
(C) Rocky
(D) Loamy

149. “de die in diem” means

(A) From the beginning
(B) From day to day
(C) Regarding the
(D) Relating to

150. The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was

(A) Vyjanthimala
(B) Nargis Dutt
(C) J.Jayalalitha
(D) Hemamalini

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 619 THREE YEAR LLB
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 A 61 A 91 A 121 C
2 C 32 B 62 D 92 D 122 D
3 A 33 A 63 A 93 B 123 A
4 D 34 D 64 D 94 B 124 C
5 B 35 C 65 B 95 C 125 B
6 C 36 C 66 C 96 A 126 A
7 C 37 C 67 D 97 C 127 A
8 A 38 D 68 C 98 A 128 C
9 B 39 B 69 B 99 B 129 B
10 C 40 D 70 A 100 C 130 D
11 B 41 A 71 C 101 D 131 A
12 D 42 D 72 B 102 C 132 C
13 C 43 D 73 D 103 C 133 D
14 A 44 B 74 D 104 D 134 B
15 C 45 C 75 B 105 C 135 A
16 C 46 B 76 B 106 D 136 D
17 B 47 D 77 A 107 D 137 B
18 C 48 C 78 A 108 D 138 D
19 B 49 B 79 C 109 C 139 C
20 A 50 B 80 B 110 A 140 B
21 B 51 B 81 C 111 C 141 A
22 D 52 A 82 D 112 D 142 D
23 D 53 B 83 C 113 D 143 A
24 D 54 C 84 A 114 D 144 B
25 B 55 C 85 A 115 B 145 B
26 C 56 C 86 B 116 B 146 A
27 A 57 A 87 C 117 A 147 B
28 D 58 B 88 A 118 D 148 B
29 B 59 D 89 B 119 C 149 B
30 D 60 B 90 B 120 D 150 B