CUSAT CAT 2022 Question Paper LLM

610-Law (for LLM)

PART I - PROFICIENCY IN ENGLISH AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Choose the word or phrase which is most nearly similar in meaning to the word
shown in bold letters.

All these items have been marked down.

(A) Reserved
(B) Packed up
(C) Reduced in price
(D) Entered

2. Choose the word or phrase which is most nearly similar in meaning to the word
shown in bold letters.

How can you have the effrontery to ask for another loan?

(A) Right
(B) Impudence
(C) Heart
(D) Courage

Direction: Read carefully the passage and answer.

Nature writing is nonfiction or fiction, prose or poetry about the natural environment. Nature
writing encompasses a wide variety of works, ranging from those that place primary
emphasis on natural history facts (such as field guides) to those in which philosophical
interpretation predominate. It includes natural history essays, poetry, essays of solitude or
escape, as well as travel and adventure writing.

Nature writing often draws heavily on scientific information and facts about the natural
world; at the same time, it is frequently written in the first person and incorporates personal
observations of and philosophical reflections upon nature.

Modern nature writing traces its roots to the works of natural history that were popular in the
second half of the 18th century and throughout the 19th. An important early figures was the
"parson-naturalist" Gilbert White (1720 – 1793), a pioneering English naturalist and
ornithologist. He is best known for his Natural History and Antiquities of Selborne (1789).

3. Nature writing emphasizes on

(i) Historical facts about the nature
(ii) Philosophical interpretations of the nature
(iii) Scientific information and facts

(A) Only (i) and (iii) above
(B) Only (i) and (ii) above
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) above
(D) Only (i) above

4. Based on the passage what is the period to which the modern
nature writing can be traced to?

(A) 1850 till 1999
(B) 1850 till 1899
(C) 1750 till 1899
(D) 1750 till 1950

5. Which statement summarizes the above passage?

(A) The passage talks about the life and lessons of Gilbert White, a profound
naturalist and ornithologist
(B) The passage talks about how the nature writing is missing in the modern era
and needs to be revived
(C) The passage talks about from where the writers draw inspiration for nature
writing and how its importance is diminishing in the modern era
(D) The passage talks about what nature writing is, the different types of nature
writing, its style and about the roots and pioneer of modern nature writing

6. Which word aptly describes the word “reflections” as used in the passage?

(A) Opinion
(B) Reproduction
(C) Images
(D) None of the above

7. According to the passage, what kind of works are written as part of nature writing?

(i) Natural history essays and essays of solitude or escape
(ii) Poetry
(iii) Travel and adventure writing

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) above

8. Choose the correct antonym of ‘FALLIBLE’

(A) Faltering
(B) Gormless
(C) Inept
(D) Unerring

9. Choose one word for ‘departure from common rule’

(A) Anomaly
(B) Axiom
(C) Conscription
(D) Crusade

10. Identify the words that are similar in meaning to the phrase in bold.

“Very few lawmakers were enthusiastic about the legislation but described it as
a necessary evil to avoid a government shutdown.”

(A) Responsible
(B) Imply
(C) Indispensable
(D) Warrant

11. Identify the words that are similar in meaning to the phrase in bold.

“Privatization goes against the grain of their principle of opposition to private
ownership of industry.”

(A) Normal
(B) Abnormal
(C) In sync
(D) Disparaging

Direction: Read the passage and answer the questions.

“Awarding of life imprisonment would be a rule, while, ‘death’ would be the exception. The
term ‘rarest of the rare’ case which is the consistent determinative rule declared by this court,
itself suggests that it has to be an exceptional case”, said a bench comprising Justice A.K.
Patnaik and Justice Swatanter Kumar in its judgment on Tuesday. Commuting the death
sentence awarded to four convicts into life term the bench said, “Most of the heinous crimes
under the IPC are punishable by death penalty or life imprisonment. That by itself does not
suggest that in all such offences, penalty of death alone should be awarded”. The law
contemplates recording of special reasons and, therefore, the expression ‘special’ has to be
given a definite meaning and connotation. The court has to consider matters like nature of the
offence, how and under what circumstances it was committed, the extent of brutality with
which the offence was committed, the motive for the offence.

12. Choose the right word or words which would mean ‘Commuting’

(A) to inform
(B) to communicate
(C) to reduce
(D) to make

13. Heinous means

(A) hearing
(B) abominable
(C) hurting
(D) All the above

14. What is the other expression which expresses death sentence/death penalty?

(A) Life punishment
(B) Capital punishment
(C) Deportation
(D) Solitary confinement

15. In rarest of rare cases death sentence is awarded by the Court

(A) considering the brutality of offence and intention
(B) considering the evidence adduced
(C) considering the nature of the victim
(D) considering the number of offences committed by the accused

16. Awarding in the passage means

(A) giving gift
(B) giving compensation
(C) giving punishment
(D) giving donation

17. Select the word spelt correctly.

(A) paraphernalia
(B) paraphrenalia
(C) parapherenalia
(D) paraphrennalia

18. Select the word spelt correctly.

(A) Questionaire
(B) Questionneire
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Questionnair

19. Select the word spelt correctly.

(A) Renaissance
(B) Renaisance
(C) Renaissence
(D) Renaisence

20. Select the word which is the most nearest synonym.

ABERRATION

(A) Deviation
(B) Embarrassment
(C) Abhorrence
(D) Absence

21. Select the word which is the most nearest synonym.

LYNCHING

(A) Telling lie
(B) Hurting
(C) Killing
(D) Throwing into the water

22. Select the word which is the most nearest synonym.

WHIMSICAL

(A) Notional
(B) Handsome
(C) Musical
(D) Humourous

23. Select the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To give the game away

(A) To lose the game
(B) To give a walk-over in a game
(C) To reveal the secret
(D) To play the game badly

24. Select the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase shown in
bold letters.

Miss Sneha has been in the blues for the last several days.

(A) Live abroad
(B) Depressed
(C) Live in a blue shed
(D) Imprisoned

25. Select the appropriate /most suitable words to fill in the blanks.

Though the law became ……………….. from 1950, it was not until a decade later
that any ……………….. under that law was recorded.

(A) effective, brief
(B) invoked, crime
(C) enacted, act
(D) operative, offence

26. International Yoga Day is celebrated on

(A) June 21
(B) March 21
(C) April 22
(D) May 31

27. The motif of ‘Hampi with Chariot’ is printed on the reverse of which currency note?

(A) One Rupee Note
(B) Rs. 500 Note
(C) Rs. 50 Note
(D) Rs. 1000 Note

28. Forest Research Institute of India is located at

(A) Ghaziabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Delhi
(D) Lucknow

29. In which among the following states of U.S.A, ‘Death Valley’ is located?

(A) Miami
(B) Pennsylvania
(C) Texas
(D) California

30. Which among the following is known as ‘land of thousand lakes’?

(A) Norway
(B) Finland
(C) Sweden
(D) Estonia

31. The logo of World Wildlife Fund (WWF) depicts which among the
following animals?

(A) Panda
(B) Polar bear
(C) Tiger
(D) Stag

32. World’s first Human Rights TV channel was launched in which country?

(A) United States
(B) United Kingdom
(C) Canada
(D) Australia

33. National Consumer Day observed on

(A) December 23
(B) December 24
(C) December 25
(D) December 26

34. Which of the following is the most commonly used chemical for ripening
of fruits in India?

(A) Potassium Iodide
(B) Silver Iodide
(C) Ammonium Nitratate
(D) Calcium Carbide

35. Who is the chair person of NITI Aayog?

(A) The President
(B) The Prime minister
(C) The Vice President
(D) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

36. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is located at

(A) Netherlands
(B) Switzerland
(C) Finland
(D) Norway

37. In Cyber Space “http” stands for

(A) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(B) Hyper Transfer Topology Protocol
(C) Higher Text Transfer Protocol
(D) High Triple Topology Protocol

38. With which country did India sign a Comprehensive Economic Partnership
Agreement (CEPA) in February 2022?

(A) China
(B) Brazil
(C) Nepal
(D) UAE

39. Which Union Ministry/Institution organized Global Summit on
‘Reimagining Museums in India’?

(A) Ministry of Culture
(B) Ministry of Tourism
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) UNESCO

40. NISAR Synthetic Aperture Radar which was making news recently, is a collaboration
of ISRO with which space agency?

(A) JAXA
(B) NASA
(C) SpaceX
(D) ESA

41. New bacteria found in the ‘International Space Station’ has been named after which
of the fallowing Indian scientist?

(A) Jagdish Chandra Bose
(B) A.P.J Abdul Kalam
(C) Ajmal Khan
(D) C.V Raman

42. Which among following is a biodiversity hotspot?

(A) Thar Desert
(B) Western Ghats
(C) Aravalli Hills
(D) Eastern Ghats

43. Whose plea was rejected by the Supreme Court of India, but paved way for
legalisation of passive euthanasia?

(A) Aruna Shanbaug
(B) Aruna Roy
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Mary Roy

44. Who among the following was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) J.B. Kripalani

45. Which banking company has successfully tested the world’s first blockchain
transaction in space?

(A) Goldman Sachs
(B) JP Morgan
(C) Wells Fargo
(D) Bank of America

46. Which country launched the Hwasong-12 mid-range ballistic missile?

(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) North Korea
(D) South Korea

47. Geological Survey of India (GSI) has approved to set up India’s first
Geo-Park in which state?

(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Telangana

48. While browsing internet, what do we call the area of storage that compensates for the
different speeds of data flow or timings of events by temporarily holding a block of
data that is waiting to be processed?

(A) Cache
(B) Buffer
(C) Flash
(D) Trash

49. When some unidentified / unknown person / firm sends you mail in a
trustworthy / lucrative way asking for sensitive banks and online payment
information, this is a case of

(A) Spam
(B) Hacking
(C) Phishing
(D) Vishing

50. What is the full form of ADSL?

(A) Automatic Digital Subscriber Line
(B) Asymmetric Direct Subscriber Line
(C) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
(D) None of the above

PART I – ANALYTICAL REASONING CAPABILITY

51. Mr. Ashok meets Mr. Babu. Babu is the father of a son Dharmendra and a daughter
Chandrika. Shalini is the mother of Ashok. Dharmendra is married, has one son.
Shalini is the daughter-in-law of Babu. How is Ashok related to Babu?

(A) Uncle
(B) Son
(C) Grandson
(D) Nephew

52. Radha moves towards South-East a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards West
and travels a distance of 14 km. From here she moves towards North-West a distance
of 7 km and finally she moves a distance of 4 km towards East. How far is she now
from the starting point?

(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 11 km

Direction: Read the statements given below and answer question.

Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner and
are facing the centre of the hexagonal. P is second to the left of U. Q is neighbour of R and
S. T is second to the left of S.

53. Which one is sitting opposite to P?

(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S

54. Who is the fourth person to the left of Q?

(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) None of the above

55. Which of the following are the neighbours of P?

(A) T and R
(B) U and P
(C) P and S
(D) U and R

56. Which one is sitting opposite to T?

(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S

57. Which one will replace the question mark?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

58. Which one will replace the question mark?

(A) 27
(B) 37
(C) 47
(D) 57

59. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1. Income 2. Status 3. Education 4. Well-being 5. Job

(A) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(B) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4

60. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(A) OVSQ
(B) ELMT
(C) OFMK
(D) AEGC

61. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to the group?

(A) 108
(B) 102
(C) 153
(D) 207

62. Find the analogy

Cassock : Priest :: ? : Graduate

(A) Tie
(B) Cap
(C) Gown
(D) Coat

63. Find the analogy

KeaC : CaeK :: XgmF : ?

(A) FmgX
(B) GmcF
(C) EgmX
(D) EmgF

64. Direction: A set of four figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 followed by a set of four alternatives is
provided. It is required to select the alternative which represents three out of the four
figures which when fitted into each other would form a complete square.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 123
(B) 134
(C) 234
(D) None of the above

65. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with?

(A) Nil
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 17

66. Select the related pair that has the same relationship as the given pair of words.

Umbrage : Offense ::

(A) Confusion : Penance
(B) Infinity : Meaning
(C) Decorum : Decoration
(D) Elation : Jubilance

67. A woman says, “If you reverse my own age, the figures represent my husband’s age.
He is, of course, senior to me and the difference between our ages is one-eleventh of
their sum”. The woman’s age is

(A) 23 years
(B) 34 years
(C) 45 years
(D) None of the above

68. What will come at the place of question mark in the following series?

3, 7, 23, 95, ?

(A) 62
(B) 128
(C) 479
(D) 575

69. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly.
What is the probability that it is neither a red nor a green ball?

(A) 1/3
(B) 3/4
(C) 7/19
(D) 8/21

70. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 visitors on other days.
The average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a
Sunday is

(A) 250
(B) 276
(C) 280
(D) 285

Direction: Following consists a statement followed by some conclusions. Consider the
statement and decide which of these conclusions is implicit to the statement.

71. Statement: All the research scholars are psychologists.
Some psychologists are scientists.
Conclusions: I. All the research scholars are scientists.
II. Some research scholars are scientists.
III. Some scientists are psychologists.
IV. Some psychologists are research scholars.

(A) Only III and IV
(B) None of the four
(C) All the four
(D) Only III

72. Statement: Some keys are staplers.
Some staplers are stickers.
All the stickers are pens
Conclusions: I. Some pens are staplers.
II. Some stickers are keys.
III. No stickers are keys.
IV. Some staplers are keys

(A) Only I and II
(B) Only II and IV
(C) Only II and III
(D) Only I and IV

73. Statement: All the locks are keys.
All the keys are bats.
Some watches are bats.
Conclusions: I. Some bats are locks.
II. Some watches are keys.
III. All the keys are locks

(A) Only I and II
(B) Only I
(C) Only II
(D) Only I and III

74. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years.
What is the age of the youngest child?

(A) 4 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 10 years
(D) None of the above

75. If the selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percentage.

(A) 66
(B) 100
(C) 105
(D) 120

Direction: From the given facts, answer the questions.

Raghav, Venkat, Kumaran and Nandan are friends. Raghav and Venkat play football. Raghav
studies Commerce. Nandan is a Boxar. Both the football players study Mathematics. One of
the friends is a Cricketer and studies Chemistry and Biology. One football player also studies
physics. The Boxer studies Mathematics and Accountancy. All the friends study two subjects
each and play one game each.

76. Who is a Cricketer?

(A) Raghav
(B) Venkat
(C) Kumaran
(D) Nandan

77. Who does not study Mathematics?

(A) Raghav
(B) Venkat
(C) Kumaran
(D) Nandan

78. Who studies Physics?

(A) Raghav
(B) Venkat
(C) Kumaran
(D) Nandan

79. Who studies Commerce and plays football?

(A) Raghav
(B) Venkat
(C) Kumaran
(D) Nandan

80. Name the person who is not a Boxer but studies both Chemistry and Biology

(A) Raghav
(B) Venkat
(C) Kumaran
(D) Nandan

81. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the given pair.

Kiln : Bricks

(A) Oven : Cakes
(B) Silo : Crops
(C) Furnace : Metals
(D) Factory : Tiles

82. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the given pair.

Book : Author

(A) Rain : Flood
(B) Light : Switch
(C) Symphony : Composer
(D) Song : Music

83. What is the last alphabet in the following sequence?

A, B, D, G, K, P, ……

(A) Z
(B) Y
(C) V
(D) X

84. Complete the Series or Sequence.

Sunday, Monday, Wednesday, Saturday, Wednesday, Monday, Sunday, ……………

(A) Sunday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Saturday
(D) Thursday

Direction: Read the text and choose the response that most accurately and completely
answers each question.

Mercotek carried out a study to compare the productivity of its night shift with that of its day
shift. Every week the company’s six crews – E, G H, R, S and T – were ranked from first
(most productive) to sixth (least productive). There were no ties. For any given week either G
and T were the two night shift crews or else S and H were the four other crews were the day
shift crews for that week. The following relationships held for every week of the study:

F is more productive than G
R is more productive than S
R is more productive than T
S is more productive than H
G is more productive than T

85. Which of the following could be an accurate ranking of all the crews, in order from
first to sixth, for a given week of the study?

(A) F, G, T, R, S, H
(B) F, R, G, T, H, S
(C) G, R, T, S, H, F
(D) R, F, G, S, H, T

86. If F is ranked third for a given week of the study, then which one of the following
could also be true of that week?

(A) G ranks second
(B) H ranks fourth
(C) R ranks second
(D) S ranks fourth

87. Which one of the following CANNOT be the crew ranked fifth for
any given week of the study?

(A) G
(B) H
(C) R
(D) S

88. For any given week of the study, the ranking of all the crews is completely
determined if which one of the following is true?

(A) F ranks second that week
(B) G ranks fifth that week
(C) H ranks third that week
(D) R ranks third that week

89. If the night shift crews rank fifth and sixth for a given week of the study, then which
one of the following could also be true of that week?

(A) G ranks fourth
(B) H ranks fifth
(C) R ranks third
(D) S ranks fourth

Direction: Accept the factual assumptions required by the questions, even if you believe that
the statement is false. Answer the questions on the basis of the given statements.

90. If it is true that ‘men are seldom honest’, which of the following statement conveys
the same meaning?

(A) At least one man is not honest.
(B) Men are not honest.
(C) At least on one occasion men are not honest.
(D) Sometimes men are honest.

91. If it is false that ‘men always obey the law’, which one of the following
statements is doubtful?

(A) Sometimes men do not obey the law.
(B) All men obey the law.
(C) Men never obey the law.
(D) Some men obey the law.

92. If it is false that ‘all men strive for the happiness of all’, which one of the following
statements is true beyond doubt?

(A) All men seek their own happiness.
(B) There are men who do not desire for the happiness of all.
(C) No men strive for the happiness of all.
(D) There are men who do not strive for the happiness of all.

93. If the statement “All men desire their own welfare always’ is true, then which of the
following statements must be false?

(A) There are men who desire their own welfare sometimes.
(B) Some men desire their own welfare always.
(C) There are men who always desire their and others’ welfare.
(D) It is not the case that all men desire their own welfare always.

94. From among the given alternatives, identify the conclusion of the following argument.

You cannot taste success in life unless you work hard.

You cannot be happy unless you taste success in life.

Therefore,

(A) you can be happy unless you work hard.
(B) you cannot be happy unless you work hard.
(C) you cannot work hard unless you are happy.
(D) you can work hard unless you are happy.

95. ‘Utilitarians believe that the right action is that which produces the most happiness.’

Which of the following claims is incompatible with the utilitarian view?

(A) The right thing to do is to make the consequences of our actions as good as
possible.
(B) The right thing to do is to do our duty, whatever the consequences.
(C) The right thing to do is to act on a rule which, if followed widely, produces the
most happiness.
(D) The right thing to do is to act from motivations which produce the most
happiness.

96. Literature is the mirror in which the society can see itself. This statement implies that

(A) no ugly society can produce good literature.
(B) writers are essentially like newspaper correspondents, reporting faithfully what
they are observing.
(C) literature enables the people to comprehend the dimensions which they are
unaware of .
(D) None of the above.

97. Child labour is only a reflection of the malaise in the society.

Which of the following supports the above statement?

(A) Child labour is not abhorred by the public
(B) The Government is not serious about eliminating child labour
(C) Exploitation of the poor, weak and unorganized is not uncommon
(D) All the above

98. “Justice should not only be done, but seen to have been done.” The statement intends
to convey the message that

(A) Court proceedings must be open to public
(B) Public participation in judicial decision making is essential for timely justice
(C) Court proceedings must be fair and judgments should be based on legal
reasoning
(D) All court cases must be publicized and reported to the public in their own
language

99. Assume the Question to be true and choose the correct answer from the choices
given taking into consideration the two arguments.

Question: Should there be a world Government?
Argument: I Yes, it will eliminate inter-state conflicts.
II No, rich and powerful countries will dominate it.

(A) Only argument I is strong.
(B) Only argument II is strong.
(C) Either argument I or II is strong.
(D) Neither argument I nor II is strong.

100. Assume the Question to be true and choose the correct answer from the choices
given taking into consideration the two arguments.

Question: Should school education be made free in India?
Argument: I Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.

(A) Only argument I is strong.
(B) Only argument II is strong.
(C) Either argument I or II is strong.
(D) Neither argument I nor II is strong.

PART II – COMPULSORY PAPERS IN LAW AS PRESCRIBED BY THE BAR
COUNCIL OF INDIA

101. Match the following:

i. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachilhu 1. Challenge to illegality of Legislative
[1992 SCR (1) 686] Proceedings
ii. Basheshar Nath v. IT Commissioner 2. Judicial Review as basic structure of
[1959 AIR 149] the Constitution
iii. Re Keshav Singh 3. No person can waive her/his
[AIR 1965 SC 745] Fundamental Rights
iv. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India 4. Judicial Review of Speaker’s order
[1997 (2) SCR 1186] under Anti- Defection law

(A) i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2
(B) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
(C) i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1
(D) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3

102. Economically weaker sections of society have been provided reservation under
Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) inserted by which of the following Constitutional
Amendment Act?
nd
(A) 102
rd
(B) 103
th
(C) 104
(D) None of the above

103. According to Salmond, “jurisprudence as the theory or philosophy of law is divisible
into three branches and they may be further distinguished as
(A) analytical, historical and ethical
(B) analytical, sociological and ethical
(C) analytical, doctrinal and ethical
(D) analytical and ethical

104. Imperative law is
(A) a command, or a rule in the form of a command
(B) a rule in the form of legal text
(C) a notion non-existent
(D) an unwritten law

105. Natural Law is also known by the following names

(A) Command of divine, Law of reason and Jus populis
(B) Command of God, Law of reason and Jus scriptum
(C) Command of God, Law of reason and Jus non-scriptum
(D) Man-made law

106. Statement: Jeremy Bentham opined that there are no natural and moral rights. If
they exist then they do so as non-sense, or noises without reference or
truth value.
Reasoning: Rights are meaningful only if they survive, which is possible through
law.

(A) The statement is correct but the reasoning is wrong
(B) Both statement and reasoning are wrong
(C) Both statement and reasoning are correct
(D) The statement is wrong but the reasoning is correct

107. In Hohfeld’s terminology, any human being who by his acts brings changes in legal
relations is said to have

(A) Liability
(B) Power
(C) Privilege
(D) Immunity

108. Under the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) 1908, ordinarily every suit shall be filed in

(A) A court of the lowest grade competent to try as per Section 16
(B) A court of the lowest grade competent to try as per Section 15
(C) A court of the lowest grade competent to try as per Section 18
(D) A court of the lowest grade competent to try as per Section 17

109. As per the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) 1908, suits for recovery of/partition
of/foreclosure, sale/redemption of mortgage compensation for wrong to immovable
property shall be filed in

(A) a court of the lowest grade competent to try
(B) the court within whose jurisdiction the immovable property is situated
(C) any of the courts
(D) High Court

110. As per the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) 1908, a person is ___________, (a) if he is
not possessed of sufficient means (other than property exempt from attachment in
execution of a decree and the subject-matter of the suit) to enable him to pay the fee
prescribed by law for the plaint in such suit, (b) where no such fee is prescribed if he
is not entitled to property worth one thousand rupees other than the property exempt
from attachment in execution of decree, and the subject-matter of the suit

(A) Victim
(B) Indigent person
(C) Defendant
(D) Amicus curiae

111. Which of the following statements are correct under the Criminal Procedure Code 1973?

I. If the law that creates the offence has given a specific name to an offence then
the offence shall be described in the charge by that name only.
II. If the law that creates the offence has not given a specific name to an offence
then the offence can be described in the charge by a name convenient to the
Officer/s.
III. The charge shall be written and conveyed to the accused in the language of the
court.
IV. Every charge shall state the offence with which the accused is charged.

(A) Only I and III are correct
(B) Only I and IV are correct
(C) Only II and III are correct
(D) Only III and IV are correct

112. Section 321 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 among others, provides for the
following:

“The Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may, with
the consent of the Court, at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw
from the prosecution of any person either generally or in respect of any one or more
of the offences for which he is tried…”

By relying upon the text supplied above, identify the nature of this Section.

(A) Mandatory Provision
(B) Enabling Provision
(C) Non-Obstante clause
(D) Saving clause

113. As per the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, Bail is a

(A) matter of right for the arrested
(B) matter of right, if the offence is bailable
(C) matter of Magistrate’s discretion, if the offence is bailable
(D) human right

114. Under the scheme of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973,
non-cognisable offences are

(A) Public wrongs
(B) Private wrongs
(C) Both public and private wrongs
(D) Neither public nor private wrong

115. Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines a contract as “an agreement
enforceable by law”. How do you understand the meaning of the expression
“agreement”?

(A) An agreement is a promise or set of promises forming consideration for each
other
(B) An agreement is a proposal and it is written
(C) An agreement can be entered between the parties for any purpose/s
(D) An agreement is only a formality between the parties associated with it

116. Statement: An offer or acceptance to a contract can be spelt out from the conduct
of the parties which covers not only their acts but also omissions.
Inference: An acceptance can be made expressly or impliedly.

(A) The statement is correct and the inference is wrong
(B) The statement is wrong and inference is not absolute
(C) Both statement and inference are wrong
(D) Both statement and inference are correct

117. Statement 1: The intention of the parties is naturally to be known from the terms of
the agreement and the surrounding circumstance.
Statement 2: It is for the court in each case to find out if the parties intended to
enter into legal obligations.
Statement 3: The test of contractual intention is objective, not subjective.

(A) Statements 1 and 3 are correct
(B) Statements 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(D) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are wrong

118. Statement : “An offer may be made to the world at large. The contract is not
made with all the world”.
Reasoning: Contract is made only with a person who comes forward and
performs the conditions of the proposal

(A) The statement is correct and the reasoning is wrong
(B) Statement and reasoning are correct
(C) Statement and reasoning are wrong
(D) The statement is wrong and the reasoning is correct

119. Exceptions to consideration in a contract are

(A) Natural love, affection, compensating someone for the voluntary service and
time-barred debt
(B) Natural love and affection
(C) Natural love, affection, compassion and time-barred debt
(D) Natural love, affection and time-barred debt

120. Statement 1: An infant obtains property or goods by misrepresenting his age, he
can be compelled to restore it, but only so long as the same is
traceable in his possession.
Statement 2: If that infant has sold the goods or converted them, he cannot be made
to repay the value of goods because that would amount to enforcing a
void agreement.

(A) Statement 1 alone is correct
(B) Statement 2 alone is correct
(C) Both statements are correct
(D) Both statements are wrong

121. A spiritual advisor induces his devotee to gift him the whole of his property to secure
the benefits to his soul in the next world. The devotee obliges. Later, the devotee
wishes to reclaim his possession of the property. He can succeed on what ground?

(A) Unwarranted statement
(B) Fraud
(C) Waiver
(D) Undue influence

122. In contract of guarantee, the person who give the guarantee, the person in respect of
whose default the guarantee is given and the person to whom the guarantee is given
are respectively called as

(A) Surety, principal debtor and creditor
(B) Surety, creditor and principal debtor
(C) Surety, principal debtor and plaintiff
(D) Surety, principal debtor and defendant

123. In a partnership, among others, the mutual duties of partners are

(A) duty of absolute good faith, duty not to compete, duty of diligence, duty to
indemnify fraud
(B) duty of absolute good faith, duty not to compete, access to books, majority
rights
(C) duty of absolute good faith, duty to communicate, access to books, profit
monopolisation
(D) duty to encourage, disclose plans and take collective decisions

124. Under the Sale of Goods Act 1930, where there is a contract of sale of goods by
description, ……………….. is inferred.

(A) there is an implied condition that the goods shall correspond with the
description
(B) the goods may correspond with the description
(C) the descriptions are not absolute
(D) the goods need not match the description

125. Under the Competition Act 2002, ……………….. are the prohibited kinds of abusive
use of dominant position.

(A) denial of access to market, protection of other markets, imposition of
supplementary obligations
(B) unfair or discriminatory trade practices
(C) unfair or discriminatory trade practices, limiting production or technical or
scientific development, denial of access to market, imposition of
supplementary obligations and protection of other markets
(D) unfair or discriminatory trade practices, maximizing production or technical or
scientific development, creation of access to market, imposition of
supplementary obligations and protection of other markets

126. ……………….. is the nature of liability of drawer for issuing cheques without funds.

(A) Tortious liability
(B) Absolute liability
(C) Non-compoundable liability
(D) Criminal liability

127. ……………….. are the important presumptions in favour of negotiable instruments to
facilitate proof of claims arising upon them.

(A) Presumption as to consideration, the presumptions as to the time of acceptance,
transfer, as to stamp, holder in due course, order of indorsement and date
(B) Presumption as to drawee, the presumptions as to the time of acceptance,
balance, exchange, transfer and presumptions as to settlement, holder in due
course, order of indorsement and date
(C) Presumption as to consideration, the presumption as to order of indorsement
and date
(D) Presumption as to holder in due course, order of indorsement and date

128. The Articles of Association of a company

(A) needs to be registered
(B) need not be registered
(C) needs to be registered along with the Memorandum of a company
(D) is non-registrable

129. A public company may issue securities to public through

(A) Public offer/prospectus
(B) Individual offers/pamphlets
(C) Private offers in compliance with the provisions of Part II of Chapter 3 or
rights issue or bonus issue by complying with the provisions of the Act and in
the case of Listed Companies by complying with the provisions of the SEBI
Act, 1992 and rules and regulations made under it
(D) Public offer/prospectus or private placements in compliance with the
provisions of Part II of Chapter 3 or rights issue or bonus issue by complying
with the provisions of the Act and in the case of Listed Companies by
complying with the provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992 and rules and regulations
made under it

130. Statement: Sovereignty and statehood have continued to be the underpinning
power structure within the international system.
Inference: Thus, states may use their powers to modify the law to make rules
relating to statehood itself.

(A) Statement and inference are correct
(B) Statement and inference are wrong
(C) The statement is correct but the inference is wrong
(D) The statement is wrong and the inference is correct

131. Extradition is the process of

(A) providing asylum to the person who needs it
(B) handing over a person accused or convicted of a crime by a state to the
demanding state
(C) ascertaining the criminal liability of the individual
(D) denying asylum

132. The principles of International Human Rights applies during

(A) Peacetimes only
(B) Emergency times
(C) Both peace and emergency times
(D) Normal times

133. ……………….. means the infringement of private legal right without damage or loss.

(A) Injuria sine damnum
(B) Damnum sine injuria
(C) Ex majore
(D) Injuria lex res

134. Generally, there is no requirement of showing a mental element to prove a wrong in
tort. But in cases like ……………….. the state of mind of the person committing the
tort is relevant for ascertaining his/her liability.

(A) assault, false imprisonment, malicious prosecution, battery
(B) nuisance and alternative danger
(C) mistake of law
(D) mistake of fact

135. Statement 1: The remedy under the Consumer Protection Act is an alternative in
addition to that already available to the aggrieved persons/consumers
by way of a civil suit.
Statement 2: In the complaint/appeal/petition submitted under the Act, a consumer
is not required to pay any court fees but only a nominal fee.

(A) Only statement 1 is correct
(B) Only statement 2 is correct
(C) Both statements are correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect

136. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Copyright is a right to stop others from exploiting the work without the consent
or assent of the owner of the copyright.
II. The issue of copyright is closely connected to that of commercial viability and
the commercial consequences and implications.
III. There is no copyright in the facts perse.

(A) Statements I and II only
(B) Statements I and III only
(C) Statements II and III only
(D) Statements I, II and III are correct

137. When an application for registration of a trademark has been accepted and either the
application has not been opposed and the time for opposition has expired, or the
application was opposed and it has been decided in favour of the applicant, the
Registrar may

(A) register the trademark
(B) reject the application
(C) register the trademark unless the central government has directed otherwise
(D) adjourn the process

138. Deemed refusal under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is

(A) a failure on a PIOs part to provide information within the specified time limits
(B) an applicant’s denial to pay the required fees specified by the PIO
(C) a failure to hear the first appeal within the specified time
(D) non-availability of the information sought

139. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India struck down
……………….. Section of the Information Technology Act, 2000, relating to
restrictions on online speech, as unconstitutional on grounds of violating the freedom
of speech specified under Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution of India.

(A) Section 65A
(B) Section 66A
(C) Section 68A
(D) Section 66

140. Concerning Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), which of the following is correct?

(A) The court can compel parties to engage in ADR
(B) The court cannot compel parties to engage in ADR and has no power to
sanction them for failing to do so
(C) The court cannot force parties to engage in ADR but does have the power to
sanction them for failing to do so
(D) None of the options given is correct

141. ……………….. Sections of Indian Penal Code 1860 contains the provisions
regarding the right of private defence.

(A) 96 to 106
(B) 96 to 100
(C) 86 to 120
(D) 86 to 96

142. Statement 1: Concerning the use of the defence of unsoundness of mind, the key
consideration for the court is the mental state of the accused at the
time of committing the offence which can be collated from evidence.
Statement 2: The defence of property also comes within the purview of the
doctrine of self-defence, provided the property for which right of
private defence is exercised is subjected to acts of theft, robbery
mischief or criminal trespass or attempts thereof.

(A) Statement 1 is correct
(B) Statement 2 is correct
(C) Both statements are correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect

143. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India and
shall be removed from his office

(A) by the pleasure or will of the President
(B) by like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
(C) by resolution as to the removal of Comptroller Auditor General by the Finance
Commission
(D) by order of the Prime Minister

144. The Supreme Court or the High Court may issue any appropriate ……………….. to
enforce the Fundamental Rights.

(A) writ
(B) writ or order or decree
(C) decree
(D) writ or order

145. When a national emergency is proclaimed, the fundamental freedoms guaranteed by
Article 19 automatically stands suspended. On which ground this can happen?

(A) War or insurrection
(B) War or armed rebellion
(C) War or external aggression
(D) War

146. Which of the statements are correct?

I. According to the Constitutional scheme of administration, the Right to
Education Act, 2009 provides elementary education to a child (6-14 years) who
does not or could not go to school
II. Such a child is to be admitted to a class and has the right to receive special
training considering his/her age.
III. The said Act seeks to provide children with the right to seek transfer from a
government or government- aided school to another such school to complete
elementary education.
IV. The Act mandates non-minority private unaided schools to reserve at least 25%
of their entry-level seats for children belonging to disadvantaged sections to
create a more integrated and inclusive schooling system.

(A) I and IV
(B) I, II and IV
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) II and IV

147. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) B.N. Rao
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

148. Which of the following Committee is related to the Institution of Panchayati Raj?

(A) Mudholkar Committee
(B) J. S. Verma Committee
(C) Malimath Committee
(D) BalwantRai Mehta Committee

149. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the
name of the

(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

150. How many minimum number of Judges should sit for deciding any case involving
substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution?

(A) 3 Judges Bench
(B) 5 Judges Bench
(C) 7 Judges Bench
(D) 9 Judges Bench

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 610 LAW (FOR LLM)
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 A 61 B 91 B 121 D
2 B 32 B 62 C 92 D 122 A
3 C 33 B 63 A 93 D 123 A
4 C 34 D 64 C 94 B 124 A
5 D 35 B 65 C 95 B 125 C
6 A 36 A 66 D 96 D 126 D
7 D 37 A 67 C 97 A 127 A
8 D 38 D 68 C 98 A 128 C
9 A 39 A 69 A 99 B 129 D
10 C 40 B 70 D 100 C 130 A
11 B 41 C 71 A 101 A 131 B
12 C 42 B 72 D 102 B 132 C
13 B 43 A 73 B 103 A 133 A
14 B 44 B 74 A 104 A 134 A
15 A 45 B 75 B 105 C 135 C
16 C 46 C 76 C 106 C 136 D
17 A 47 C 77 C 107 B 137 C
18 C 48 B 78 B 108 B 138 A
19 A 49 C 79 A 109 B 139 B
20 A 50 C 80 C 110 B 140 B
21 C 51 C 81 A 111 B 141 A
22 D 52 C 82 C 112 B 142 C
23 C 53 D 83 C 113 B 143 B
24 B 54 A 84 A 114 B 144 B
25 D 55 A 85 D 115 A 145 C
26 A 56 B 86 B 116 D 146 C
27 C 57 A 87 C 117 C 147 A
28 B 58 B 88 C 118 B 148 D
29 D 59 C 89 C 119 A 149 A
30 B 60 D 90 C 120 C 150 B