CUSAT CAT 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Forensic Science

625 MSc FORENSIC SCIENCE
(FINAL)

1. Which one of the following pairs represent units of the same physical quantity?
(A) Kelvin and Joule
(B) Newton and Calorie
(C) Kelvin and Calorie
(D) Joule and Calorie

2. A force = ̂ − 2 ̂ + 3 acting on a body produces a displacement =2̂+3 ̂+4 .
The work done then is
(A) 16 units
(B) 8 units
(C) 32 units
(D) Zero

3. Planck’s constant has the same dimension as

(A) Force × Time
(B) Force × Distance
(C) Force × Speed
(D) Force × Distance × Time

4. The force (F) experienced by a charge q situated in an
electric field of strength (E) is given

(A) F = qE

(B) F = q2 E
E
(C) F=
q

(D)
kE 2
F=
8π

5. The momentum carried by a photon of energy 1 MeV will be

(A) 5 × 10−22 kg m/s

(B) 0.33 × 106 kg m/s

(C) 7 × 10−24 kg m/s

(D) 10−22 kg m/s

6. The de-Broglie wavelength of a moving particle of mass m and energy E is

(A) 2mE
h
(B)
2mE
h
(C)
2mET
h
(D)
mE

7. Diffraction of electrons was demonstrated by

(A) Davidson and Germer’s experiment
(B) Michelson-Morley experiment
(C) Stern and Gerlach experiment
(D) Frank-Hertz experiment

8. Two wave functions ψ m ( x) and ψ n ( x) are said to be orthogonal if

(A) ∫ψ m ( x)ψ n ( x)dx = 0
*
(B) ∫ψ m ( x)ψ n ( x)dx = 0
(C) ∫ψ m ( x)ψ n ( x)dx = 1
*
(D) ∫ψ m ( x)ψ n ( x)dx = 1

9. Dirac’s relativistic theory predicts the existence of

(A) proton
(B) neutrino
(C) positron
(D) electron

10. The change in frequency due to Doppler Effect does not depend on

(A) the speed of the source
(B) the speed of the observer
(C) the frequency of the source
(D) the separation between the source and the observer

11. For a perfect black body, the absorptive power is

(A) 0
(B) ∞
(C) 1
(D) 0.5

12. In Rayleigh scattering of light, the intensity of the scattered light is proportional to

1
(A)
λ4
1
(B)
λ2
(C) λ2
3
(D) λ

13. Two monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are

(A) 5I and I
(B) 5I and 3I
(C) 9I and I
(D) 9I and 3I

14. A superconductor is a material

(A) with zero resistance
(B) with zero resistance and exhibits perfect diamagnetism
(C) which shows perfect diamagnetism
(D) which is ceramic in nature

15. A diamagnetic substance has

(A) spontaneous magnetization in the absence of applied magnetic field
(B) a negative magnetic susceptibility
(C) a temperature dependent magnetic susceptibility
(D) a net magnetization when applied field H = 0

16. In an intrinsic semiconductor, if the energy gap is 0.7 eV,
the Fermi level will have an energy of

(A) 1.4 eV
(B) 1.1 eV
(C) 0.35 eV
(D) 0.1 eV

17. If I o is the peak value of the alternating current,
then its root mean square (rms) value is given by

(A) 0.637 I o

(B) 0.707 I o
Io
(C)
π
(D) I o2

18. The circuit element used to produce a steady dc voltage from
the rectified ac voltage is called a

(A) transformer
(B) filter
(C) modulator
(D) capacitor

19. The efficiency of the Carnot’s engine working between
the steam point and ice point would be

(A) Zero
(B) 100%
(C) 50%
(D) 26.8%

20. If the latent heat of ice is 80 cal/gm, the increase in entropy when 1 gm of ice at 0°C is
converted into water at 0°C

(A) 0.29 cal/gm
(B) Zero
(C) 273 cal/gm
(D) 80 cal/gm

21. One Curie (unit of radioactivity) is equal to
10
(A) 3.7 × 10 disintegrations per second

(B) 3 × 107 disintegrations per second

(C) 3 × 1010 disintegrations per second

(D) 3.7 × 107 disintegrations per second

22. If r is the radius of the nucleus and A is the atomic weight (mass number), then

(A) r is proportional to A1 3

(B) r is proportional to A1 2
A
(C) r is proportional to
3
(D) r is inversely proportional to A1 3

−13
23. If the radius of the nucleus is of the order of 10 cm and the mass of the nucleus is
−24
of the order of 10 gm, then the density of the nuclear matter is of the order of

(A) 108 gm/cc

(B) 1020 gm/cc

(C) 1014 gm/cc

(D) 1012 gm/cc

24. The mass of the neutron is

(A) same as the mass of the proton
(B) slightly lesser than the mass of the proton
(C) slightly greater than the mass of the proton
(D) less than the mass of the electron

25. The penetrating powers of α, β and γ radiation in decreasing order are

(A) γ, α, β
(B) γ, β, α
(C) α , β, γ
(D) β, γ, α

26. The essential requirement for a molecule to give rise to rotational
Raman spectrum is that

(A) The molecule must have a permanent electric dipole moment
(B) The molecule must have a center of symmetry
(C) The molecule must have an anisotropic polarizability
(D) The molecule must be in gaseous form only

27. Which one of the following nuclei CANNOT be studied by Nuclear Magnetic
Resonance (NMR) Spectroscopy?
1
(A) H

(B) 14N

(C) 7Li

(D) 12C

28. The quadrupole moment of a nucleus has its origin in

(A) Electrostatic interaction of the nucleus with its environment
(B) Spherically symmetric distribution of nuclear charge in the nuclear volume
(C) Interaction of the nucleus with external magnetic field
(D) Non spherically symmetric distribution of nuclear charge in the nuclear volume

29. The output of the Ruby laser is a

(A) pulsed wave
(B) continuous wave
(C) saw tooth wave
(D) triangular wave

30. The particles obeying Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics are

(A) Identical and indistinguishable
(B) Identical but distinguishable
(C) Photons
(D) Fermions

31. In 1.5 years half of 128 mg of radioactive isotope decays.
The amount present, after 6 years is
(A) 2 mg
(B) 4 mg
(C) 8 mg
(D) 16 mg

32. The number of radial nodes in 3p orbitals are

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

33. The nature of the bond between H and Cl in hydrogen chloride is

(A) covalent bond
(B) ionic bond
(C) co-ordinate bond
(D) covalent in gaseous state and ionic in solution

34. The cathode used in polaragraphy

(A) DME
(B) Hg pool
(C) Pt electrode
(D) Zinc electrode

35. The bond order of nitrogen molecule is

(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 3.5

36. DMSO is……………….. solvent.

(A) non-polar
(B) protic
(C) polar protic
(D) dipolar aprotic

37. Which of the following is a secondary cell?

(A) Leclanche cell
(B) Lead storage battery
(C) Concentration cell
(D) Fuel cell

38. During the decomposition of H2O2 to give dioxygen, 48 g O2 is formed per minute at
a certain point of time. The rate of formation of water at this point is

(A) 0.75 mol min−11
(B) 1.5 mol min−1
−11
(C) 2.25 mol min
−1
(D) 3.0 mol min

39. The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of the diamond is

(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 4

40. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure the coordination number of
2+ −
Ca ion and F ion are

(A) 4 and 2
(B) 6 and 6
(C) 8 and 4
(D) 4 and 8

41. The IUPAC name of the compound is

(A) 2-oxobutanoic
oxobutanoic acid
(B) 3-oxobutanoic
oxobutanoic acid
(C) 3-oxo-2-propanoic
propanoic acid
(D) 2-oxopropan-1--oic acid

42. Which among the following aminoacids will give yellow colour in Ninhydrin test?

(A) Proline
(B) Histidine
(C) Cystine
(D) Serine

43. Baeyer Villiger rearrangement of benzophenone will give

(A) phenyl benzoate
(B) diphenyl carbinol
(C) benzil
(D) 2-phenylphenol

44. The rearrangement involved in Arndt Eistert synthesis is

(A) Lossen rearrangement
(B) Curtius rearrangement
(C) Wolff rearrangement
(D) Wagner Meerwin rearrangement

45. Which of the following undergoes SN1 solvolysis at a faster rate in 60% ethanol?

(A) Bromomethane
(B) Bromoethane
(C) 2-Bromopropane
(D) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane

46. Which of the following compounds has the highest pKa value in water?

(A) HCOOH
(B) CH3CH2COOH
(C) (CH3)3CCOOH
(D) ClCH2COOH

47. Which of the following reagents is commonly used for peptide bond formation?

(A) DCC
(B) DDQ
(C) LDA
(D) SeO2

48. The synthetic equivalent for phenyl anion is

(A) PhBr
(B) PhN2Cl
(C) PhMgBr
(D) PhNO2

49. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) Nicotine is an alkaloid
(B) Nicotine is a terpenoid
(C) Nicotine is a steroid
(D) Nicotine is a protein

50. How many primary hydroxyl groups does glucose have?

(A) 5
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 4

51. A compound with the molecular formula C5H12O cannot be

(A) a primary alcohol
(B) an ether
(C) a secondary alcohol
(D) a ketone

52. Which one is inorganic benzene?

(A) B3N3H6
(B) B2H6
(C) B2H4
(D) B2H10

53. Among the following which has the lowest electronegativity?

(A) C
(B) Cs
(C) Be
(D) Zn

54. The shape of XeF4 is

(A) tetrahedral
(B) square planar
(C) pyramidal
(D) linear

55. Most abundant element in earth’s crust is

(A) Si
(B) Al
(C) Zn
(D) Fe

2+
56. The magnetic moment of Mn ion is

(A) 5.92 BM
(B) 2.80 BM
(C) 8.95 BM
(D) 3.90 BM

57. Copper acetate monohydrate dimer is

(A) ferromagnetic
(B) ferrimagnetic
(C) antiferromagnetic
(D) diamagnetic

58. Frenkel defect is shown by which of the following solids?

(A) NaCl
(B) KBr
(C) AgBr
(D) FeO

59. The d orbitals split in a square planar complex as
2 2 2
(A) dx − y > dxy > dz > dxz = dyz
(B) dx2 − y2 > dxy > dxz = dyz > dz2
(C) dxy > dx2 − y2 > dxz = dyz > dz2
2 2 2
(D) dxy = dx − y > dxz = dyz > dz

2−
60. The crystal field stabilization energy of the complex, [COCl4] is

(A) 12 Dq
(B) 8 Dq
(C) 12 Dq + 2p
(D) 6 Dq + p

61. The intestinal villi are mostly present in abundance in the
(A) Duodenum
(B) Ileum
(C) Jejunum
(D) Large Intestine

62. What is the tidal volume of respiration?
(A) 3,000 ml
(B) 1,100 ml
(C) 500 ml
(D) 1,200 ml

63. Henle’s loop lies in the

(A) Kidney
(B) Renal Medulla
(C) Renal Cortex
(D) Renal column of Bertini

64. The Reflex centre controlling the musculature of the body is

(A) Cerebellum
(B) Spinal cord
(C) Frontal lobe
(D) Basal Ganglia

65. Which hormone is responsible for ovulation?

(A) FSH
(B) LTH
(C) LH
(D) Progesterone

66. Which of the following is a muscular tube as far as male
reproductive system of man is concerned?

(A) Seminiferous tube
(B) Epididymis
(C) Corpus cavernosum
(D) Vas deferens

67. Colour blind people cannot distinguish between

(A) Red and Blue
(B) Red and Grey
(C) Red and Yellow
(D) Red and Green

68. The unique process in Oogenesis is

(A) Production of haploid nucleus
(B) Production of mature gamete
(C) Acquisition of food reserves
(D) Formation of spermatid

69. The main contributors of acid rain are

(A) Sulphur oxides and carbon oxides
(B) Nitrogen oxides and sulphur oxides
(C) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
(D) Carbon and nitrogen oxides

70. Filaria is caused by the infections of

(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Wuchereria bancrofti
(C) Trypanosoma gambiense
(D) Entamoeba histolytica

71. Which of the following cell organelle is involved in the breakdown of organic matter?

(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Golgi bodies

72. Flagellated cells, which line the spongocoel in poriferans are known as

(A) Ostia
(B) Mesenchymal cells
(C) Choanocytes
(D) Oscula

73. A characteristic feature, which is present only in the phylum Coelenterata, is

(A) Nematocytes
(B) Flame cells
(C) Hermaphroditism
(D) Polymorphism

74. The swollen bottom part of the carpel of a flower is called as

(A) Ovary
(B) Style
(C) Stigma
(D) Anther

75. Which of the following plants can survive in extreme saline conditions?

(A) Epiphytes
(B) Halophytes
(C) Xenophytes
(D) Hydrophytes

76. Which of the following is NOT a component of chlorophyll?

(A) Calcium
(B) Carbon
(C) Magnesium
(D) Hydrogen

77. The food conducting tissue of plants is

(A) Phloem
(B) Xylem
(C) Collenchyma
(D) Parenchyma

78. Organisms having multiple genomes over their basic number are called

(A) Euploids
(B) Aneuploids
(C) Haploids
(D) Polyploids

79. The sequential phase of cell cycle is

(A) S G1 G2 M
(B) G1 S G2 M
(C) G1 G2 S M D
(D) M G1 S G2

80. The most active phase in cell division is

(A) Prophase
(B) Anaphase
(C) Metaphase
(D) Telophase

81. Which of the following is cytosolic nucleic acid?

(A) m-RNA
(B) r-RNA
(C) t-RNA
(D) DNA

82. VAM fungi are used to supply which of the following for plant growth?

(A) Phosphorus
(B) Potassium
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Magnesium

83. The term Epicalyx refers to the whorl of

(A) Sepals
(B) Petals
(C) Stamens
(D) Bracteoles

84. The heart of cockroach is

(A) 13 chambered
(B) Single chambered
(C) 10 chambered
(D) 7 chambered

85. Number of chromosomes in Down’s syndrome is

(A) 46
(B) 47
(C) 48
(D) 49

86. Study of ageing is known as

(A) Palynology
(B) Gerontology
(C) Genetics
(D) Speraelogy

87. Mesozoic era was dominated by

(A) Reptiles
(B) Birds
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals

88. Which one of the following is NOT a living fossil?

(A) Peripatus
(B) King crab
(C) Sphenondon
(D) Archeopteryx

89. The lifespan of RBC is

(A) 12 days
(B) 120 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 150 days

90. The infective stage of Plasmodium to man is

(A) Merozoite
(B) Schizont
(C) Sporozoite
(D) Trophozoite

91. Which is followed to maintain and document the chronological history of
the evidence?

(A) Chain of custody
(B) Documentation
(C) Videography
(D) Photo log

92. Which of the following poisons produces Cherry-red colour on dead body?

(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Cyanide
(C) Pesticide
(D) Both (A) and (B)

93. Name the animal anesthetic widely being abused as a narcotic drug

(A) MDMA
(B) Ketamine
(C) Amphetamine
(D) LSD

94. According to Locard’s principle which of the following is correct?

(A) Similar objects can be compared
(B) Every object changes with the passage of time
(C) Every contact leaves some trace
(D) Every object is unique

95. Crystals produced in Teichmann test are

(A) Brown feathery
(B) Brown rhombic
(C) Red feathery
(D) Red rhombic

96. Name a very strong protein which resists the decomposition of hair

(A) Melanin
(B) Keratin
(C) Gelatin
(D) Fibroin

97. A study of characteristics of different people and their relationships is

(A) Ethnology
(B) Ecology
(C) Monospecific
(D) Monoecious

98. Radioactivity of a substance is measured by

(A) TCD detector
(B) MCT detector
(C) EC detector
(D) Geiger Muller counter

99. ‘Joule Burn’ is associated with

(A) Arson
(B) Fire occurrence
(C) Electrocution
(D) Asphyxia

100. The technique, which separates the mixture into its components is

(A) Chromatography
(B) Immunoassay
(C) Micro diffusion test
(D) Spectroscopy

101. Double helical model of DNA was elucidated by

(A) Alec Jeffrey
(B) Edmond Locard
(C) William Herschel
(D) Watson and Crick

102. Preservation of foot print on snow is done by

(A) Paster of Paris cast
(B) Sulphur cast
(C) Mud cast
(D) Wax cast

103. Lower case, joined, running handwriting is known as

(A) Cursive
(B) Disconnected
(C) Graphic
(D) Script

104. Main component of MERMER (Memory and Encoding Related Multifaceted
Electroencephalographic Response) is

(A) P 150
(B) P 300
(C) P 450
(D) P 600

105. Bullets which are designed to expand on impact is called

(A) Dum Dum bullet
(B) Richochet bullet
(C) Souvenier bullet
(D) Piggy back bullet

106. Luminol test is used to detect

(A) Gun powder residues
(B) Latent finger prints
(C) Seminal stains
(D) Blood stains

107. Drug used in Narco-analysis is

(A) Barium sulphate
(B) Magnesium bircarbonate
(C) Potassium sulphate
(D) Sodium amytal

108. Hacking is defined under

(A) Section 66 Indian IT Act 2000
(B) Section 70 Indian IT Act 2000
(C) Section 75 Indian IT Act 2000
(D) Section 86 Indian IT Act 2000

109. ……………….. refers to sending email to thousands and thousands of users similar to
a chain letter

(A) Trojan attack
(B) Email spoofing
(C) Email bombing
(D) Email spamming

110. Act of determining whether a particular user or a computer system has the right to
carry out certain activity is

(A) authentication
(B) authorization
(C) non-repudiation
(D) None of the above

111. The branch of forensic which uses insects as evidence to
help reconstruct the circumstances

(A) Forensic chemistry
(B) Forensic entomology
(C) Forensic odontology
(D) Forensic toxicology

112. Widmark’s formula is used for measurement of blood levels of

(A) alcohol
(B) arsenic
(C) barbiturates
(D) benzodiazepines

113. Latent fingerprints can be detected by

(A) Benzidine test
(B) Brentamine fast blue test
(C) Isoenzyme marker
(D) Ninhydrin reagent

114. Faeces stains are identified by odour, presence of indigested matter,
vegetable fibres and

(A) stercobilin
(B) choline iodide
(C) spermine picrate
(D) hemochromogen

115. Dermal nitrate test is used to detect

(A) gun powder residues
(B) latent finger prints
(C) seminal stains
(D) old blood stains

116. The science of writing or solving codes is

(A) Calligraphy
(B) Cryptography
(C) Steganography
(D) Seismography

117. Anthropology as a system of identification was developed by

(A) Alphonse Bertillon
(B) Orfila
(C) William West
(D) Maples

118. Choose from the following, the commonest preservative used for viscera in all cases
of poisoning including carbolic acid poisoning

(A) Ethylene glycol
(B) Formalin
(C) Cresol
(D) Saturated solution of sodium chloride

119. Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by following chromosomal pattern

(A) XXY
(B) XO
(C) XXX
(D) XYY

120. If both mother and father are AB blood group then child can never be

(A) A
(B) B
(C) AB
(D) O

121. Decision Support Systems (DSS) is
(A) A family of relational database management systems marketed by IBM
(B) Interactive systems that enable decision makers to use databases and models on
a computer in order to solve ill-structured problems
(C) It consists of nodes and branches starting from a single root node. Each node
represents a test, or decision
(D) None of the above

122. Which of the following are procedural languages?
(A) Pascal
(B) Smalltalk
(C) C
(D) Both (A) and (C)

123. Which of the following is a type of non-impact printer?
(A) Daisy Wheel Printer
(B) Dot Matrix Printer
(C) Both Dot Matrix Printer and Daisy Wheel Printer
(D) Laser printer

124. Roman number system is a
(A) Positional number system
(B) Non-positional number system
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

125. The time required to move the disk head to the desired track is known as

(A) Access Time
(B) Latency Time
(C) Seek Time
(D) Track Time

126. Which of the following is an attribute that can uniquely identify a row in a table?

(A) Secondary key
(B) Candidate key
(C) Foreign key
(D) None of the above

127. Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not include

(A) training scenario
(B) type of feedback
(C) good data structures
(D) learning algorithm

128. Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding “Cookies”?

(A) Cookies are programs which run in the background of web-client
(B) Cookies have the potential of being used to violate the privacy of users
(C) Cookies cannot contain more than 4Kb of data
(D) Cookies usually contain data in the form of name = value pairs

129. When trying to access a URL, the following message is displayed on the browser:

Server; Error 403

What could be the reason for the massage?

(A) The requested HTML file is not available
(B) The path to the interpreter of the script file is invalid
(C) The first line of the output form the script is not a valid HTTP header
(D) The requested HTML file or CGI script has insufficient permission

130. Which of the following is the collection of data objects that are similar to one another
within the same group?

(A) Partitioning
(B) Grid
(C) Cluster
(D) Table

131. ……………….. supports characters for all known languages.

(A) ASCII
(B) EBCDIC
(C) UNICODE
(D) GRAYCODE

132. The registers found in the processor unit are

(A) Operational Registers
(B) Memory Registers
(C) Storage Registers
(D) Binary Registers

133. System Software usually includes a program called a ……………….., which helps
the programmer to find errors in a program.

(A) Write Buffer
(B) Read Buffer
(C) Debugger
(D) Both (A) and (C)

134. Cache memory enhances

(A) Memory Capacity
(B) Memory Access Time
(C) Secondary Storage Access Time
(D) Data Transfer Time

135. What is the purpose of RAID system?

(A) It increases the processor speed
(B) It increases operating system efficiency
(C) It increases the disk storage capacity and availability
(D) It decreases operating system efficiency

136. What is the units for measuring the CPU performance?

(A) BPS
(B) MIPS
(C) MHz
(D) MFLOP

137. 'OS' computer abbreviation usually means?
(A) Order of Significance
(B) Open Software
(C) Operating System
(D) Optical Sensor

138. '.MOV' extension refers usually to what kind of file?
(A) Image file
(B) Animation/movie file
(C) Audio file
(D) MS Office document

139. What is a URL?

(A) A computer software program
(B) A type of UFO
(C) The address of a document or "page" on the World Wide Web - Uniform
Resource Locator
(D) An acronym for Uniform Resources Learning

140. What do we call a collection of two or more computers that are located
within a limited distance of each other and that are connected to each
other directly or indirectly?

(A) Internet
(B) Intranet
(C) Local Area Network
(D) Wide Area Network

141. Which of the following is NOT a computer language?

(A) Windows 10
(B) JAVA
(C) PYTHON
(D) C++

142. Which one of the following manages both current and historic transactions?

(A) Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)
(B) Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
(C) Spread Sheet
(D) Extensible Markup Language (XML)

143. Which of the following is a valid e-mail address?

(A) support.at.objectivebooks
(B) www.objectivebooks.com
(C) [email protected]
(D) support@objectivebooks

144. Expansion of SMTP is

(A) Single Mail Transfer Protocol
(B) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
(C) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
(D) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

145. The speed of the net access is defined in terms of

(A) RAM
(B) MHz
(C) Kbps
(D) Megabytes

146. Identify the 2’s complement of 101010101.

(A) 010101010
(B) 010101000
(C) 010101011
(D) 110101011

147. What's a web browser?

(A) A kind of spider
(B) A computer that stores WWW files
(C) A person who likes to look at websites
(D) A software program that allows you to access sites on the World Wide Web

148. RAM stands for

(A) Readly Access Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Random Accent Memory
(D) Read Access Memory

149. Which of the following is a search engine?

(A) FTP
(B) Google
(C) Netscape
(D) ARPANET

150. How many bits is a byte?

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 625 MSc FORENSIC SCIENCE
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 D 31 C 61 B 91 A 121 B
2 B 32 A 62 C 92 D 122 D
3 D 33 A 63 B 93 B 123 D
4 A 34 A 64 C 94 C 124 B
5 A 35 C 65 C 95 B 125 C
6 B 36 D 66 D 96 B 126 B
7 A 37 B 67 D 97 A 127 C
8 B 38 D 68 C 98 D 128 A
9 D 39 A 69 B 99 C 129 D
10 D 40 C 70 B 100 A 130 C
11 C 41 A 71 A 101 D 131 C
12 A 42 A 72 C 102 B 132 A
13 C 43 A 73 A 103 A 133 C
14 B 44 C 74 A 104 B 134 B
15 B 45 D 75 B 105 A 135 C
16 C 46 C 76 A 106 D 136 C
17 B 47 A 77 A 107 D 137 C
18 B 48 C 78 D 108 A 138 B
19 D 49 A 79 B 109 D 139 C
20 A 50 C 80 A 110 B 140 C
21 A 51 D 81 C 111 B 141 A
22 A 52 A 82 A 112 A 142 A
23 A 53 B 83 D 113 D 143 C
24 C 54 B 84 A 114 A 144 D
25 B 55 A 85 B 115 A 145 C
26 C 56 A 86 B 116 B 146 C
27 D 57 C 87 A 117 A 147 D
28 D 58 C 88 D 118 D 148 B
29 A 59 A 89 B 119 A 149 B
30 B 60 A 90 C 120 D 150 B