CUSAT CAT 2022 Question Paper M.Voc Technology and Management Consulting

622 - M VOC TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT CONSULTING
(FINAL)

1. What is the value of three-seventh of 35 percent of 420?
(A) 52
(B) 65
(C) 63
(D) 56

2. The total cost of the 12 kg of rice is Rs. 432 and the total cost of the 15 kg of pulse is
Rs. 675. What is the ratio between the cost of the 2 kg of pulse and one kg of rice
respectively?
(A) 8:7
(B) 7:5
(C) 8:5
(D) 5:2

3. Tina sold an item for Rs. 1500 at a profit of 25%. At what cost will she have to sell it
to get a profit of 45%?

(A) 1740
(B) 1704
(C) 1750
(D) 1760

4. The compound interest on a sum at a certain rate of interest for two years is Rs. 5520.
If the same sum is lent at the same rate of simple interest, then the interest for three
years is Rs. 7200. Find the rate of interest.

(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 32%
(D) 30%

5. The sum of the digits in a two-digit number is 9. When the digits are interchanged the
number is increased by 9. Find the number.

(A) 36
(B) 54
(C) 45
(D) 63

6. The least number which when divided by 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 leaves the remainder 1 in
each case. If the same number is divided by 7, it leaves no remainder. The number is

(A) 371
(B) 231
(C) 441
(D) 301

7. ( 2 ) and if 1 is added to the
If 1 is added to the denominator of a fraction, it becomes 1
numerator, the fraction becomes 1. The fraction is

(A) 1
4

(B) 2
3

(C) 7
10

(D) 5
8

8. Which of the following number replaces the question mark?

7 8 18 57 ? 1165

(A) 212
(B) 232
(C) 217
(D) 247

9. Which of the following options will replace the question mark?

3.9 5.1 7.5 11.1 ? 21.9

(A) 15.4
(B) 16.1
(C) 15.9
(D) 14.8

10. Which of the following options will replace the question mark?
2 2 3
( 5 − 6 ) + ( 3 + 10 ) = (?) − 40

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 3

11. Which of the following options will replace the question mark?

24 × 114 ÷ 19 − ? = 312 ÷ 13

(A) 120
(B) 122
(C) 130
(D) 124

12. Which of the following options will replace the question mark?

(564% of 212) ÷ 394 = ?

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 12

13. The H.C.F of three numbers is 12. If the three numbers are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3,
the numbers are

(A) 14, 28, 42
(B) 15, 30, 45
(C) 12, 24, 36
(D) 24, 48, 72

14. If the total cost of four tube lights and three bulbs is Rs. 260 and the ratio between the
cost of a tube light and a bulb is 5 : 2 respectively, what is the total cost of one tube
light and six bulbs?

(A) 210
(B) 180
(C) 130
(D) 170

15. If x = 3 – a and y = 4a + 13, then for what value of a, x and y are equal?

(A) −4
(B) −7
(C) −5
(D) −2

16. If 15% of x = 20% of y,
y then x : y is

(A) 4:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 16 : 17
(D) 17 : 16

17. For what value of K,, the system of equations Kx + 2y = 2 and 3x + y = 1
will be coincident?

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6

18. In the figure given, find the value of x.

(A) 60°
(B) 36°
(C) 40°
(D) 130°

2 5
19. Find the sum and product of the roots of the equation − +2=0
x2 x

(A) 3 ,2
4

(B) 5 ,1
2

(C) 1 , −2
4

(D) 2 , −1
3

20. A radio is listed at Rs. 500 with a discount of 10%. What additional discount must be
offered to the customer to bring the net price to Rs. 423?

(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 11%
(D) 6%

21. If the AM and GM of two numbers are 13 and 12 respectively, find the numbers.

(A) 12, 12
(B) 36, 4
(C) 16, 9
(D) 8, 18

22. Find the values of x and y, if (x + y), (2x + 1), (3x – 1) are in AP and
x, xy and (3x + 10y) are in GP.

(A) 5, 3
(B) 5, 2
(C) 3, 2
(D) 3, 4

23. If tan (A + B) = 3 and tan B = 1, (A and B are acute angles) find the value of A

(A) 30°
(B) 15°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°

24. What value will be obtained if the square of 22 is subtracted from the cube of 12?

(A) 1344
(B) 1244
(C) 1454
(D) 1354

25. Manisha runs 435 m every day. In how many days will she cover 5.22 km?

(A) 18
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 24

26. A man walks 30 km towards East, then turning to right he walks 30 km. Then turning
to his left, he again walks 20 km. Again, turning to his left, he walks 30 km. How far
is he from his starting point?

(A) 60 km
(B) 50 km
(C) 100 km
(D) 80 km

27. A kite is flying at a height of 60 m above the level ground. The inclination of the
string with the ground is 60°. Find the length of the string.

(A) 20 3
(B) 18 3
(C) 36 3
(D) 40 3

28. What is the compound interest on Rs. 2500 for 2 years at
rate of interest 4% per annum?
(A) Rs. 180
(B) Rs. 204
(C) Rs. 210
(D) Rs. 220

29. A mother is twice as old as her son. If 20 years ago, the age of the mother was
10 times the age of the son, what is the present age of the mother?

(A) 38 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 43 years
(D) 45 years

30. The speed of a boat in still water is 5 km/hr. If the speed of the boat against the stream
is 3 km/hr, what is the speed of the stream?

(A) 1.5 km/hr
(B) 2 km/hr
(C) 2.5 km/hr
(D) 1 km/hr

31. Complete the series:

2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ……

(A) 76
(B) 74
(C) 75
(D) 72

32. Find the odd man out.

1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 196, 216, 343

(A) 196
(B) 1
(C) 64
(D) 216

33. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in
27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds.
The ratio of their speeds is

(A) 1:3
(B) 3:2
(C) 3:4
(D) 4:3

34. Which one of the following is NOT a prime number?

(A) 31
(B) 61
(C) 71
(D) 91

35. If January 1, 1996, was Monday, what day of the week was January 1, 1997?

(A) Thursday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Friday
(D) Sunday

36. A man can row a boat at a speed of 20 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream
is 5 km/hr, in what time he can row a distance of 75 km downstream?

(A) 1.5 hours
(B) 2 hours
(C) 2.5 hours
(D) 3 hours

37. An accurate clock indicates 8 O' clock in the morning. Through how many degrees
the hour hand turns when the clock indicates 3 O' clock in the afternoon?

(A) 210°
(B) 200°
(C) 190°
(D) 185°

38. How much time will take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at
4.5% per annum of simple interest?

(A) 4 years
(B) 2.5 years
(C) 3.5 years
(D) 2 years

39. If 0.75 : x :: 5 : 8, then x is equal to

(A) 1.12
(B) 1.16
(C) 1.20
(D) 1.30

2 6
40. A tank is full. If 16 litres of water is added to the tank, it becomes full.
5 7
The capacity of the tank is

(A) 28 litres
(B) 32 litres
(C) 35 litres
(D) 42 litres

41. Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is

5
(A)
12
1
(B)
6
1
(C)
2
7
(D)
9

42. A rectangular block 6 cm by 12 cm by 15 cm is cut up into an exact number of equal
cubes. Find the least possible number of cubes.

(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 10
(D) 20

43. A shopping mall has a rectangle shaped children’s play area. The play area measures
30 m × 20 m. Laying of tiles would cost Rs. 60 per sq.m. Find the total cost.

(A) Rs. 54000
(B) Rs. 24000
(C) Rs. 76367.4
(D) Rs. 36000

44. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and
2 vowels can be formed?

(A) 24400
(B) 21300
(C) 210
(D) 25200

45. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in
such a way that the vowels always come together?

(A) 720
(B) 520
(C) 700
(D) 750

46. If the tenth day of a month is three days earlier than Sunday, what day will be on the
second day of that month?

(A) Tuesday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday

47. If symbol "@" means ×, "&" means +, "#" means / and "$" means −, then
10 & 15 @ 20 # 5 $ 10

(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 70
(D) 80

48. In 10 years, Alok will be twice as old as Babul was 10 years ago. If Alok is now
9 years older than Babul, the present age of Babul is

(A) 19
(B) 29
(C) 39
(D) 49

49. In an examination, a pupil’s average mark for different papers was 63. If he had
obtained 20 more marks for his Geography paper and 2 more marks for his
History paper, his average mark would have been 65. How many papers were
there in the examination?

(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13

50. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘VIRTUAL’ be arranged
among themselves?

(A) 2520
(B) 3080
(C) 5040
(D) 4930

Directions: Answer the given questions from the following table.

The number of employees who joined five companies during five years.

Company
Year
P Q R S T
2014 176 187 289 133 160
2015 213 204 283 156 177
2016 255 132 242 171 189
2017 123 139 189 185 234
2018 165 219 137 141 188

51. The number of employees who joined company R in 2016 is what percent more than
the total number of employees who joined company T in 2014?

(A) 48 ½
(B) 55 ¾
(C) 52 ¼
(D) 51 ¼

52. What is the difference between the total number of employees who joined company Q
in 2015 and 2018 together and the total number of employees who joined company S
in 2014 and 2016 together?

(A) 119
(B) 133
(C) 127
(D) 113

53. What is the average number of employees who joined all the given
companies in 2017?

(A) 182
(B) 174
(C) 168
(D) 178

54. The total number of employees who joined all the given companies together in 2019
was 12% more than the total number of employees who joined all the given
companies together in 2018. What was the total number of employees who joined all
the given companies in 2019?

(A) 952
(B) 978
(C) 948
(D) 962

55. What is the ratio of the total number of employees who joined company P in 2015 and
2016 together to the total number of employees who joined company R in 2014 and
2015 together?

(A) 9 : 13
(B) 9 : 11
(C) 9 : 14
(D) 7 : 11

Directions: Study the following pie-chart carefully and answer the questions based on
the chart.

Total number of employees-12600

Percentage wise distribution of employees

56. The number of employees in the Marketing department is approximately what percent
more than the number of employees in Purchase department?

(A) 29
(B) 39
(C) 19
(D) 69

57. The number of employees in Purchase department is approximately what percentage
of the total number of employees in the department of HR and Marketing together?

(A) 65
(B) 51
(C) 55
(D) 61

58. If 30 percent of the number of employees of Research department is females, then
what is the number of male employees in the Research department?

(A) 1343
(B) 1232
(C) 1323
(D) 1242

59. What is the average number of employees in Accounts, Production and Research
department together?

(A) 1722
(B) 1784
(C) 1742
(D) 1786

60. What is the difference between the total number of employees in the department of
HR and Production together and the total number of employees in Accounts and
Purchase department together?

(A) 2644
(B) 2286
(C) 2464
(D) 2268

Directions: Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

61. What was the percentage increase in number of sick units from 2001 to 2003?

(A) 152
(B) 167
(C) 150
(D) 142

62. What was the difference in bank credit between 2001 and 2002?

(A) Rs. 5 crore
(B) Rs. 50 crore
(C) Rs. 500 crore
(D) Rs. 50 lakh

63. If the bank credit is reduced to half in the year 2001, what will be the approximate
bank credit per sick unit?

(A) Rs. 3 lakh
(B) Rs. 4 lakh
(C) Rs. 30 lakh
(D) Rs. 3 crore

64. In which year was the bank credit per sick unit the maximum?

(A) 2000
(B) 2001
(C) 2002
(D) 2003

65. In 2003, what was the total bank credit per sick unit approximately?

(A) Rs. 32 crore
(B) Rs. 71 crore
(C) Rs. 71 lakh
(D) Rs. 4 lakh

66. Mital is standing facing towards the West. He turns 45° clockwise, then he
turns 180° in the same direction and finally he turns 270° anticlockwise.
In which direction is he facing now?

(A) West
(B) South-West
(C) South
(D) North-west

Directions: Each question is based upon the following Venn diagram.

67. Which subject has been taken by most of the students?

(A) Geography
(B) Science
(C) Mathematics
(D) History

68. The number of total students who have taken either
History or Mathematics or Science

(A) 324
(B) 230
(C) 190
(D) 183

69. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

gorblflur means fan belt
pixngorbl means ceiling fan
arthtusl means tile roof

Which word could mean "ceiling tile"?

(A) gorbltusl
(B) flurgorbl
(C) arthflur
(D) pixnarth

70. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

moolokarn means blue sky
wilkospadi means bicycle race
moolowilko means blue bicycle

Which word could mean "racecar"?

(A) wilkozwet
(B) spadiwilko
(C) moolobreil
(D) spadivolo

71. Direction: In the question below, a statement followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II is given. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the
suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement: The Asian Development Bank has approved a $285 million loan to
finance a project to construct coal ports by Paradip and Madras Port
Trusts.
Courses of Action:
I. India should use financial assistance from other international financial
organizations to develop such ports in other places.
II. India should not seek such financial assistance from the international financial
agencies.

(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows

72. Direction: Read the paragraph carefully and determine the main point the author is
trying to make. What conclusion can be drawn from the argument? The paragraph is
followed by four statements. One statement supports the author's argument better than
the others do.

In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-fat ice
cream. But that isn't the case today. An increasing health consciousness combined
with a much bigger selection of tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made low-fat
ice cream, a very profitable item for ice cream store owners.
This paragraph best supports the statement that

(A) low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods
(B) ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream
(C) ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular
item
(D) consumers are fickle and it is impossible to please them

73. Find the missing word:

ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ……………….., MLNA

(A) OLPA
(B) KLMA
(C) LLMA
(D) KLLA

74. Direction: In the following question, various terms of an alphabet series are given
with terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given
alternatives.

A, B, N, C, D, O, E, F, P, ?, ?, ?

(A) G, H, I
(B) G, H, J
(C) G, H, Q
(D) J, K, L

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The given pie chart shows the data regarding the percentage distribution of the number of
people affected by floods in five different districts in Kerala. Total number of people affected
in the given 5 districts is 24500.

Total people affected (in each district) = Males + Females

Percentage distribution of number of people affected by floods

75. Find the average of number of people affected by flood in Alappuzha, Pathanamthitta,
and Idukki districts.

(A) 3,920
(B) 4,410
(C) 5,390
(D) 5,880

76. If the ratio of males to females affected by flood in Ernakulam and Pathanamthitta is
same, that is 4:3 respectively, then the number of females affected by flood in
Ernakulam is what percentage more or less than the number of females affected by
flood in Pathanamthitta?

(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%

77. Find the difference between the average of number of people affected by flood in
Alappuzha and Ernakulam districts taken together and average of number of people
affected by flood in Pathanamthitta and Idukki districts taken together.

(A) 575
(B) 645
(C) 735
(D) 825

78. Find the ratio of number of people affected by flood in Thrissur to the number of
people affected by flood in Idukki district.

(A) 2:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 4:5
(D) 5:6

79. The Government decided to give aid to people affected by flood in Kerala. The ratio
of amount given to a male and a female is 5 : 4, and the ratio of males to females
affected by flood in Thrissur district is 4 : 3. If the total amount given to Thrissur
district is Rs. 30.24 lacs, then find the amount received by each male in Thrissur
district.

(A) Rs. 250
(B) Rs. 500
(C) Rs. 750
(D) Rs. 1000

80. Q, R, S, and T are sitting on a bench. P is sitting next to Q, R is sitting next to S, S is
not sitting with T who is on the left end of the bench. R is in the second position from
the right. P is to the right of Q and T. P and R are sitting together. In which position P
is sitting?

(A) Between Q and S
(B) Between Q and R
(C) Between T and S
(D) Between R and T

81. X gives half of his property to his wife and half of the rest to his son. The remainder is
divided equally to his two daughters. The share of each daughter is

(A) 1
8

(B) 1
6

(C) 1
4

(D) 2
3

th
82. In a vertical stack of boxes, box P is 5 positions below box Q, where Q is 15 from
th
the top. If box R, which is 10 from the bottom, is 3 position above box P, how many
boxes are there in the stack?

(A) 25
(B) 28
(C) 26
(D) 20

83. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my
uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?

(A) Brother
(B) Nephew
(C) Uncle
(D) Son-in-law

84. Choose the correct order of sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a correct paragraph.

(A) This knowledge of himself helps a man to be courageous.
(B) Socrates taught that ‘the man who is master of himself is truly free’.
(C) The courageous man has a very important sort of freedom from fear.
(D) By being master of oneself he meant knowing oneself – one’s weaknesses and
strengths without any pretense and being vain and with full control of oneself.
(E) Socrates himself practiced this fearlessness of mind and freedom by teaching
what he felt right.

(A) EBDCA
(B) BDCAE
(C) BDACE
(D) DCBAE

85. Choose the option that completes the sentence most meaningfully and appropriately.

Although, many people don’t like the jobs they do, they remain stuck to them
for ……………….. reasons.

(A) pecuniary
(B) inexplicit
(C) ulterior
(D) internal

86. Choose the option that completes the sentence most meaningfully and appropriately.

Education polished her to become civilized, ……………….., and impressive

(A) hyper corrective
(B) eloquent
(C) ambiguous
(D) insensitive

87. Choose the option that completes the sentence most meaningfully and appropriately.

The women in India were kept under ………………..until the new laws in
free India ensured their………………..from the tentacles of an orthodox
society.

(A) impression, education
(B) subjugation, emancipation
(C) shackles, exculpation
(D) pressure, release

88. Choose the option that completes the sentence most meaningfully and appropriately.

The ………………..of opinion which emerged at a recently concluded
seminar was that the problem of dowry cannot be ………………..unless the
law against it is made more stringent.

(A) Divergence, Managed
(B) Consensus, Tackled
(C) Similarity, Curbed
(D) Convergence, Appreciated

89. Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in the bold part of the sentence and replace the error with suitable
words if required.

He is the only one of the members who have paid all the dues.

(A) Members who has paid
(B) Members who have been paying
(C) Member who has been paid
(D) No correction required

90. Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in the bold part of the sentence and replace the error with suitable
words if required.

Blessed with much intelligence, he saw very few meanings in religious rites
that are performed as mere rituals.

(A) Observes very few meanings
(B) Looked for very few meanings
(C) Saw little meaning
(D) Saw quite a few meanings

91. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

AVARICIOUS

(A) Jealous
(B) Angry
(C) Greedy
(D) Wick

92. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

VITUPERATION

(A) Questionable
(B) Bitter criticism
(C) Resistance
(D) Absurdity

93. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

ENSCONCE

(A) To surround
(B) To honour
(C) To promote
(D) To settle comfortably

94. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word in capital letters.

WOEFULLY

(A) Dolefully
(B) Mercilessly
(C) Mournfully
(D) Blissfully

95. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word in capital letters.

THWARTED

(A) Foiled
(B) Baffled
(C) Balked
(D) Fostered

96. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word in capital letters.

OBSEQUIOUS

(A) Offensive
(B) Fawning
(C) Mutinous
(D) Duteous

97. In the question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the
two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statements: Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and
democracy would be meaningless.
Conclusions: I. Political freedom and democracy go hand in hand.
II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and
democracy.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Both I and II follow

Directions: Study the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

One of the most critical demographic events in the world today is population ageing i.e. the
process by which the share of older individuals in the total population starts becoming larger.
The ageing phenomenon, which has been initially experienced by developed countries, is
now steadily approaching the developing world. Projections show that over the next five
decades, world median age will continue to increase, resulting in enhanced old age
dependency ratios in all parts of the world. Thus, population ageing would be a major global
public policy concern in the twenty-first century posing unprecedented challenges for fiscal,
monetary and overall macro-economic management.

There is a general consensus that ageing population reduces output growth, limits economic
welfare and lowers employment. One direct effect of population ageing is labour shortages
that are caused by declining birth rates and increasing life spans. This translates itself into a
higher old-age dependency ratio (i.e. proportion of population aged 65 and older to
population aged 15 to 64). Consequently, with ageing, the economy's capacity to sustain the
elderly population would decline. An important consequence of this development is reflected
in increasing fiscal pressures through higher government spending on social security, health
care and other welfare programmes for the elderly accompanied by lower tax buoyancy
consequent to falling proportions of the productive labour force. Given the hard budget
constraint for many developing countries, this could mean lower government spending for
programmes that primarily benefit the young. With public pension schemes coming under
increasing pressure to raise contribution levels or cut the size of social safety benefits. The
issue of fiscal sustainability is one of the principal challenges facing policymakers
worldwide, particularly in the context of intergenerational equity.

The experience of US, Western Europe and other Organization for Economic Cooperation
and Development (OECD) countries suggests that substantial demographic changes have
occurred in the past few decades. Improvements in life standards, health care and nutrition
have increased life expectancy. As a result, the old-age dependency ratio in OECD countries
is projected to reach nearly 50 percent by 2050. This is going to pose a huge fiscal burden in
terms of social security, health care, pension and other related expenditures. In this regard, an
OECD exercise reveals a rise in old age pension spending, on an average, by about 3-4
percentage points of GDP over the period till 2050. Expenditure relating to health and long-
term medical care is estimated to increase by more than 3 percentage points of GDP over the
same period. Overall, total age-related expenditures relative to GDP could rise on average by
about 7 percentage points over the period 2000-2050. In turn, this would imply an average
decline of 6-7 percentage points in the primary balance to GDP ratio.

98. On which of the following points related to population ageing, there is no dispute
among thinkers?

(A) The direct effect of population ageing is abundance of labourers
(B) Economic welfare will be enhanced due to availability of experienced people
(C) Employment will be lowered significantly due to population ageing
(D) Old age dependency ratio will be lowered significantly

99. The term "population ageing" refers to

(A) the proportion of senior citizens in a developed country
(B) the percentage of older people in a developing nation
(C) increase in the overall population of a developed country
(D) enhancement in the proportion of older people in the population

100. Which of the following factors is responsible for increase in longevity?

(1) Substantial raise in living status
(2) Adequate and timely health care
(3) Nourishing and healthy diet

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All the three

st
101. Which of the following is most likely to happen by middle of the 21 century?

(1) In countries like US and Western Europe, the old age dependency ratio is
likely to touch 50%.
(2) Six to seven percentage points increase in primary balance to GDP ratio in
OECD countries.
(3) Raise to the extent of three to four percentage points of GDP in age old pension
spending.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All the three

102. What is most likely to happen if the dependency ratio is higher?

(A) It would lower the economy’s capacity to sustain the elderly population
(B) Government spending on social security would significantly decline
(C) Productive labour force will increase significantly
(D) Due to increased longevity expenditure on health care will reduce

103. Directions: In the following question, four words or phrases have been underlined.
Only one underlined part is not acceptable in Standard English. Choose that part as
your correct answer.

The Finance Minister will not introduce in this
( ) ( ) ( )

session .
( )

(A) has not
(B) probably
(C) the bill
(D) of the Parliament

104. Directions: In the following question, four words or phrases have been underlined.
Only one underlined part is not acceptable in Standard English. Choose that part as
your correct answer.

She them heard knocking the door.
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )

(A) asked
(B) whether they
(C) any one
(D) not to open

105. Directions: In the following question, four words or phrases have been underlined.
Only one underlined part is not acceptable in Standard English. Choose that part as
your correct answer.

he promise to .
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )

(A) Neither he pays
(B) now
(C) now does
(D) pay later

106. Directions: In the following question, four words or phrases have been underlined.
Only one underlined part is not acceptable in Standard English. Choose that part as
your correct answer.
gasping
Several guests Mr. Peter chair and for breath.
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )

(A) noticed
(B) fall
(C) in his
(D) gasping

107. Choose the correct SPELLING from the following.

(A) Comittee
(B) Commitee
(C) Committe
(D) Committee

108. Choose the correct SPELLING from the following.

(A) Separate
(B) Saparate
(C) Seperate
(D) Separete

109. Choose the correct SPELLING from the following.

(A) Noledge
(B) Knowladge
(C) Knowledge
(D) Knowlege

110. Choose the correct SPELLING from the following.

(A) Consience
(B) Consiance
(C) Consiens
(D) Conscience

111. Fill in the Blanks with suitable answers from the choice given below.

She is embarrassed …………… her lack of money.

(A) with
(B) about
(C) by
(D) on

112. Fill in the Blanks with suitable answers from the choice given below.

He picked …………… his bag and hurried off.

(A) at
(B) of
(C) up
(D) down

113. Fill in the Blanks with suitable answers from the choice given below.

Are you still looking …………… a job?

(A) in
(B) for
(C) at
(D) with

114. Fill in the Blanks with suitable answers from the choice given below.

She persists …………… wearing that old fashioned dress.

(A) in
(B) about
(C) of
(D) to

115. Fill in the Blanks with suitable answers from the choice given below.

He jumped …………… his horse and rode off.

(A) about
(B) on
(C) with
(D) for

116. Choose the sentence with the correct word order from the following.

(A) On the Earth we live.
(B) We live on the Earth.
(C) We on the Earth live.
(D) On the Earth live we.

117. Choose the sentence with the correct word order from the following.

(A) The company employs currently one hundred men and sixty women.
(B) One hundred men and sixty women currently the company employs.
(C) The company currently employs one hundred men and sixty women.
(D) Employs the company currently one hundred men and sixty women.

118. Choose the sentence with the correct word order from the following.

(A) Ninety degrees today to the temperature is supposed to rise.
(B) Today ninety degrees to the temperature is supposed to rise.
(C) The temperature today is supposed to rise to ninety degrees.
(D) The temperature is supposed to rise to ninety degrees today.

119. Choose the sentence with the correct word order from the following.

(A) Contributed we ten dollars each to the fund.
(B) We each contributed ten dollars to the fund.
(C) Ten dollars to the fund we contributed each.
(D) To the fund contributed we each ten dollars.

120. Choose the sentence with the correct word order from the following.

(A) He earns seventy-five pounds a week.
(B) Seventy-five pounds earns he a week.
(C) He seventy-five pounds earns a week.
(D) Earns he seventy-five pounds a week.

121. Which country launched world’s first hydrogen double-decker bus?

(A) Scotland
(B) Sweden
(C) New York
(D) Tokyo

122. Virgin Orbit is a company that provides launch services for small satellites.
Where is the headquarters of Virgin Orbit?

(A) California
(B) Beijing
(C) Germany
(D) India

123. In the second week of January 2021 which cryptocurrency crossed $40,000 milestone
for first time in world?

(A) Ethereum
(B) Binance Coin
(C) Bitcoin
(D) USD coin

124. Who is the first woman functional director on the board of Indian Oil Corporation
(IOC), the nation's largest oil refining and fuel marketing company?

(A) Sukla Mistry
(B) Lakshmi Sharma
(C) Aditi Gupta
(D) Radhika Ghai Aggarwal

125. As per Standards for Charging Infrastructure for Electric Vehicles (EV),
who can set up a Public Charging Station (PCS)?

(A) DISCOMs
(B) Individuals
(C) Ministry of Power
(D) State Governments

126. What is the name of the scheme announced by the central government to provide skill
training to youth and make them entrepreneurs?

(A) PM DAKSH Yojana
(B) Nai Manzil Scheme
(C) PM MUDRA Yojana
(D) PM UMEED Yojana

127. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced which date to be celebrated as
National Start-up Day?
th
(A) 16 December
th
(B) 17 January
th
(C) 17 February
th
(D) 16 January

128. Which of the following aviation company was recently titled
‘The 2021 Airline of the year?

(A) Vistara
(B) Qatar Airways
(C) Air France
(D) Lufthansa

129. Which technology company has created a 2-nanometer chip,
the smallest and most powerful microchip?

(A) Qualcomm
(B) IBM
(C) Apple Inc.
(D) Samsung

130. What is the objective of ‘Kavach’ Technology announced for Indian Railways?

(A) Waste Management
(B) Burglar Guard
(C) Anti- Collision
(D) Covid Protocol in Trains

131. Which institution released ‘Financial Stability Report (FSR)’ as the flagship report?

(A) NITI Aayog
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) World Bank
(D) Asian Development Bank

132. Which village was awarded 'World's Best Tourism Villages' by
The World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) for the year 2021?

(A) Pochampally
(B) Kadamakkudy
(C) Chitkul
(D) Janjehli

133. What is the name of the Mars rover of the U.S. space agency NASA,
which has recently landed on the red planet?

(A) Discovery
(B) Perseverance
(C) Grit
(D) Ingenuity

134. Famous engineer, Vinod Dham is known as the ‘Father of ………………..;
for leading a company’s iconic microprocessor brand.

(A) Fiber Optics
(B) Pentium chip
(C) Missile Technology
(D) Mobile Phone

135. Researchers of which Indian institution have developed touch-sensitive, tactile, haptic
watch for assisting visually impaired people?

(A) IIT Madras
(B) IIT Kanpur
(C) IIM Ahmadabad
(D) JNTU

136. Which company introduced ‘Dermatology assist’ as an AI powered tool to
detect skin disease?

(A) Amazon
(B) Google
(C) Apple
(D) Microsoft

137. Where is the Central Scientific Instruments Organization (CSIO) located?

(A) Chandigarh
(B) Chennai
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Varanasi

138. India’s largest app for financial services that has integrated with
Unified Payment Interface (UPI) is

(A) ETmoney
(B) Wally
(C) Mint
(D) You need a Budget

139. Which bank in partnership with National Payments Corporation of India launched
RuPay credit cards named 'Veer' for Armed Forces?

(A) State Bank of India
(B) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(C) Bandhan Bank
(D) Axis Bank

140. What is the objective of ONDC, a new platform of Commerce ministry?

(A) Open Network for e-Commerce
(B) Open Network for Grievance Redressal
(C) Open Network for GST Complaints
(D) Open Network for Infrastructure Pipeline

141. World Trade Organisation (WTO) was established in the year
(A) 1945
(B) 1950
(C) 1960
(D) 1955

142. Who is the father of scientific management?
(A) Peter F. Drucker
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) F.W. Taylor
(D) Elton Mayo

143. MIS stands for

(A) Management Intelligent System
(B) Modern Information System
(C) Management Information Science
(D) Management Information System

144. The financial ratio used to know whether the borrowing firm can generate funds
quickly to pay off its creditors is

(A) Acid test ratio
(B) Current ratio
(C) Debt Equity ratio
(D) Inventory turnover ratio

145. When did the Industrial Dispute Act passed?

(A) 1964
(B) 1957
(C) 1951
(D) 1947

146. Project network analysis technique PERT stands for

(A) Process Evaluation and Research Technique
(B) Program Evaluation and Research Technique
(C) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
(D) Project Evaluation and Research Technique

147. Which among the following is NOT a variable process control chart?

(A) R-chart
(B) X chart
(C) P-chart
(D) σ-chart

148. The various steps involved in PDCA cycle are

(A) Plan – Divide – Control – Act
(B) Plan – Do – Check – Act
(C) Process – Divide – Control – Act
(D) Process – Do – Check – Act

149. The process of identifying, learning and adapting outstanding practices and processes
from other organizations to help an organization to improve its performance is

(A) Empowerment
(B) Enhancement
(C) Standardization
(D) Benchmarking

150. Which among the following is related to inventory management?

(A) TQM
(B) MBO
(C) JIT
(D) SIX SIGMA

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 622 M VOC IN TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT
CONSULTING
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 C 61 B 91 C 121 A
2 D 32 A 62 C 92 B 122 A
3 A 33 B 63 A 93 D 123 C
4 D 34 D 64 A 94 D 124 A
5 C 35 B 65 D 95 D 125 B
6 D 36 D 66 B 96 C 126 D
7 B 37 A 67 B 97 B 127 D
8 B 38 A 68 D 98 C 128 B
9 C 39 C 69 D 99 D 129 B
10 A 40 C 70 D 100 D 130 C
11 A 41 A 71 A 101 B 131 B
12 A 42 B 72 C 102 A 132 A
13 C 43 D 73 D 103 A 133 B
14 D 44 D 74 C 104 D 134 B
15 D 45 A 75 C 105 B 135 B
16 A 46 C 76 A 106 B 136 B
17 D 47 B 77 C 107 D 137 A
18 C 48 C 78 B 108 A 138 A
19 B 49 B 79 C 109 C 139 B
20 D 50 C 80 B 110 D 140 A
21 D 51 D 81 A 111 C 141 D
22 A 52 A 82 C 112 C 142 C
23 B 53 B 83 A 113 B 143 D
24 B 54 A 84 C 114 A 144 A
25 B 55 B 85 A 115 B 145 D
26 B 56 A 86 B 116 B 146 C
27 D 57 C 87 B 117 C 147 C
28 B 58 C 88 B 118 D 148 B
29 D 59 A 89 A 119 B 149 D
30 B 60 D 90 C 120 A 150 C