CUSAT CAT 2022 Question Paper Masters In Bioethics

626 MASTERS IN BIOETHICS (FINAL)

PART I – PROFICIENCY IN ENGLISH AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Langston Hughes was one of the greatest American writers of the 20th century. He was born
in Joplin, Missouri, and moved to Cleveland at the age of fourteen. Several years later he
spent one year in Mexico before attending Columbia University in New York. For a few
years after that he roamed the world as a seaman, visiting ports around the world and writing
some poetry. He returned to the United States and attended Lincoln University, where he
won the Witter Bynner prize for undergraduate poetry. After graduating in 1928, he travelled
to Spain and to Russia with the help of a Guggenheim fellowship. His novels include Not
Without Laughter (1930) and The Big Sea (1940). He wrote an autobiography in 1956 and
also published several collection of poetry. His collections include: The Weary Blues (1926),
The Dream Keeper (1932), Shakespeare in Harlem (1942), Fields of Wonder (1947), One
Way Ticket (1947) and Selected Poems (1959). A man of many talents, Hughes was also a
lyricist, librettist and a journalist. As an older man in the 1960s he spent much of his time
collecting poems from Africa and from African-Americans to popularize black writers.
Hughes is one of the most accomplished writers in American literary history, and he is seen
as one of the artistic leaders of the Harlem Renaissance, the period when a neighbourhood
that was predominantly black, produced a flood of great literature, music and other art forms
depicting daily city life for African-Americans.

1. What is the main topic of this passage?

(A) African-American Writers
(B) The life of Langston Hughes
(C) The Harlem Renaissance
th
(D) American 20 Century Writers

2. What provided Hughes with assistance for his travel to Spain and Russia?

(A) A literary fellowship
(B) His job as a reporter
(C) His career as a soldier
(D) A college study programme

3. According to the author, what did Hughes do during the later years of his life?

(A) Write short stories
(B) Popularize African-American writers
(C) Advocate racial equality
(D) Write about life in Harlem

4. The author uses the word “flood” to refer to

(A) an outpouring
(B) a drought
(C) a cloud burst
(D) a streak

5. According to the passage, Hughes was all of the following except

(A) a novelist
(B) a poet
(C) a historian
(D) a journalist

6. Select the word that is spelt correctly.

(A) Surveillance
(B) Survilance
(C) Survalance
(D) Survaillance

7. Select the word that is spelt correctly.

(A) Buorocracy
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Bureaucrecy
(D) Bureocracy

8. Select the best option from the four alternatives given.

……………….. to your error the ……………….. consignment has been
delayed by a week.

(A) According, important
(B) Duly, urgent
(C) Owing, entire
(D) Added, crucial

9. Select the best option from the four alternatives given.

On account of the ……………….. in sales, the software firm has achieved an eight
percent ……………….. in net profit.

(A) surge, fall
(B) increase, rise
(C) decline, slope
(D) hike, loss

10. Select the best option from the four alternatives given.

Their achievement in the field of literature is described as ……………….. sometimes,
it is even called ………………..

(A) magnificent, irresponsible
(B) insignificant, influential
(C) significant, paltry
(D) unimportant, trivial

11. Select the best option from the four alternatives given.

The internet is a medium where users have nearly ……………….. choices and
……………….. constrains about where to go and what to do.

(A) unbalanced, nonexistent
(B) embarrassing, no
(C) unlimited, minimal
(D) choking, shocking

12. Choose the correct meaning.

Per se

(A) The most important
(B) That which comes first
(C) By itself
(D) The face that is young

13. Choose the correct meaning.

Status quo

(A) Here and there
(B) The existing state of affairs
(C) By the same person
(D) In the same place

14. Select the correct form of ACTIVE VOICE for the following.

Deep sleep will be gained by hard physical labor.

(A) Hard physical labor gains deep sleep.
(B) Hard physical labor will gain deep sleep.
(C) Hard physical labor has gained deep sleep.
(D) Hard physical labor can gain deep sleep.

15. Select the correct form of ACTIVE VOICE for the following.

A meeting had been organised by people to congratulate him on his success.

(A) People organised a meeting to congratulate him on his success.
(B) People have organised a meeting to congratulate him on his success.
(C) People had organised a meeting to congratulate him on his success.
(D) People organise a meeting to congratulate him on his success.

16. Choose the correct form of PASSIVE VOICE for the following.

I will complete this drawing within two hours.

(A) This drawing will have to be completed by me within two hours.
(B) This drawing will be completed by me within two hours.
(C) This drawing would be completed by me within two hours.
(D) This drawing may be completed within two hours.

17. Choose the correct form of PASSIVE VOICE for the following.

They have known him for a long time.

(A) He was known by them for a long time.
(B) He may be known by them for a long time.
(C) He has been known by them for a long time.
(D) He is known by them for a long time.

18. Choose the correct SYNONYM for the following.

DESOLATE

(A) Decent
(B) Disgusting
(C) Abandoned
(D) Ugly

19. Choose the correct SYNONYM for the following.

BRITTLE

(A) Brutal
(B) Breakable
(C) Nice
(D) Shining

20. Choose the correct SPELLING from the following.

(A) Yauht
(B) Yot
(C) Yachet
(D) Yacht

21. Choose the correct SPELLING from the following.

(A) Colonel
(B) Kenal
(C) Colonal
(D) Cenal

22. Select the correct one word substitute for the following.

Network of winding paths through which it is difficult to find one’s way without help.

(A) Lane
(B) Labyrinth
(C) Alley
(D) Nook

23. Select the correct one word substitute for the following.

Use of less exact but milder or less blunt words or phrases in place of words required
by truth or accuracy.

(A) Euphemism
(B) Miserliness
(C) Economy
(D) Stinginess

24. Choose the sentence with the correct word order from the following.

(A) This sweater comes in four colours.
(B) In four colours this sweater comes.
(C) This sweater in four colours comes.
(D) This sweater comes four in colours.

25. Choose the sentence with the correct word order from the following.

(A) She is working hardly to get a job.
(B) She is hard working to get a job.
(C) She is working hard to get a job.
(D) She is hardly working to get a job.

26. Which of the following day is observed as World Consumer Rights Day?

(A) August 15
(B) March 15
(C) January 15
(D) July 15

27. “Wandering in many worlds” is the autobiography of

(A) Justice K T Thomas
(B) Justice V R Krishna Iyer
(C) Justice Narayana Kurup
(D) Justice Barucha

28. Ossification test is done to determine

(A) age
(B) sex
(C) blood group
(D) finger print

29. Who among the following is the founder director of National Law School of
Bangalore?

(A) R Venkat Rao
(B) S S Singh
(C) N R Madhava Menon
(D) None of the above

30. When a person speaks slanderously about God or Religion, it is called

(A) Jingoism
(B) Euphemism
(C) Atheism
(D) Blasphemy

31. Who won a gold medal for India in Tokyo Olympics 2021?

(A) Ravi Kumar Dahiya
(B) Mirabai Chanu
(C) P V Sindhu
(D) Neeraj Chopra

32. Name the COVID-19 vaccine manufactured using mRNA technology
from the following

(A) Pfizer-BioNTech
(B) Covaxin
(C) Sputnik V
(D) Novavax

33. ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ means

(A) Elixir of independence
(B) Self-reliant India
(C) Clean India
(D) Everyone’s support, everyone’s development and now everyone’s trust

34. Gastric Juice is produced in

(A) mouth
(B) liver
(C) pancreas
(D) stomach

35. “Give me a good mothers and I will give you a good nation”,
these words were said by

(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Napoleon Bonaparte
(D) Abraham Lincoln

36. In which conference did the Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi make a pledge to
cut its emissions to net zero by 2070?

(A) COP23
(B) COP24
(C) COP25
(D) COP26

37. World Tourism Day is celebrated on
(A) September 12
(B) September 25
(C) September 27
(D) September 29

38. The festival of light, ‘Hanukkah’ is related to which of the following religion?

(A) Parsi
(B) Buddhist
(C) Confucius
(D) Jews

39. Husri and Bihuna are dance forms of which state?

(A) Bihar
(B) Assam
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa

40. Apart from India, Tamil is the Official Language of …………… and ……………

(A) Sri Lanka and Singapore
(B) Mauritius and Singapore
(C) Sri Lanka and Malaysia
(D) Indonesia and Malaysia

41. Who among the following wrote the famous Bengali book called ‘Agnibeena’?

(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(B) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(D) Kazi Nazrul Islam

42. In which of the following state, the World Heritage Site named
‘Basilica of Bom Jesus’ located?

(A) Goa
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Manipur
(D) Tamil Nadu

43. Which deity is depicted in the currency of the Indus Civilization?

(A) Proto Shiva
(B) Adi Indra
(C) Prodigy Vishnu
(D) Proto Brahma

44. Who among the following invented the World Wide Web (WWW)?

(A) Sir Tim Berners-Lee
(B) Ralph H. Baer
(C) Percy Spencer
(D) Evangelista Torricelli

45. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the National Human Rights
Commission?

(A) It is a statutory body
(B) Its Chairperson can be a person who has been Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court or a Judge of the Supreme Court
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

46. Who is known as ‘Father of History’?

(A) Herodotus
(B) Thucydides
(C) Diodorus Siculus
(D) Arrian of Nicomedia

47. National Food Security Act passed in the year

(A) 2005
(B) 2010
(C) 2013
(D) 2015

48. Which civilization is considered as the oldest civilization in the world?

(A) Sindu Valley civilization
(B) Mohenjo-Daro civilization
(C) Japanese civilization
(D) Mesopotamia civilization

49. Which one of the following relates to economic offences?

(A) TADA
(B) MISA
(C) NSA
(D) COFEPOSA

50. Before the independence of India, Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under the
administrative control of

(A) English
(B) French
(C) Portuguese
(D) Afghans

51. Considering the following pattern

2 × (2 + 2) = 8, 3 × (3 + 2) = 15, 4 × (4 + 2) = 24, 5 × (5 + 2) = 35,
th
the 7 line in the pattern will be

(A) 8 × (8 + 2) = 80
(B) 9 × (9 + 2) = 99
(C) 8 × (8 − 2) = 48
(D) 8 × (8 + 4) = 96

52. Consider the following pattern.
2 2 2 2
2 + 1 = 5, 3 + 1 = 10, 4 + 17, 5 + 1 = 26
2
Using the above pattern find the value of x in x + 1 = 170.

(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 14
(D) 13

53. Considering the following pattern
2 2 2 2 2
(2 + 2) ⁄2 = 8, (4 + 2) ⁄2 = 18, (6 + 2) ⁄2 = 32, (8 + 2) ⁄2 = 50, (10 + 2) ⁄2 = 72, . . . . .
th
the 7 line in the pattern will be
2
(A) (14 + 2) ⁄2 = 128
2
(B) (16 + 2) ⁄2 = 162
2
(C) (18 + 2) ⁄2 = 200
2
(D) (12 + 2) ⁄2 = 98

54. Individual Objects in a set are called

(A) element
(B) set
(C) list
(D) None of the above

55. A group or collection of well defined objects is called

(A) element
(B) set
(C) list
(D) group

56. Look at this series.

V, VIII, XI, XIV, ………, XX

What number should fill the blank?

(A) IX
(B) XXIII
(C) XV
(D) XVII

57. Fill the blank in the following series.

ZA5, Y4B, XC6, W3D, ………

(A) E7V

(B) V2E

(C) VE5

(D) VE7

58. Choose your answer based solely on the information given in the first three facts.
Fact 1: All dogs like to run.
Fact 2: Some dogs like to swim.
Fact 3: Some dogs look like their masters.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be
a fact?
I. All dogs who like to swim look like their masters.
II. Dogs who like to swim also like to run.
III. Dogs who like to run do not look like their masters.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) II and III only
(D) III only

59. Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the
ball. Calvin is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenkins and Burton are side by side
behind Calvin. Zeller is behind Jenkins and Burton. Calvin tries for the tackle but
misses and falls. Burton trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver?

(A) Burton
(B) Zeller
(C) Jenkins
(D) Calvin

60. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

relftaga means carefree
otaga means careful
fertaga means careless

Which word could mean “aftercare”?

(A) zentaga
(B) tagafer
(C) tagazen
(D) relffer

61. Look at this series.

F2, ………, D8, C16, B32

What number should fill the blank?

(A) A16
(B) G4
(C) E4
(D) E3

62. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(A) Tape
(B) Twine
(C) Cord
(D) Yarn

63. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(A) Guitar
(B) Flute
(C) Violin
(D) Cello

64. Find the word that names a necessary part of the underlined word.

BOOK

(A) Fiction
(B) Pages
(C) Pictures
(D) Learning

65. Find the pair that has a similar relationship.

SOUND : CACOPHONY

(A) Speech : Oration
(B) Touch : Massage
(C) Smell : Stench
(D) Sight : Panorama

66. Oar is to Rowboat as Foot is to

(A) Running
(B) Sneaker
(C) Skateboard
(D) Jumping

67. Optimist is to Cheerful as Pessimist is to

(A) Gloomy
(B) Mean
(C) Petty
(D) Helpful

68. Sponge is to Porous as Rubber is to

(A) Massive
(B) Solid
(C) Elastic
(D) Inflexible

69. Candid is to Indirect as Honest is to

(A) Frank
(B) Wicked
(C) Truthful
(D) Untruthful

70. Find the pair that has a similar relationship.

BRISTLE : BRUSH

(A) Arm : Leg
(B) Stage : Curtain
(C) Recline : Chair
(D) Key : Piano

71. Find the pair that has a similar relationship.

FISH : SCHOOL

(A) Wolf : Pack
(B) Elephant : Jungle
(C) Beagle : Clan
(D) Herd : Peacock

72. Find the pair that has a similar relationship.

ODOMETER : DISTANCE

(A) Scale : Weight
(B) Length : Width
(C) Inch : Foot
(D) Mileage : Speed

73. Answer the question solely on the basis of the definition given.

Violating an Apartment Lease occurs when a tenant does something prohibited by
the legally binding document that he or she has signed with a landlord. Which
situation below is the best example of violating an Apartment Lease?

(A) Tim has decided to move to another city, so he calls his landlord to tell him
that he is not interested in renewing his lease when it expires next month
(B) Valerie recently lost her job and, for the last three months, has neglected to pay
her landlord the monthly rent they agreed upon in writing when she moved into
her apartment eight months ago
(C) Mark writes a letter to his landlord that lists numerous complaints about the
apartment he has agreed to rent for two years
(D) Leslie thinks that her landlord is neglecting the building in which she rents an
apartment. She calls her attorney to ask for advice

74. Answer the question solely on the basis of the definition given.

A Guarantee is a promise or assurance that attests to the quality of a product that is
either (1) given in writing by the manufacturer or (2) given verbally by the person
selling the product. Which situation below is the best example of a Guarantee?

(A) Melissa purchases a DVD player with the highest consumer ratings in its
category
(B) The salesperson advises curt to be sure that he buys an air conditioner with a
guarantee
(C) The local auto body shop specializes in refurbishing and selling used cars
(D) Lori buys a used digital camera from her coworker who says that she will
refund Lori’s money if the camera’s performance is not of the highest quality

75. Find the statement that must be true according to the given information.

Ten new television shows appeared during the month of September. Five of the shows
were sitcoms, three were hour-long dramas, and two were news-magazine shows. By
January, only seven of these new shows were still on the air. Five of the shows that
remained were sitcoms.

(A) Only one of the news-magazine shows remained on the air
(B) Only one of the hour-long dramas remained on the air
(C) At least one of the shows that were cancelled was an hour-long drama
(D) Television viewers prefer sitcoms over hour-long dramas

Direction: Answer question on the basis of the information below.

At a Halloween party where people were asked to dress as an object that represented their
professions. Quentin, Rachel, Sarah, Thomas, and Ulysses were among the guests. The
costumes included a flower, a pencil, a spoon, a camera and a thermometer. The professions
included a photographer, a florist, a doctor, an accountant, and a chef.

■ Quentin is an accountant.
■ Neither Rachel nor Sarah was dressed as a spoon.
■ None of the men is a doctor.
■ Thomas is dressed as a camera
■ Sarah is a florist.

76. Which person is dressed as a thermometer?

(A) Quentin
(B) Rachel
(C) Sarah
(D) Thomas

77. What is Ulysses’s profession?

(A) Photographer
(B) Florist
(C) Doctor
(D) Chef

Direction: Answer question on the basis of the information below.

At a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives: CEO, president, vice
president, secretary, and treasurer—with the spaces lined up in that order. The parking lot
guard can tell at a glance if the cars are parked correctly by looking at the color of the cars.
The cars are yellow, green, purple, red, blue and the executives’ names are Alice, Bert,
Cheryl, David, and Enid.

■ The car in the first space is red.
■ A blue car is parked between the red car and the green car.
■ The car in the last space is purple.
■ The secretary drives a yellow car.
■ Alice’s car is parked next to David’s.
■ Enid drives a green car.
■ Bert’s car is parked between Cheryl’s and Enid’s.
■ David’s car is parked in the last space.

78. What color is the vice president’s car?

(A) Green
(B) Yellow
(C) Blue
(D) Purple

79. Who is the CEO?

(A) Alice
(B) Bert
(C) Cheryl
(D) David

80. Who is the secretary?

(A) Enid
(B) David
(C) Cheryl
(D) Alice

Direction: Answer question on the basis of the information below.

Five people - Abhi, Bablu, Chintu, Dubey and Eisha - are travelling in five different trains -
Rajdhani Express, AP Express, Shatabdi Express, Duronto Express and Howrah Express in
any order - to five different destinations - Bangalore, Delhi, Hyderabad, Mumbai and Kolkata
in any order. Further:

1. Rajdhani Express does not go to Mumbai.
2. Abhi's train, Howrah Express and the train to Mumbai start at different timings.
3. Chintu is travelling in neither Rajdhani Express nor Howrah Express.
4. Bablu, who is travelling in Shatabdi Express, is not going to Mumbai.
5. Eisha's train starts after the train to Delhi.
6. Abhi's train, Rajdhani Express and the train to Hyderabad start at different timings.
7. Neither Rajdhani Express nor Howrah Express goes to Kolkata.
8. AP Express does not go to Delhi.
9. Dubey is going to Bangalore.
10. Neither AP Express nor Duronto Express is going to Kolkata.

81. Who is travelling in Duronto Express?

(A) Abhi
(B) Bablu
(C) Chintu
(D) None of the above

82. Which of the following is true?

(A) Abhi is going to Bangalore
(B) Shatabdi Express goes to Mumbai
(C) Eisha is travelling in AP Express
(D) Bablu is travelling to Kolkata

83. Which of the following train-destination combination is correct?

(A) Rajdhani – Delhi
(B) AP – Mumbai
(C) Duronto – Bangalore
(D) Howrah – Delhi

84. Howrah Express is going to which destination?

(A) Bangalore
(B) Delhi
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Mumbai

Direction: Answer question on the basis of the information below.

For a recruitment process in an organization, the candidates need to possess the following
qualifications/criteria.

(I) A graduate in science with at least 60% marks.
(II) An age of at least 25 years and not more than 40 years as on 01.08.2016
(III) Have a post-qualification work experience of at least 2 years.
(IV) Should have secured 55% marks in the selection procedure.
However, if the candidate fulfills the above-mentioned criteria except:

(a) at (I) and if the candidate is not a graduate in Science but has a post graduation
degree with a minimum of 60% marks, he/she should be referred to the HR
Manager of the organization.
(b) at (III) and if the candidate fulfills all the eligibility criteria but of post-
qualification work experience but has secured 75% of marks in the selection
process, he/she may be referred to the Director of the organization.
Based on the above information study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible
for the recruitment process and mark your answer. You are not to assume anything other than
the information provided in each question. All the cases are given to you as on 01.08.2016

85. Shalini has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a top organization. She
has secured 59% marks in the selection process. Born on 5.10.1990. She has
completed her Bachelor’s degree in Physics and secured 66% marks in it.

(A) The candidate is to be selected
(B) The candidate is not to be selected
(C) The candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
(D) The candidate may be referred to the Director

86. Ahmed has completed graduation and post graduation in Economics from Bhopal in
2000 and has secured 51% and 68% marks respectively. His Date of Birth is
26.11.1977. He has been working as an executive in a reputed firm since 2006 till
date. He has secured 56% marks in the selection process.

(A) The candidate is to be selected
(B) The candidate is not to be selected
(C) The candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
(D) The candidate may be referred to the Director

87. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.

(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 19

88. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16

89. Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and thus find the correct answer
from alternatives.

1. Key 2. Door 3. Lock 4. Room 5. Switch on

(A) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

90. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions. You are to consider each statement and the assumptions that follow and
decide whether the assumption is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: The government has decided to pay compensation to the tune of
Rs. 1 lakh to the family members of those who are killed in railway
accidents.
Assumptions: I The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to
compensation.
II There may be reduction in incidents of railway accidents in near
future.

(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If both I and II are implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit

91. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions. You are to consider each statement and the assumptions that follow and
decide whether the assumption is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: Films have become indispensable for the entertainment of people.
Assumptions: I Films are the only media of entertainment.
II People enjoy films.

(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If both I and II are implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit

92. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions. You are to consider each statement and the assumptions that follow and
decide whether the assumption is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: Of all the newspapers published in Mumbai, readership of the
"Times" is the largest in the Metropolis.
Assumptions: I 'Times' is not popular in mofussil areas.
II 'Times' has the popular feature of cartoons on burning social and
political issues.

(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If both I and II are implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit

93. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions. You are to consider each statement and the assumptions that follow and
decide whether the assumption is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: Apart from the entertainment value of television, its educational
value cannot be ignored.
Assumptions: I People take television to be a means of entertainment only.
II The educational value of television is not realized properly.

(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If both I and II are implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit

94. One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United
States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare.
And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out,
his psychological insights into both male and female characters are amazing even
today.

This paragraph best supports the statement that

(A) Shakespeare's characters are more interesting than fictional characters today.
(B) People even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the
characters.
(C) Academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare's work.
(D) New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare.

95. In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-fat ice
cream. But that isn't the case today. An increasing health consciousness combined
with a much bigger selection of tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made low-fat
ice cream a very profitable item for ice cream store owners.

This paragraph best supports the statement that

(A) Low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods.
(B) Ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream.
(C) Ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular
item.
(D) Low-fat ice cream is more popular than other kinds of ice cream.

96. Today's workforce has a new set of social values. Ten years ago, a manager who was
offered a promotion in a distant city would not have questioned the move. Today, a
manager in that same situation might choose family happiness instead of career
advancement.

This paragraph best supports the statement that

(A) Most managers are not loyal to the corporations for which they work.
(B) Businesses today do not understand their employees needs.
(C) Employees social values have changed over the past ten years.
(D) Career advancement is not important to today's business managers.

97. Read paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.

Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been
attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires
overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has
been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great
impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made by the
enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the
smugglers made huge profits.

The passage best supports the statement that

(A) Smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
(B) Smuggling ought to be curbed.
(C) Authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
(D) Smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.

98. Read paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.

It is up to our government and planners to devise ways and means for the mobilisation
of about ten crore workers whose families total up about forty crore men, women and
children. Our agriculture is over-manned. A lesser number of agriculturists would
mean more purchasing or spending power to every agriculturist. This will result in the
shortage of man-power for many commodities to be produced for which there will be
a new demand from a prosperous agrarian class. This shortage will be removed by
surplus man-power released from agriculture as suggested above.

The passage best supports the statement that

(A) Employment in production is more fruitful than employment in agriculture.
(B) Indian economy is in a poor shape basically due to improper mobilisation of
man-power.
(C) A shift of labour from agricultural sector to the industrial sector would uplift
the living standard.
(D) The industrial sector is labour-deficient while the agricultural sector is over-
manned in our country.

99. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions. You have to decide which of the arguments a ‘strong’ argument and
which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Assumptions: I Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants
there.
II No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex
than big cities. So? Why offer extra incentives?

(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If neither I nor II is strong
(D) If both I and II are strong

100. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions. You have to decide which of the arguments a ‘strong’ argument and
which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Statement: Should so much money be spent on advertisements?
Assumptions: I Yes. It is an essential concomitant in a capitalist economy.
II No. It leads to wastage of resources.

(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If neither I nor II is strong
(D) If both I and II are strong

PART II – LAW

101. Which of the following religious minorities are eligible for fast track citizenship under
Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019, who entered India prior to 2016 from
Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh?
(A) Hindu, Sikhs, Buddhist, Jains, Parsis and Christians
(B) Buddhist, Parsis, Christians, Muslim, Sikhs, Jains and Hindu
(C) Sikhs, Jains, Parsis, Christians, Hindu and Saurashtra
(D) Christians, Muslim, Sikhs, Hindus, Buddhist and Parsis

102. Which Article gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir under
the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 370A
(B) Article 371A
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 371

103. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution of India
on the recommendation of

(A) Malimath Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Sarkaria Committee
(D) Swaran Singh Committee

104. Triple Talaq under Muslim Personal law was banned by Supreme Court in

(A) Mohammed Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum
(B) Shayara Bano vs Union of India
(C) Danial Latifi and another vs Union of India
(D) Ahamadabad Women Action Group vs Union of India

105. Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor is

(A) valid
(B) voidable
(C) unenforceable
(D) void

106. One of the following is NOT an intellectual property

(A) discovery
(B) industrial design
(C) database right
(D) trade secret

107. Choose the full form of EIA from the following.

(A) Economic Impact Assessment
(B) Ecology Impact Assessment
(C) Environment Impact Assessment
(D) Employees Impact Assessment

108. Defamation infringes a person’s right to

(A) privacy
(B) status
(C) reputation
(D) prestige

109. Registration of marriage under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is

(A) compulsory
(B) optional
(C) subject to the discretion of the marriage registrar
(D) to be done by a court order

110. A person who takes proceedings against the accused person on behalf of state is called

(A) Attorney
(B) Lawyer
(C) Prosecutor
(D) Barrister

111. In Fathima Shirin vs State of Kerala case, the Supreme Court held that Right to
Access Internet is a

(A) private right
(B) basic right
(C) public right
(D) fundamental right

112. Fundamental Freedoms guaranteed under the Indian Constitution are available to

(A) Residents
(B) Non-Resident Indian
(C) Citizens
(D) Non-Citizens

113. Which one is the upper house of Indian Parliament?

(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Parliament Committee
(D) Council of Ministers

114. Lok Sabha of Indian Parliament is also known as

(A) Council of States
(B) House of the People
(C) House of the Common
(D) House of Poor

115. A delinquent child is one who is

(A) illiterate
(B) insane
(C) abandoned
(D) child in conflict with law

116. Burden of proof means

(A) imposing allegation
(B) defensing a case
(C) proving an allegation
(D) pronouncing judgement

117. Which writ is used against illegal detention?

(A) Quo Warranto
(B) Habeas corpus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Certiorari

118. Right to marriage is an inherent under ……………….. of the Indian Constitution.

(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 13

119. Who among the following decides whether the bill is a money bill or not?

(A) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chairman of the Legislative Council
(D) Leader of the majority party

120. Fundamental duties are prescribed under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Article 21A
(B) Article 51A
(C) Article 31A
(D) Article 45A

121. Double jeopardy relates to

(A) punishing two persons for the same crime
(B) punishing a person for the same crime twice
(C) punishing a person for different crimes twice
(D) punishing two persons for the same crime twice

122. A doctor has a ……………….. relationship with his patient.

(A) avuncular
(B) moral
(C) fiduciary
(D) non legal

123. An eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth is related to which theory of
Punishment in Jurisprudence?

(A) Retributive
(B) Reformative
(C) Rejuvenated
(D) Preventive

124. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament
while being not a member of either House?

(A) Solicitor General of India
(B) Attorney General of India
(C) Chief Election Commissioner
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

125. “Amicus curiae” means

(A) One of the judges of the court
(B) A friend of the court
(C) One among the parties to the dispute
(D) One among the expert witnesses in a case

BIOETHICS (LIFE SCIENCE)
(FINAL)

126. Which of the following qualities suit a model organism?
(A) Short life cycle and high reproductive capacity
(B) High susceptibility to diseases
(C) Difficult to rear in a laboratory
(D) Inability to breed in captivity

127. Reviewing and studying the ethical issues related to biological materials during the
conduct of a scientific quest is called
(A) Biosafety
(B) Bioethics
(C) Biotechnology
(D) Bioprospecting

128. The act passed by the Indian Government to comply with the Convention on
Biological Diversity is known as

(A) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(B) Biological Diversity Act, 2003
(C) The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
(D) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

129. An organism that possesses a beak, a long tail with caudal vertebrae and teethed jaw
can be considered to be a connecting link between

(A) Arthropods and molluscans
(B) Amphibians and Reptiles
(C) Reptiles and mammals
(D) Reptiles and birds

130. The plasma membrane is selectively permeable because it is made up of

(A) proteins only
(B) lipids only
(C) a lipid bilayer with peripheral and integral proteins
(D) a protein bilayer sandwiched in lipids

131. Which of the following Phyla includes organisms that cause
the “red tide” phenomenon?

(A) Kinetoplastida
(B) Dinoflagellata
(C) Arthropoda
(D) Porifera

132. Which of the following is NOT a quality of science?

(A) Observability
(B) Testability
(C) Consistency
(D) Anecdotal

133. Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same shape has

(A) less surface area
(B) less surface area per unit of volume
(C) the same surface-to-volume ratio
(D) a smaller average distance between its mitochondria and
the external source of oxygen

134. In humans, identical twins are possible because

(A) cytoplasmic determinants are distributed unevenly in unfertilized eggs
(B) extraembryonic cells interact with the zygote nucleus
(C) convergent extension occurs
(D) early blastomeres form a complete embryo if isolated

135. For which of the following did Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jenifer Doudna win the
Nobel prize for Chemistry in 2020?

(A) CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing system
(B) Zinc Finger Nucleases gene editing tool
(C) Discoveries of receptors for temperature and touch
(D) Discoveries of how cells sense and adapt to oxygen availability

136. A scientist invents a technology to effectively cryopreserve fish eggs and wrote a
scientific paper on it. He must protect the technology with

(A) Trademark
(B) Copyright
(C) Patent
(D) PVRs

137. Glycolysis will be adversely affected if …………… is inactivated.

(A) Ligases
(B) Phosphofructokinase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphate phosphatases
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

138. One wishes to find the average number of flowers on ten plants of a species of pea.
The person must choose to calculate

(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Correlation
(C) Range
(D) Standard deviation

139. Which of the following is NOT a hypothesis testing tool?

(A) Probit analysis
(B) Chi-square test
(C) Students T test
(D) ANOVA

140. What does IMRAD stand for?

(A) Introduction, Methods, Results, and Discussion
(B) Information, Metrices, Retrieval and Derivation
(C) Inquire, Measure, Retry and Discuss
(D) Introduce, Methodology, Report and Discuss

141. A lysosome engulfed a non-functional mitochondrion and the resultant entity is called

(A) Primary lysosome
(B) Digestive vacuole
(C) Autophagosome
(D) Residual body

142. Drosophila larval salivary gland cells were viewed on a slide after squash preparation,
consequently bodies with stained bands and arm-like appearance were observed.
What could it be?

(A) Barr body
(B) Lampbrush chromosome
(C) Polytene chromosome
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

143. A microbiologist working on easily aerosol-transmitted infectious agents
must work in a

(A) BSL-1 Laboratory
(B) BSL-2 Laboratory
(C) BSL-3 Laboratory
(D) BSL-4 Laboratory

144. Isolate A contains the outer mitochondrial membrane, Isolate B contains nuclear
membrane and Isolate C contains inner mitochondrial membrane, ATP production can
be seen in

(A) Both isolate A and B
(B) Only in Isolate A
(C) Only in Isolate B
(D) Only in Isolate C

145. If lac repressor protein is modified in such a way that it cannot bind to lactose, which
of the following can happen?

(A) Lac operon will not be induced even in the presence of lactose
(B) Lac operon will be constitutively expressed
(C) Lac operon will be turned on in the presence of lactose and off in the absence
of lactose
(D) Lac operon will be induced in the absence of lactose

146. Which of the following is a second messenger?

(A) Vitamin D
(B) IGF
(C) Acetyl choline
(D) cAMP

147. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the
dark reaction of photosynthesis?

(A) Dark reaction takes place only in the absence of light
(B) Dark reaction includes the Calvin Cycle
(C) Dark reaction requires ATP and NADPH
(D) Carbohydrates are formed in dark reaction

148. Which of the following organisms is INCORRECTLY paired with its trophic level?

(A) Cyanobacterium—primary producer
(B) Grasshopper—primary consumer
(C) Zooplankton—primary producer
(D) Eagle—tertiary consumer

149. The discipline that applies ecological principles to return degraded ecosystems to a
more natural state is known as

(A) population viability analysis
(B) restoration ecology
(C) landscape ecology
(D) resource conservation

150. Genetic variation in bacterial populations cannot result from

(A) Transduction
(B) Mutation
(C) Meiosis
(D) Conjugation

FINAL ANSWER KEY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 D 61 C 91 B 121 B
2 A 32 A 62 A 92 D 122 C
3 B 33 B 63 B 93 D 123 A
4 A 34 D 64 B 94 B 124 B
5 C 35 C 65 C 95 C 125 B
6 A 36 D 66 C 96 C 126 A
7 B 37 C 67 A 97 D 127 B
8 C 38 D 68 C 98 B 128 A
9 B 39 C 69 D 99 A 129 D
10 D 40 A 70 D 100 A 130 C
11 C 41 D 71 A 101 A 131 B
12 C 42 A 72 A 102 C 132 D
13 B 43 A 73 B 103 D 133 B
14 B 44 A 74 D 104 B 134 D
15 C 45 C 75 C 105 D 135 A
16 B 46 A 76 B 106 A 136 C
17 C 47 C 77 D 107 C 137 B
18 C 48 D 78 A 108 C 138 A
19 B 49 D 79 C 109 B 139 A
20 D 50 C 80 D 110 C 140 A
21 A 51 A 81 A 111 D 141 C
22 B 52 D 82 D 112 C 142 C
23 A 53 A 83 B 113 A 143 D
24 A 54 A 84 C 114 B 144 D
25 C 55 B 85 A 115 D 145 A
26 B 56 D 86 C 116 C 146 D
27 B 57 D 87 B 117 B 147 A
28 A 58 B 88 C 118 C 148 C
29 C 59 C 89 C 119 A 149 B
30 D 60 C 90 A 120 B 150 C