SSC JE 2022 Question Paper Electrical 16 Nov

CAREER

QUESTION
PAPER
2022
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
JUNIOR ENGINEERS EXAM
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION PAPER

Junior Engineer Civil Mechanical Electrical and Quantity Surveying and
Contracts Examination 2022
Roll Number
Candidate Name
Venue Name
Exam Date 16/11/2022
Exam Time 5:00 PM - 7:00 PM
Subject Junior Engineer 2022 Electrical

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given parts of a car in a
logical and meaningful order.
1. Windshield
2. Headlight
3. Boot
4. Steering
5. Seats
Ans 1. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3

2. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

3. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

4. 1, 2, 5, 4, 3

Q.3 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a
logical and meaningful order.
1. Job post
2. Job offer
3. Vacancy
4. Selection
5. Interview
Ans 1. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

2. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

3. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

4. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

Question ID : 26433067759

Q.4 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the
given series, will complete the series.
G _ H _ HH _ _ H G _ H
Ans 1. HGGHH

2. HGHGH

3. HHGGH

4. GGHGG

Question ID : 26433057733

Q.5 Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
WIDU, CVYI, ?, OVOK, UIJY
Ans 1. IITW

2. IHRE

3. JIEW

4. JSWE

Question ID : 26433079433

Q.6 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following set.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(4, 131, 5)
(2, −11, 3)
Ans 1. (6, 953, 7)

2. (1, −5, 2)

3. (2, −31, 4)

4. (8, 1120, 9)

Question ID : 26433067935

Q.7 ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.
If P × M ÷ S × R – T + Q, then which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Ans 1. S is the mother of Q.

2. P is R’s mother’s sister

3. P is T’s father’s mother’s sister.

4. R is the father of Q.

Question ID : 26433056925

Q.8 In this question three statements are given followed by three conclusions I, II and III.
You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:
All metals are solids.
Some solids are conductors.
No conductor is black.

Conclusions:
(I) Some metals are conductors.
(II) No solid is black.
(III) All conductors are solids.
Ans 1. None of the conclusions follow.

2. Only conclusion III follows.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. All conclusions I, II and III follow.

Question ID : 26433057927

Q.9 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word
is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English
words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of
consonants/vowels in the word.)
Waiter : Restaurant :: Chef : ?
Ans 1. Food

2. Kitchen

3. Office

4. Hotel

Question ID : 26433067361

Q.10

Ans 1. 20

2. 24

3. 18

4. 28

Question ID : 26433066054

Q.11

Ans 1. +, ̶ , ÷, ×, =, +

2. ̶ , +, ÷, ×, =, +

3. ̶ , +, ×, =, ÷, +

4. ̶ , ̶ , ÷, =, ×, +

Question ID : 26433067484

Q.12 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a
logical and meaningful order. (Top to Bottom)
1.Ankle
2.Feet
3.Knee
4.Thighs
5.Toe Fingers
Ans 1. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2

2. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

3. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

4. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

Question ID : 26433067754

Q.13 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is
related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
10 : –400 :: 4 : ? :: 6 : –72
Ans 1. –16

2. –20

3. –28

4. –24

Question ID : 26433092718

Q.14 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the *
signs and to balance the given equation.
12*10*41*100*61
Ans 1. +,+,=, −

2. ×, −,=, −

3. ×,+,=,+

4. +,=,×,+

Question ID : 26433057952

Q.15 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would
appear in an English dictionary.
1.Grapevine
2.Grudge
3.Grapple
4.Grunt
5.Grapes
6.Gruelling
7.Grumpy
Ans 1. 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 6, 4

2. 5, 1, 3, 2, 6, 7, 4

3. 1, 5, 3, 2, 6, 7, 4

4. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 7, 4

Question ID : 26433067554

Q.16

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433056108

Q.17 J, K, L, M, N, O, P are sitting in a circle facing the centre. N is the immediate neighbour
of J and M. P is not the immediate neighbour of O and L. O is to the immediate right of
J. Who sits to the immediate right of N?
Ans 1. O

2. M

3. P

4. J

Q.18 Person A starts moving towards the North and walks 4 km. He then turns right and
walks 8 km. He takes a left turn and walks 2 km and then turns left again and walks 8
km. How much and in which direction does he need to walk now to reach the point
from where he started?
Ans 1. 6 km South

2. 2 km South

3. 4 km North

4. 2 km North

Question ID : 26433068158

Q.19 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
195 × 39 ÷ 3 + 58 - 23 = 50
Ans 1. − and ÷

2. × and ÷

3. ÷ and +

4. + and ×

Q.20 Town D is to the north of Town A. Town B is to the west of Town A. Town M is to the
south of Town B. Town C is to the west of Town D. Town B is to the south of town
C.Town M is to the south-west of Town A. What is the position of Town B with respect
to Town D?
Ans 1. North-west

2. North

3. West

4. South-west

Question ID : 26433076692

Q.21 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to
right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series.
_MEAA_TMM__AN_M_EA_NT
Ans 1. M E A M T M A

2. M M A E T A M

3. M N E A T M A

4. M E A T M M A

Question ID : 26433067745

Q.22 If ÷ means +, + means −, − means ×, and × means ÷, then which of the following
equations is correct?
Ans 1. 15 - 3 + 10 × 5 ÷ 5 = 48

2. 15 - 3 + 10 × 5 ÷ 5 = 55

3. 15 - 3 + 10 × 5 ÷ 5 = 46

4. 15 - 3 + 10 × 5 ÷ 5 = 50

Question ID : 26433082775

Q.23 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark
(?) in the following series.
211, 158, 187, ?, 163, 110, 139
Ans 1. 132

2. 134

3. 138

4. 140

Question ID : 26433057033

Q.24 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to
right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series.
HF__HFD_HF_VHFDV__DV
Ans 1. DDVVHF

2. DVDDHF

3. DVHHDF

4. DVVDHF

Question ID : 26433056240

Q.25 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming
the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All diamonds are gems.
All gems are ornaments.
Conclusions:
I. Some ornaments are diamonds.
II. All ornaments are gems.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Question ID : 26433056692

Q.26 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the given sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(14, 29, 59)
(6, 13, 27)
Ans 1. (13, 26, 52)

2. (5, 15, 33)

3. (11, 23, 47)

4. (9, 20, 42)

Question ID : 26433057085

Q.27 L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are seven friends of different heights. O is taller than five of his
friends. P is taller than only L. M is taller than three of his friends and shorter than
three of his friends. R is not the tallest. Q is immediately shorter than M. Who amongst
the seven friends is the tallest?
Ans 1. M

2. O

3. L

4. N

Question ID : 26433068756

Q.28

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433058098

Q.29 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two
words in the given pair.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related
to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the
word)
Immerse : Emerge
Ans 1. Mitigate : Relieve

2. Instill : Inject

3. Jovial : Cheerful

4. Obvious : Obscure

Question ID : 26433068484

Q.30 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is
related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
15 : 60 :: 9 : ? :: 10 : 35
Ans 1. 39

2. 45

3. 27

4. 30

Question ID : 26433057578

Q.31

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433055957

Q.32 In a code language, 'TURNIP' is coded as WXUQLS and 'ORANGE' is coded as
RUDQJH. How will 'GRAPES' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. JUESHV

2. JUDSHV

3. JVDSHW

4. KVDSHU

Question ID : 26433057893

Q.33 In a certain code language, 'OTHERS' is written as 'RQDGSN' and 'SCHOOL' is written
as 'KNNGBR'.How will 'SPORTS' be written in that language?
Ans 1. RSQOOQ

2. RSQNOR

3. RTQNOR

4. RSQNPR

Question ID : 26433056665

Q.34 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word
is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English
words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of
consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ignore : Notice :: Extinguish : ?
Ans 1. Put out

2. Quench

3. Douse

4. Kindle

Question ID : 26433067389

Q.35 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
2, 5, 13, 36, ?
Ans 1. 104

2. 108

3. 105

4. 110

Question ID : 26433067884

Q.36

Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 5

4. 6

Question ID : 26433076574

Q.37 In a certain code language, ‘CAUGHT’ is written as ‘AYSEFR’ and ‘PERFECT’ is written
as ‘NCPDCAR’. How will ‘REALIZE’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. SFBMJAF

2. PCYJGXC

3. SGCMKBC

4. QDZKHYD

Question ID : 26433056579

Q.38 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is
related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
62 : 39 :: 78 : ? :: 58 : 37
Ans 1. 43

2. 49

3. 47

4. 52

Question ID : 26433057583

Q.39

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433057805

Q.40

Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 1

4. 4

Question ID : 26433076568

Q.41 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
MWYP, QAWN, ?, YISJ, CMQH
Ans 1. SCXN

2. UEUL

3. RCXM

4. SBYO

Question ID : 26433068046

Q.42 In a certain code language, ‘PRISON’ is written as ‘QTJUPP’ and ‘RECORD’ is written
as ‘SGDQSF’. How will ‘OBTAIN’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. PDUCLO

2. PDUDKO

3. PDECKO

4. PDUCJP

Question ID : 26433056915

Q.43

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433057378

Q.44 Six friends, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated in a row facing north. There are exactly two
seats to the left of B. F is an immediate neighbour of both B and D. E is not at either of
the extreme seats of the row. C is not an immediate neighbour of E. If A and D decide
to swap their positions, what will be the new position of A?
Ans 1. Second to the left of F

2. Third to the right of E

3. Extreme right of the row

4. Third from the right end

Question ID : 26433068372

Q.45 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would
appear in an English dictionary.
1.Neuter
2.Newman
3.Neurology
4.Nuisance
5.Newfoundland
6.Neutral
7.Newest
Ans 1. 3, 1, 6, 7, 2, 5, 4

2. 3, 1, 6, 7, 5, 2, 4

3. 3, 1, 6, 5, 7, 2, 4

4. 3, 6, 1, 7, 2, 5, 4

Question ID : 26433067555

Q.46 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word
is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English
words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of
consonants/vowels in the word)
Rooster : Hen :: Fox : ?
Ans 1. Wolf

2. Ewe

3. Vixen

4. Doe

Question ID : 26433065627

Q.47 Gopi is Kishan's brother. Ram is Kishan's father. Geetha is Kishan's sister. How is
Geetha related to Gopi?
Ans 1. Daughter

2. Wife

3. Mother

4. Sister

Question ID : 26433070337

Q.48

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433058103

Q.49 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) and complete the
given number series?
5, 6, 14, 45, ?
Ans 1. 188

2. 182

3. 186

4. 184

Question ID : 26433067476

Q.50 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word
is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related
to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the
word)
Drawing : Paper :: Driving : ?
Ans 1. Steering

2. Road

3. Driver

4. Wheel

Question ID : 26433055933

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 According to the Köppen type of climate, the code Af represents:
Ans 1. humid subtropical climate

2. marine west coast climate

3. tropical wet climate

4. tropical monsoon climate

Question ID : 26433059144

Q.2 Which national park, located in a north-eastern state, is famous for being the only park
in India to have four big cat species namely panther, tiger, cloud leopard and snow
leopard?
Ans 1. Dachigam National Park

2. Nanda Devi National Park

3. Periyar National Park

4. Namdapha National Park

Question ID : 26433055131

Q.3 Probiotics can be defined as:
Ans 1. live microorganisms that are intended to have health benefits when consumed or
applied to the body
2. endotoxin producing bacteria, which can lead to diarrhoea

3. protozoan parasites of humans

4. live microorganisms that pose a health threat when consumed or applied to the body

Question ID : 26433054037

Q.4 When did the United Nations declare the World Physics Year, also known as the
Einstein Year, to mark the 100th anniversary of the physicist Albert Einstein?
Ans 1. 2005

2. 2002

3. 2004

4. 2006

Question ID : 264330100045
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.5 Love can best be expressed in which form of rasa?
Ans 1. Veera rasa

2. Shringaara rasa

3. Roudra rasa

4. Bibhatsa rasa

Question ID : 26433086569
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.6 Who among the following opened his dance school by the name ‘Kalashram’?
Ans 1. Shambhu Maharaj

2. Mohanrao Kallianpurkar

3. Birju Maharaj

4. Sundar Prasad

Question ID : 26433072886

Q.7 Which article of the Constitution of India guarantees equality of opportunity for all
citizens in matters relating to employment and appointment to any office under the
state?
Ans 1. Article 18

2. Article 17

3. Article 19

4. Article 16

Question ID : 26433089266

Q.8 Operation Flood is associated with:
Ans 1. pulses

2. potatoes

3. fish

4. milk

Question ID : 26433054810

Q.9 Which is the third layer of soil from the top?
Ans 1. Top soil

2. Substratum

3. Sub soil

4. Unweathered parent rock

Question ID : 26433086759

Q.10 Consider the following statements about the retreating monsoon of India.
1) The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons.
2) The South-west monsoons becomes South-east monsoons.
3) A bulk of the rainfall of the Coromondal coast is derived from these depressions
and cyclones.
4) In northern India, it is comparatively dry and temperatures begin to fall.
5) Three-fourths of the total rain in the country is received during the retreating
monsoon season.
Which of the above are true?
Ans 1. All except 5

2. Only statements 1, 2 and 3

3. Only statements 2, 3 and 4

4. Only statements 1, 3 and 4

Question ID : 26433055313
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.11 Which protein is naturally found in some grains including wheat, barley and rye?
Ans 1. Gluten

2. Maltase

3. Renin

4. Pepsin

Question ID : 26433054051

Q.12 Deficiency of which vitamin can cause skin disorders, hyperaemia (excess blood) and
swelling of the mouth and throat, angular stomatitis (sores on the corners of the
mouth) and hair loss?
Ans 1. Vitamin A

2. Vitamin C

3. Vitamin D

4. Vitamin B2

Question ID : 26433055113

Q.13 At present, how many fundamental duties are mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. 10

2. 12

3. 13

4. 11

Question ID : 26433064818

Q.14 In December 2021, what is the amount of overdraft for which the provision was made
under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-
NRLM) for verified SHG members having accounts under the Prime Minister Jan Dhan
Yojana with Banks?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433082835
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.15 Which of the following phylums represent triploblastic animals?
Ans 1. Platyhelminthes, Echinodermata and Chordata

2. Annelida, Platyhelminthes and Porifera

3. Protozoa, Nematoda and Porifera

4. Protozoa, Platyhelminthes and Porifera

Question ID : 26433054029

Q.16 Which port is known as 'Gateway of Eastern India’?
Ans 1. Paradip Port

2. Port Blair Port

3. Visakhapatnam Port

4. Kolkata Port

Question ID : 264330100073

Q.17 In March 2022, who was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Punjab?
Ans 1. Bhagwant Mann

2. Parkash Singh Badal

3. Navjot Singh Sidhu

4. Amarinder Singh

Question ID : 26433081820

Q.18 In which of the following decades was there a negative growth rate of population in
India?
Ans 1. 1931-1941

2. 1951-1961

3. 1971-1981

4. 1911-1921

Question ID : 26433089249

Q.19 Which of the following is an example of an oscillatory motion?
Ans 1. Moving of an object in a straight line

2. To and fro motion of a simple pendulum

3. Dropping of an object from a height

4. Moving of a bus in a circular path

Question ID : 264330100743

Q.20 Which of the following organisations publishes the ‘WORLD ECONOMIC OUTLOOK’
report?
Ans 1. World Bank

2. Asian Development Bank

3. International Monetary Fund

4. Reserve Bank of India

Question ID : 264330100712

Q.21 Which of the following is an example of a vector quantity?
Ans 1. Volume

2. Mass

3. Temperature

4. Velocity

Question ID : 26433064405

Q.22 Which of the following laws works in constant pressure?
Ans 1. Graham’s law

2. Thomson’s law

3. Boyle’s law

4. Charle’s law

Question ID : 26433064134

Q.23 Who was the author of Buddhacharita?
Ans 1. Nagarjuna

2. Vasumitra

3. Hala

4. Ashvaghosha

Question ID : 26433065575

Q.24 Which of the following is the main objective of Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways?
Ans 1. To reduce the time and distance between the mega cities

2. To link rural areas and villages to the cities

3. To link a state capital with the different district headquarters

4. To connect the district headquarters with other places of the district

Question ID : 264330100084

Q.25 Which is the only streptococcal species widely used in food fermentation, especially
for yogurt manufacturing?
Ans 1. Streptococcus pyogenes

2. Streptococcus agalactiae

3. Streptococcus thermophilus

4. Streptococcus viridans

Question ID : 26433055810

Q.26 In which of the following Nobel Peace Prize Concerts did Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
perform the ‘Rage for Peace’ along with his sons Ayaan Ali Khan and Amaan Ali
Khan?
Ans 1. 2014

2. 2012

3. 2016

4. 2018

Question ID : 26433054463
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.27 According to the sport, identify which of the following sportspersons is different from
the rest.
Ans 1. Kapil Dev

2. Leander Paes

3. Anil Kumble

4. Rahul Dravid

Question ID : 264330100726

Q.28 The Halda festival is celebrated in which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Meghalaya

4. Karnataka

Question ID : 26433064333

Q.29 Name the mirror which is used in the side mirrors of cars.
Ans 1. Plane

2. Parabolic

3. Convex

4. Concave

Question ID : 26433064408

Q.30 _________ was the Governor General of India when the Permanent Settlement was
introduced.
Ans 1. Lord Linlithgow

2. Lord Cornwallis

3. Lord Irwin

4. Lord William Bentinck

Question ID : 26433089139

Q.31 Hideki Yukawa, who received the Nobel Prize in 1949, is well known for which
discovery?
Ans 1. Thermal ionization

2. Measurement of electronic charge

3. Theory of nuclear forces

4. Cascade process of cosmic radiation

Question ID : 264330100015
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.32 If one flies from north to south over India, which would be the correct order of the
rivers?
1) Kaveri
2) Mahanadi
3) Krishna
4) Ganga
5) Godavari
Ans 1. 4-2-5-3-1

2. 1-2-3-4-5

3. 1-3-5-2-4

4. 5-2-1-3-4

Question ID : 26433092852
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.33 Which team became the first Indian sports team to unveil an official team logo in the
metaverse in February 2022?
Ans 1. Mumbai Indians

2. Chennai Super Kings

3. Gujarat Titans

4. Delhi Capitals

Question ID : 26433081837

Q.34 Which of the following is NOT a herbivore?
Ans 1. Hawk

2. Rabbit

3. Grasshopper

4. Sheep

Question ID : 264330100710

Q.35 Which of the following through its Micro Credit Innovations Department has continued
its role as the facilitator of microfinance initiatives in the country?
Ans 1. IFCI

2. NABARD

3. SIDBI

4. IDBI

Question ID : 26433064856

Q.36 In which year was the last Fundamental Duty inserted in the list of duties in the
Constitution?
Ans 1. 2001

2. 2003

3. 2002

4. 2004

Question ID : 26433071652

Q.37 Who among the following leaders called Bal Gangadhar Tilak as ‘the maker of modern
India’?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Lala Lajpat Rai

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Subhash Chandra Bose

Question ID : 26433081955

Q.38 The famous tribal revolt of __________ took place in 1906 in Assam against British
policies.
Ans 1. Tirot Sing

2. Kalicharan Brahma

3. Songram Sangma

4. Haipou Jadonang

Question ID : 26433085272
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.39 Which of the following is NOT a function of money?
Ans 1. Medium of exchange

2. Store of value

3. Unit of account

4. Price stability

Question ID : 26433065424

Q.40 Which cell organelle is tubular in form and lacks ribosomes and are associated with
the production and metabolism of fats and steroid hormones?
Ans 1. Vacuoles

2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

3. Lysosome

4. Cytosol

Question ID : 26433055122

Q.41
Dr Jitendra Singh (Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science and
Technology) launched the Amrit Grand Challenge Programme titled __________ in
September 2021, to identify 75 innovations in Telemedicine, AI, Digital Health and BIG
Data by Start-ups and Entrepreneurs.
Ans 1. DHANTECH

2. DHANCARE

3. JANCARE

4. JANTECH

Question ID : 26433081801

Q.42 As of 10 April 2022, who among the following has been the longest serving Prime
Minister of India?
Ans 1. Narendra Modi

2. Manmohan Singh

3. Indira Gandhi

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.43 The disqualification of the membership of a State Legislature is laid down in which
Article of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 190

2. Article 14

3. Article 144

4. Article 191

Question ID : 26433089975

Q.44 Based on evidence from seismic waves, heat flows and meteorites, which layer of
Earth is made up of rock that represents 84% ​of the Earth's total volume?
Ans 1. Outer core

2. Inner core

3. Mantle

4. Oceanic crust

Question ID : 26433055825

Q.45 What is the mass number of nitrogen?
Ans 1. 10

2. 7

3. 14

4. 12

Question ID : 264330100705

Q.46 In March 2022, who broke the legendary Kapil Dev's, 40-year-old record of ‘the fastest
Test Fifty’ by an Indian?
Ans 1. MS Dhoni

2. R Ashwin

3. Rishabh Pant

4. Shreyas Iyer

Question ID : 26433055053

Q.47 Which of the following Ministries launched Y-Break App for working professionals in
September 2021?
Ans 1. Ministry of Defence

2. Ministry of Health and Family welfare

3. Ministry of Tourism

4. Ministry of AYUSH

Question ID : 26433082810

Q.48 In India, what type of unemployment is created due to lack of employable skills among
the educated youths in India?
Ans 1. Cyclical unemployment

2. Technological unemployment

3. Structural unemployment

4. Educated unemployment

Question ID : 264330100024

Q.49 The 3rd edition of the SAFF U-18 Women's Football Championship was held in
________ in March 2022.
Ans 1. Jharkhand

2. Bihar

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Maharashtra

Question ID : 26433089935

Q.50 Which of the following is a major component of bio-gas?
Ans 1. Propane

2. Hexane

3. Methane

4. Butane

Question ID : 264330100701

Section : Part B General Engineering Electrical

Q.1 For n-JFET, the channel is a/an ___________________ channel and gates are
____________.
Ans 1. P type; N type

2. N type; N type

3. N type; P type

4. P type; P type

Question ID : 26433096069

Q.2 A short transmission line has impedance value of 20 Ω. The values of A, B, C and D
parameters of the short transmission line are ______________, respectively.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433099228

Q.3 The direction of motion of the conductor, according to Fleming’s right hand rule is
indicated by ________.
Ans 1. fore finger

2. thumb

3. both fore finger and middle finger

4. middle finger

Question ID : 26433096854

Q.4

Ans 1. 13 H

2. 10 H

3. 6 H

4. 12 H

Question ID : 26433096864
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.5 If 5A current flows through a circuit for 5 minutes, then calculate the total charge.
Ans 1. 1500 C

2. 100 C

3. 25 C

4. 300 C

Question ID : 26433096430

Q.6 A 20 m long and 10 m wide room is to be illuminated to a level of 300 lux. Find the
number of lamps needed to illuminate the whole area if a lumen output of 5000 lumens
is required (Given Utilisation factor = 0.7 and Maintenance factor = 0.9).
Ans 1. 19

2. 38

3. 25

4. 9

Question ID : 26433098126

Q.7 The ripple factor for a half-wave rectifier without filter is ___________.
Ans 1. 81.2

2. 0.482

3. 1.21

4. 40.6

Question ID : 26433096056

Q.8 Damper windings are used in synchronous generator to:
Ans 1. provide starting torque

2. carry leakage current

3. carry magnetic flux

4. maintain balanced 3-phase voltage under unbalanced condition

Question ID : 26433096557

Q.9 The load factor is defined as the ________.
Ans 1. maximum load divided by the peak load in a specified time period

2. maximum load divided by the average load in a specified time period

3. average load divided by the average load in a specified time period

4. average load divided by the peak load in a particular time period

Question ID : 26433096595

Q.10

Ans 1. 25 J

2. 350 J

3. 250 J

4. 100 J

Question ID : 26433096386

Q.11 What are the signs of wattmeter W1 and W2 , respectively, if the power factor of the
system is 0.5?
Ans 1. Negative and positive

2. Positive and negative

3. Positive and positive

4. Positive and 0

Question ID : 26433096900

Q.12 The magnetisation branch of an equivalent circuit of a transformer is drawn in
________ with supply voltage.
Ans 1. both series and parallel

2. Neither series nor parallel

3. series only

4. parallel only

Question ID : 26433096696

Q.13

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433096659

Q.14 In a series RLC circuit, R=4Ω, L=4 mH and C= 20 μF.What is the value of Q-factor?
Ans 1. 0.0176

2. 7.07

3. 3.535

4. 0.0707

Question ID : 26433095570

Q.15 Earthing is required to protect apparatus, equipment, machines etc. from ________.
Ans 1. excess current

2. excess voltage

3. leakage impedance

4. leakage current

Question ID : 26433099279

Q.16 What frequency does the sinusoidal signal have that occupies five horizontal divisions
and three vertical divisions on a CRO for a full cycle if the time base is set to 1 ms per
division?
Ans 1. 1KHz

2. 100Hz

3. 250Hz

4. 200Hz

Question ID : 26433096498

Q.17 The efficiency of a large transformer under full load condition is found by conducting
which of the following tests?
Ans 1. OC test

2. Core balance test

3. Sumpner’s test

4. SC test

Question ID : 26433096091

Q.18 The tripping of circuit due to earthing in case of faults saves wastage of electrical
energy due to ________.
Ans 1. supply of excess current

2. supply of excess voltage

3. drawing of excess current

4. supply frequency

Question ID : 26433099280

Q.19 For applications such as induction furnace control, ________ motor is used.
Ans 1. shaded pole single phase motor

2. single value capacitor run motor

3. two value capacitor run motor

4. repulsion motor

Question ID : 26433099626

Q.20 How many pressure coils and current coils, respectively, are present in a three-phase
dynamometer wattmeter?
Ans 1. There are two pressure coils and two current coils

2. There is no pressure coil and no current coil

3. There is one pressure coil and one current coil

4. There are three pressure coils and three current coils

Question ID : 26433098184

Q.21 All tenders received for the same contract are opened by the competent authority in
person at the advertised time and place in the presence of ________.
Ans 1. both agents and contractors

2. agents of intending contractors only

3. either agents or contractors

4. intending contractors only

Question ID : 26433099543

Q.22 Before taking work in hand, even the contractor following good management practices
may be unaware of ________.
Ans 1. analysis of costs

2. availability of products

3. contingencies

4. specifications

Question ID : 26433099549

Q.23 Feeders are mainly designed from the point of view of __________.
Ans 1. number of tapings from it

2. its current carrying capacity

3. frequency of the system

4. voltage drops in it

Question ID : 26433099245

Q.24 A coil having pure inductance of 0.2 H is connected in series with a 60μFcapacitor.The
voltage across the circuit is 230V, 50Hz. The active power consumed by the circuit is:
Ans 1. 0 watts

2. 10 watts

3. 100 watts

4. 460 watts

Question ID : 26433095559

Q.25 The unit of magnetic flux in terms of lines of force is ________.
Ans 1. 1 wb = 10-8 lines of force

2. 1 wb = 108 lines of force

3. 1 wb = 106 lines of force

4. 1 wb = 10-6 lines of force

Question ID : 26433096840

Q.26 Which of the following statements is NOT true about a series LC circuit?
Ans 1. The total voltage across the terminals is equal to the difference between the voltage
across the capacitor and voltage across inductor.
2. It consumes some energy because of the non zero resistance of the components as
connecting wires.
3. It is also known as a tank circuit.

4. It consumes no energy in the ideal form.

Question ID : 26433095560

Q.27 When a rated load with 0.8 lagging power factor is supplied, the terminal voltage of a
three phase star connected alternator with a certain interference is 6600 V (line-to-line
value). With the same interference, the voltage developed in the open circuit is 7154 V
(phase value). What will be the value of voltage regulation of the alternator?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433096548

Q.28 Which of the following statements about film lighting is FALSE?
Ans 1. A tungsten light has the maximum Colour Rendering Index used in film lighting.

2. The colour temperature of fluorescent lamps is lower than that of incandescent
lamps.
3. A tungsten light does not make use of mercury vapour lights as in fluorescent lamps.

4. Hydrargyrum Medium Arc Iodide (HMI) are flicker-free lights.

Question ID : 26433098172

Q.29

Ans 1. -5V

2. 5V

3. 10V

4. 25V

Question ID : 26433096442

Q.30 A machine working with DC and its construction, similar to AC synchronous machine,
is a/an ________.
Ans 1. commutator motor

2. brushless DC motor

3. induction motor

4. conventional DC motor

Question ID : 26433096693

Q.31 Which of the following statements is NOT true about bandwidth in an RLC parallel
circuit?
Ans 1. Bandwidth is the ratio of quality factor to the resonant frequency.

2. Bandwidth is defined as the size of frequency range that is passed or rejected by the
tuned circuit.
3. Formula for calculating bandwidth is the same for series and parallel circuit.

4. Bandwidth can be given in terms of resonant frequency and quality factor.

Question ID : 26433095550

Q.32 Which of the following statements is/are FALSE with regard to shell type
transformers?
(i) Power transfer capability is more.
(ii) The main disadvantage of shell type transformers is that maintenance is not easy.
(iii) The losses are high.
Ans 1. Only (iii)

2. Only (i)

3. (i) and (ii)

4. (i) and (iii)

Question ID : 26433096103

Q.33 Norton’s theorem can be applied to _____.
Ans 1. only nonlinear unilateral networks

2. both linear and nonlinear networks

3. linear networks

4. only nonlinear networks

Question ID : 26433096465

Q.34 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Ans 1. While designing a distributor, voltage drop is not considered.

2. Service mains connect consumers to the distributor directly.

3. Tapings are taken from the distributors for supply of consumers.

4. Voltage drop is the main consideration in design of distributors.

Question ID : 26433099243

Q.35 Which of the following statements are true?
a) The electric power from 11 kV lines is delivered to distribution sub-station.
b) Distribution sub-stations are located near consumers localities.
c) Distribution sub-stations step down the voltage to 400 V(L-L).
Ans 1. (a) and (c) only

2. (a) and (b) only

3. (a), (b) and (c)

4. (b) and (c) only

Question ID : 26433099242

Q.36 A 230 V lamp has a total flux of 1000 lumens and takes a current of 0.5 A. The MSCP
per watt of the lamp is:
Ans 1. 1.38

2. 0.69

3. 6.9

4. 0.138

Question ID : 26433098124

Q.37 The ratio of the RMS value to the average value of an AC is known as:
Ans 1. amplitude factor

2. crest factor

3. peak factor

4. form factor

Question ID : 26433095580

Q.38 A circuit has an inductance of 20H. If the current in the circuit changes at the rate of
50mA/sec, then self-induced EMF is ______.
Ans 1. 1 mV

2. 100 V

3. 1 V

4. 1000 V

Question ID : 26433096390

Q.39 Which of the following statements does NOT come under the advantages of stationary
armature in an alternator?
Ans 1. It is easy to insulate sliprings which are on DC.

2. It needs only two slip rings on DC side.

3. The stator weight is less compared to rotor weight.

4. Sparking at brushes is completely avoided.

Question ID : 26433096555

Q.40 The cable rating suitable for connecting a load of 3 kW to a single-phase supply of 230
V is ________.
Ans 1. 20 A

2. 10 A

3. 5 A

4. 15 A

Question ID : 26433099554

Q.41

Ans 1. 0 A

2. 4 A

3. 2.5 A

4. 1 A

Question ID : 26433096464
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.42 The toroid is _______.
Ans 1. a circular carrying conductor

2. a long straight current carrying conductor bent to form circular shape

3. a solenoid bent in circular shape and ends are joined

4. a bar magnet

Question ID : 26433096920

Q.43 What is the power factor angle of an RC series circuit?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433095561

Q.44 A 4400-watt electric heater has a resistance of 11Ω. What will be the maximum
permissible current?
Ans 1. 400 amp

2. 200 amp

3. 20 amp

4. 40 amp

Question ID : 26433096394

Q.45 A 120 Ω resistor is in parallel with a capacitor with a capacitive reactance of 40Ω.Both
components are across a 20 V AC source.What is the magnitude of the total current
through the circuit?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433095548
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.46 For a germanium diode having a forward current of 10mA and 30ns as charge carrier
transit time, the diffusion capacitance is ___________.
Ans 1. 105 F
2. 1 nF

3. 2 nF

4. 90000 nF

Question ID : 26433096052

Q.47 What are the other systems, outside the driving and registering system of the single-
phase energy meter, make up the fundamental components of construction?
Ans 1. Series System, Braking System

2. Moving System, Braking System

3. Moving System, Parallel System

4. Magnetic Flux System, Shunt System

Question ID : 26433096494

Q.48 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Ans 1. Future extension is easy for outdoor substation.

2. The cost of outdoor substation is higher than indoor substation.

3. Outdoor substation requires more space as compared to indoor substation.

4. Outdoor substation requires less time for erection.

Question ID : 26433099240

Q.49 In an electric circuit, a 10V voltage source is connected in series with a 2Ω resistance.
the dual of this circuit consists of:
Ans 1. 5A current source and a 2S conductance

2. 10A current source and a 2S conductance

3. 10V voltage source and a 2S conductance

4. 5A current source and a 2Ω resistance

Q.50

Ans 1. 12A

2. −2A

3. 10A

4. 2A

Question ID : 26433096477
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.51 What is the voltage range generally used in medium transmission lines?
Ans 1. 20 kV to 100 kV

2. 400 kV to 700 kV

3. More than 700 kV

4. 200 kV to 400 kV

Question ID : 26433099229

Q.52 The area under daily integrated load duration curve is equal to the ________.
Ans 1. current generated per day

2. voltage generated per day

3. frequency generated per day

4. units generated per day

Question ID : 26433096606

Q.53 Consider the following statements about features of a hysteresis motor and select the
suitable combination of correct choices.
a.Its hysteresis torque remains practically constant from locked rotor to synchronous
speed.
b.Hysteresis motor is able to accelerate at any load.
c.It operates quietly and does not suffer from magnetic pulsations.
d.Hysteresis motor is subject to mechanical vibrations.
Ans 1. a, c and d are correct

2. Only d is correct

3. Only b is correct

4. a, b and c are correct

Question ID : 26433096566
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.54 The load curve is the curve showing the ________ on the power station with respect to
time.
Ans 1. huge load

2. less load

3. variation of load

4. constant load

Question ID : 26433096888

Q.55

Ans 1. 0A and 8V

2. 0A and 0V

3. 2A and 8V

4. 2A and 0V

Question ID : 26433096458

Q.56 An overall power generation economics is E= a+bKW+ckWH, where c is ________.
Ans 1. waste charge

2. constant charge

3. running charge

4. fixed charge

Question ID : 26433096592

Q.57 Angle reflectors are used to provide illumination in a vertical plane, where reflectors
used are of the ________.
Ans 1. standard type

2. concentrating type

3. enclosed type

4. diffusing type

Question ID : 26433099283

Q.58 If the voltage across a 5µF capacitor is V(t) = 40 Cos(6000t) volt, then the current
through it is:
Ans 1. -1.2 sin(6000t) amp

2. 1.2 cos(6000t) amp

3. -1.2 cos(6000t) amp

4. 1.2 sin(6000t) amp

Question ID : 26433096388

Q.59 Which of the following statements is WRONG with respect to magnetic circuits?
Ans 1. The reluctance in magnetic circuits is analogous to the resistance in electric circuits.

2. The reluctance of a magnetic circuit depends on the material used in it.

3. The flux in magnetic circuits is analogous to the current in electric circuits.

4. The reluctance causes the waste of energy.

Question ID : 264330100953

Q.60 Consider the following statements about characteristics of reluctance motor and
select the suitable combination of correct choices.
a.Reluctance motors cannot accelerate high inertia loads to the synchronous speed.
b.Reluctance motors can accelerate high inertia loads to the synchronous speed.
c.Reluctance motors are cheaper than any other kind of synchronous machines.
d.Reluctance motors have constant speed characteristics.
Ans 1. b, c and d are correct

2. a, b and d are correct

3. a, c and d are correct

4. a, b and c are correct

Question ID : 26433096569

Q.61 A 2 kVA, 200/100 V, 400 Hz transformer is desired to be used at a frequency of 50 Hz.
What will be the voltage rating of the transformer at reduced frequency if the flux
density remains constant?
Ans 1. 25 V

2. 23 V

3. 41 V

4. 37 V

Question ID : 26433096090

Q.62 The boiler generates steam at ________.
Ans 1. high pressure and low temperature

2. high pressure and high temperature

3. low pressure and high temperature

4. low pressure and low temperature

Question ID : 26433096632

Q.63

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433096445

Q.64 The effective resistance of a 2200 V, 50 Hz, 440 KVA, single-phase alternator is 0.5 Ω.
On short circuit, a field current of 40 A gives the full load current of 200 A. The
electromotive force on open circuit with same field excitation is 1160 V. Calculate the
synchronous impedance.
Ans 1. 2.8 Ω

2. 3.8 Ω

3. 5.8 Ω

4. 4.8 Ω

Question ID : 26433096560
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.65 Under phantom loading testing of an energy meter, the power required to test is
___________ .
Ans 1. 1

2. infinite

3. very high

4. very low

Question ID : 26433096906

Q.66

Ans 1. 2 A

2. 10 A

3. 1 A

4. 3 A

Question ID : 26433096474
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.67 In an E-MOSFET, the surface is coated with ___________.
Ans 1. carbon dioxide

2. silicon dioxide

3. calcium oxide

4. sulphur oxide

Question ID : 26433096073

Q.68 The voltage and current through a pure inductor are V = 110 sin (314 t+450) volts and
i = 11 sin (314 t−450) amperes. Obtain the expression of power.
Ans 1. P = 605 sin 314 t

2. P = 605 sin 628 t

3. P = −605 sin 628 t

4. P = −605 sin 314 t

Question ID : 26433096122

Q.69 A hydroelectric generating station is supplied from a reservoir with a capacity of
5000000 cubic metres at a head of 200 metres and total energy available of 2.044×106
kWh and water density = 997 kg/m³. Find out overall efficiency.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433096616
Status : Not Answered

Chosen Option : --

Q.70 The insulating oil used in transformers is obtained by fractional distillation of
_________.
Ans 1. vegetable oil

2. crude petroleum

3. both animal oil and vegetable oil

4. animal oil

Question ID : 26433096102

Q.71 Choose the correct classification for Hydro power plant.
Ans 1. Non-renewable source of energy

2. Conventional source of energy

3. Continuous source of energy

4. Non-conventional source of energy

Question ID : 26433096614

Q.72 Which of the following concepts is applied in instruments of the electrodynamometer
type?
Ans 1. The force between two current carrying coils

2. The force between two permanent magnets

3. Magnitude effect

4. The force between a permanent magnet and a current carrying coil

Question ID : 26433096492

Q.73 A tender is usually accompanied with an amount called ________.
Ans 1. earnest money

2. purchase money

3. tender money

4. delivery money

Question ID : 26433099276

Q.74 Which of the following statements regarding the absorption factor in lighting purposes
is correct?
Ans 1. It is defined as the ratio of the change in the brightness after the light has been
absorbed by the surface.
2. It is defined as the ratio of the candle power before and after absorption of light.

3. It is defined as the ratio of total lumens available after absorption to the total lumens
emitted by the source of light.
4. It is defined as the ratio of utilisation factor to the depreciation factor.

Question ID : 26433098118

Q.75 The Sun is the ________ source of energy.
Ans 1. primary

2. secondary

3. fourth

4. third

Question ID : 26433096623

Q.76 Extra high-tension cables are used for the voltage level of ___________.
Ans 1. 132 kV to 400 kV

2. 0 to 1 kV

3. 33 kV to 66 kV

4. beyond 400 kV

Question ID : 26433099251

Q.77 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the line support used in
transmission and distribution lines?
a. Must have high mechanical strength.
b. Should have longer life.
c. Should be light in weight without the loss of mechanical strength.
Ans 1. (a), (b) and (c)

2. (a) and (c) only

3. (a) and (b) only

4. (b) and (c) only

Question ID : 26433099262

Q.78 A sinusoidal quantity can be expressed as:
Ans 1. polar form only

2. either polar or rectangular form

3. rectangular form only

4. co-ordinate form only

Question ID : 26433095557

Q.79 Which of the following methods can result in a square waveform?
Ans 1. Hartley oscillator

2. Multivibrators

3. Wien bridge oscillators

4. T-oscillator

Question ID : 26433096503

Q.80 Which of the following statements about voltage regulation of an alternator is NOT
correct?
Ans 1. Steady state short-circuit conditions and stability are not affected by the voltage
regulation.
2. Parallel operation of one alternator, with other alternators, is affected considerably by
its voltage regulation.
3. Steady state short-circuit conditions and stability are affected by the voltage
regulation.
4. Voltage regulation determines the type of automatic voltage-control equipment to be
used.

Question ID : 26433096547

Q.81 Demand factor is taken as a ________.
Ans 1. current independent quantity

2. time dependent quantity

3. time independent quantity

4. current dependent quantity

Question ID : 26433099561

Q.82 Starting torque in 1-ph IM is zero as _________ .
Ans 1. Tf and Tb are numerically unequal and oppositely directed

2. Tf and Tb are numerically equal and oppositely directed

3. Tf and Tb are numerically equal and in same direction

4. Tf and Tb are numerically unequal and in same direction

Question ID : 26433098255

Q.83 The susceptibility of which of the following magnetic materials is negative?
Ans 1. Diamagnetic materials

2. Ferromagnetic materials

3. Paramagnetic materials

4. Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials

Question ID : 26433096878

Q.84 The lifting power of a magnet is inversely proportional to _______.
Ans 1. radius of the conductor

2. square of the magnetic flux density

3. absolute permeability

4. cross-sectional area

Question ID : 26433096857

Q.85 A 4-pole, DC series motor has a wave connected armature with 200 conductors. The
flux per pole is 20 m Wb when the motor is drawing 20 A from the supply. The back
EMF of the motor is 200 V. Calculate the speed of the motor under this condition.
Ans 1. 1450 rpm

2. 1893 rpm

3. 1374 rpm

4. 1500 rpm

Question ID : 26433096088

Q.86

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433096441

Q.87

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433096400

Q.88 Which of the following statements about armature reaction of alternator is NOT
correct?
Ans 1. When the generator is loaded, the armature carries the current; the armature current
sets up its own magnetic field.
2. It reduces the generated voltage by distorting the main flux and it causes sparking at
the brushes.
3. It depends on both load current and power factor.

4. It increases the generated voltage and sparking at brushes reduces.

Question ID : 26433096558

Q.89 Which of the following options is true with respect to extending the range of a
wattmeter using instrument transformers?
Ans 1. The primary winding of current transformer is connected in parallel with the load.

2. The primary winding of potential transformer is connected in series with the load.

3. The secondary winding of current transformer is connected in series with the current
coil of wattmeter and ammeter.
4. The secondary winding of potential transformer is connected in series with the
pressure coil of wattmeter and voltmeter.

Question ID : 26433096902

Q.90 The standard illumination level for a workshop area where detailed or fine work is
done is in the range of:
Ans 1. 200-300 lux

2. 800-1000 lux

3. 500-700 lux

4. more than 1000 lux

Question ID : 26433098125

Q.91 Which of the following is the unit of reluctance?
Ans 1. Weber/meter

2. Ampere – turn/weber

3. Henry/ampere-meter

4. Ohm – meter/ampere

Question ID : 26433096846

Q.92 The resistivity of a wire depends on:
Ans 1. only the radius of the wire

2. the nature of the material of the wire

3. both the length and area of the cross-section of the wire

4. only the length of the wire

Question ID : 26433096404

Q.93 The diffusion capacitance for a silicon diode with 20mA forward current, if the charge
carrier transit time is 70 ns, is _________.
Ans 1. 2 nF

2. 1 nF

3. 2 mF

4. 1 mF

Question ID : 26433096049

Q.94 The electric potential at point A is 60 V and at B is – 90 V. Find the work done by an
external force and electrostatic force, respectively, in moving an electron slowly from
B to A.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433098273
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.95 A 2200/1100 V, 50 Hz single-phase transformer having a negligible winding resistance
operates from a variable voltage, variable frequency supply such that V/f is constant.
Which of the following options is correct about the range of frequencies?
Ans 1. no variation either in eddy current or hysteresis loss

2. both hysteresis loss and eddy current loss varies

3. hysteresis loss vary and constant eddy current loss

4. eddy current loss vary and constant hysteresis loss

Question ID : 26433096695

Q.96 The active and lagging reactive components of current taken by an AC circuit from a
200 V supply are 40A and 30A, respectively.What is the value of admittance of the
circuit?
Ans 1. 0.52 S

2. 0.13 S

3. 0.31 S

4. 0.25 S

Q.97

Ans 1. 0.25A

2. 0.75A

3. 3A

4. 1A

Question ID : 26433096437

Q.98 The phosphor material containing cadmium borate used in fluorescent lamps gives
which of the following colour?
Ans 1. Green

2. Pink

3. Yellowish white

4. Bluish white

Question ID : 26433098196

Q.99 JFET is a/an ____________ device.
Ans 1. bipolar

2. tripolar

3. unipolar

4. antipolar

Question ID : 26433096067

Q.100 The logical method of estimating for electrical works does NOT involve which of the
following processes?
Ans 1. Provide overhead charges

2. Price items at net cost

3. Average costing of accessories

4. Ascertain the quantities involved accurately

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