CUSAT CAT 2022 Question Paper PCB 5 Year M.Sc

104 Test in Physics Chemistry and Biology for Five year Integrated MSc

1. Force between two charges is given by

Qq
(A)
4πε 0 r 2

Qq
(B)
4πε 0 r 3

Qq
(C)
4πε 0 r

(D) Zero

2. Which quantity is same when resistances are connected in parallel?

(A) Current
(B) Potential difference and Current
(C) Potential difference
(D) Capacitance

3. How much power is dissipated when 2 A current passes through a wire of 10 Ohm
resistance?

(A) 40 watt
(B) 30 watt
(C) 20 watt
(D) 10 watt

4. Magnetic field is produced by

(A) rest charge alone
(B) moving charge alone
(C) moving charge with intrinsic magnetic moment
(D) intrinsic magnetic moment alone

5. Which magnetism shows Curie temperature?

(A) Diamagnetism
(B) Paramagnetism
(C) Ferromagnetism
(D) Ferrimagnetism

6. Inconsistency of Ampere’s circuit law is due to

(A) standard current
(B) flow of current
(C) displacement current
(D) zero current

7. What are the components present in electromagnetic waves?

(A) Electric field
(B) Electric field and velocity
(C) Magnetic field
(D) Electric field and Magnetic field

8. Which radiation is having higher energy in electromagnetic spectrum?

(A) X-ray
(B) Gamma ray
(C) Microwave
(D) Radio wave

9. What is the frequency of LC circuit?

1
(A)
2π LC
1
(B)
2π LC
(C) 2π LC
(D) 2π LC

10. If the focal length of a lens is 2 cm, then its power is

(A) 3 dioptre
(B) 0.4 dioptre
(C) 0.7 dioptre
(D) 0.5 dioptre

11. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarised for reflection from
air to glass (refractive index n), is

(A) tan–1 (1/n)

(B) sin–1 (1/n)

(C) sin–1 (n)

(D) tan–1 (n)

12. The number of electron in M shell is limited to

(A) 2
(B) 10
(C) 18
(D) 32

13. Which of the following ray is emitted during the radioactive decay process?

(A) Alpha ray
(B) Gamma Ray
(C) Beta ray
(D) All the above

14. Formation of shadows can be explained by

(A) rectilinear propagation of light
(B) curvilinear propagation of light
(C) the total internal reflection
(D) refraction

15. When the temperature of the semiconductor is increased, its

(A) resistivity increases
(B) charge carrier reduces
(C) conductivity increases
(D) temperature coefficient becomes zero

16. Which of the following is an active device?

(A) Electric bulb
(B) Transformer
(C) Silicon controlled rectifier
(D) Loud speaker

17. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have

(A) high retentivity and high coercivity
(B) low retentivity and low coercivity
(C) high retentivity and low coercivity
(D) low retentivity and high coercivity

18. A carbon resistor has color code as Brown, Black, Blue and Silver. The resistance and
tolerance values are
(A) 10 MΩ ±10%
(B) 20 MΩ ±5%
(C) 10 MΩ ±5%
(D) 20 kΩ ±10%

19. Which unit is appropriate for specifying magnetic induction?

(A) Tesla
(B) V/m
(C) A/m2
(D) Henry

20. Two particles A and B initially at rest move towards each other by mutual forces of
attraction. At an instant when the speed of A is V and the speed for B is 2 V, then the
speed of centre of mass is

(A) 1V
(B) 2V
(C) 3V
(D) Zero

21. The blue colour of the sky is due to

(A) reflection of sunlight
(B) polarization of sunlight
(C) scattering of sunlight
(D) refraction of sunlight

22. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Sound travels in a straight line
(B) Sound travels as waves
(C) Sound is a form of energy
(D) Sound travels faster in vacuum than that in air

23. A proton and an electron are accelerated through the same accelerating potential.
Which one of these two has the greater momentum?

(A) Proton
(B) Electron
(C) Equal momentum
(D) Zero momentum

24. In a circuit containing inductor and resistor, as the frequency of the applied alternating
current increases, the impedance

(A) remain constant
(B) decreases
(C) first increases and then decreases
(D) increases

25. How many electron flow per second in 1 Ampere of current?

(A) 6.25 × 1018
(B) 6 × 1018
(C) 1.6 × 1019
23
(D) 1.6 × 10

26. If copper and silicon are heated, then their resistance will

(A) increase and decrease respectively
(B) increase and increase respectively
(C) decrease and increase respectively
(D) decrease and decrease respectively

27. The unit of Universal Gravitational constant is

(A) Nm2/kg2
(B) Nm/kg2
(C) Unit less
(D) m/s2

28. Adiabatic expansion of a gas results in

(A) heating
(B) cooling
(C) no change in temperature
(D) initial cooling and then heating

29. The function of the moderator in the nuclear reactor is to

(A) decrease the speed of neutron
(B) increase the speed of neutron
(C) fuel the reactor
(D) increase the temperature of the reactor

dx x 
30. ∫ = a n sin −1  − 1  , then the value of n is
2 ax − x2 a 

(A) 0
(B) −1
(C) 1
(D) −2

31. A raindrop falls near the surface of the earth with almost uniform velocity because

(A) its weight is negligible
(B) the force of surface tension balances its weight
(C) the force of viscosity of air balances its weight
(D) the drops are charged and atmospheric electric field balances its weight

–5
32. The susceptibility of magnesium at 300 K is 1.2 × 10 . At what temperature will the
–5
susceptibility increase to 1.8 × 10 ?

(A) 400 K
(B) 300 K
(C) 600 K
(D) 200 K

33. A convex lens is placed 8 cm from a light source and it makes a sharp image on a
screen, kept 8 cm from the lens. Now a glass block (refractive index 1.5) of 1.2 cm
thickness is placed in contact with the light source. To get the sharp image again, the
screen is shifted by a distance d. Then d is

(A) 0.44 cm towards the lens
(B) 1.6 cm away from the lens
(C) 0.44 cm away from the lens
(D) 0

34. The resistance of 3 Ω and 6 Ω are joined in series are connected across a battery of
emf 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω. The power dissipated by the battery is

(A) 3W
(B) 8W
(C) 9W
(D) 10 W

35. Consider two light sources of wavelength λ1 and λ2 (λ2 > λ1) which are emitting
n1 and n2 photons respectively, in a given time. Assume equal power for both
sources, then

(A) n1 > n2

(B) n1 < n2

(C) n1 = n2
(D) None of the above

36. As the orbit number increases, the distance between two consecutive orbits in an atom

(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) first increases and then becomes constant

37. For audible sound, the time interval between two words should be

(A) 0.1 s
(B) 3s
(C) 0.4 s
(D) 2s

38. If S is stress and Y is Young’s modulus of material of a wire, the energy stored in the
wire per unit volume is

(A) 2S2Y

(B) S2/2Y

(C) 2Y/S2
(D) S/2Y

39. If a charge Q is to be divided into two parts q and (Q – q), such that the force between
them is maximum at a certain distance, then the value of q must be
(A) Q/3
(B) Q/2
(C) Q/4
(D) 3Q / 4

40. If the electric field in a region of space is given by 5i + 4j + 9k. The electric flux
through a surface of area 20 units lying in the y-z plane is

(A) 100 units
(B) 4 units
(C) 500 units
(D) 44 units

41. A 25 Watt -220 V bulb and 100 Watt-220 V bulb are connected in series across 220 V
line. Which bulb will glow more brightly?

(A) 25 Watt bulb
(B) 100 Watt bulb
(C) Both will glow with equal brightness
(D) Each bulb will glow bright alternatively

42. A proton is projected horizontally eastward in a uniform magnetic field which is
horizontal and southward in direction. The proton will be deflected

(A) upward
(B) downward
(C) southward
(D) northward

43. Two long parallel wires separated by a distance ‘r’ have equal current ‘I’ flowing in
each. The magnetic field of one exerts a force ‘F’ on the other. If the distance between
them is doubled and the current in each wire is halved, the force between them will
become

(A) 4F
(B) unchanged
(C) F/4
(D) F/8

44. The magnetic field energy in an inductor changes from maximum value to minimum
value in 2.5 ms, when connected to an AC source. The frequency of the source is

(A) 100 Hz
(B) 400 Hz
(C) 50 Hz
(D) 25 Hz

45. Alternating current / e.m.f measuring instrument measures its

(A) peak value
(B) r.m.s value
(C) average value
(D) square of current and voltage

46. In vacuum, the speed of electromagnetic waves depend up on

(A) wavelength
(B) frequency
(C) electric and magnetic field
(D) None of the above

47. A convex mirror has a focal length ‘f ’ . A real object placed at a distance ‘f ’ in front
of it from the pole produces an image at

(A) infinity
(B) f
(C) f/2
(D) 2f

48. The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive index of the material of the prism
is cot A/2. Then, the angle of minimum deviation is

(A) 180 − 3A
(B) 180 + 2A
(C) 90 − A
(D) 180 − 2A

49. Which one of the following cannot be polarised?

(A) Radio waves
(B) Ultraviolet rays
(C) Infrared rays
(D) Ultrasonic waves

50. Threshold wavelength for a metal having work function ϕ0 is λ. What is the threshold
wavelength for the metal having work function ϕ0/2?

(A) 4λ
(B) 2λ
(C) λ
(D) λ/2

51. Bohr’s atomic model cannot explain

(A) quantization of the angular momentum of the orbiting electrons
(B) emission of photon due to the transition of electron from one orbit to other
(C) intensity of spectral lines
(D) spectral series of hydrogen like atom

52. The process underlying β-decay is the

(A) conversion of neutron to proton
(B) conversion of proton to neutron
(C) emission of gamma rays
(D) emission of helium nucleus

53. A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 10 gm at an instant t = 0. The
approximate mass of the element in the sample after two mean lives is

(A) 2.5 gm
(B) 3.7 gm
(C) 6.30 gm
(D) 1.35 gm

54. A potential difference of V is applied at the ends of a copper wire of length ‘l’ and
diameter ‘d’. On doubling the ‘d’ value , the drift velocity

(A) becomes two times
(B) becomes half
(C) becomes one fourth
(D) does not change

55. If a resistance is introduced in series with the cell in the secondary circuit of a
potentiometer, the balancing length

(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) cannot be found

56. A vernier calliper has its main scale of 10 cm equally divided into 200 equal parts. Its
vernier scale of 25 divisions coincides with 12 mm on the main scale. The least count
of the instrument is

(A) 0.020 cm
(B) 0.002 cm
(C) 0.010 cm
(D) 0.001 cm

–2
57. A body starts from rest and with a uniform acceleration of 10 ms for 5 seconds.
During the next 10 seconds, it moves with uniform velocity. The total distance
traveled by the body is

(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 500 m
(D) 625 m

58. Two capacitors of equal capacity are first connected in parallel and then in series. The
ratio of the total capacities in the two cases will be

(A) 2:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 4:1
(D) 1:4

59. The strength of the magnetic field of a vibration magnetometer is increased to 4 times
its original value. The frequency of oscillation of the magnet would then become

(A) twice
(B) four times
(C) half
(D) one-fourth

60. An endoscope is employed by a physician to view the internal parts of a body organ.
It is based on the principle of

(A) refraction
(B) reflection
(C) total internal reflection
(D) dispersion

61. What will be the direction in the following reaction upon increasing pressure
of the system?

N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)

(A) Formation of N2O4 favored
(B) Formation of NO2 favored
(C) No change in reaction
(D) Increase in equilibrium constant

62. When solid NH4Cl is added to NH4OH solution, the equilibrium shifts to the left, due to

(A) common ion effect
(B) buffer formation
(C) neutralization
(D) keep pH constant

1
63. The obtained slope in the Arrhenius plot of log k Vs is equal to
T

Ea
(A)
R
E
(B) − a
R
Ea
(C)
(2.303) R

Ea
(D) −
(2.303) R

−4 −1
64. If the first order rate constant for a reaction is 6.93 × 10 s , calculate the half life for
the reaction.

(A) 100 s
(B) 200 s
(C) 500 s
(D) 1000 s

0
65. The standard E red values of A, B and C are 0 V, +0.68 V and –0.50 V, respectively.
The order of their power as reducing agent is

(A) B>A>C
(B) A>B>C
(C) C>A>B
(D) C>B>A

66. If the ratio of composition of oxidised and reduced species in an electrochemical cell
[O ]
is given as = e 2 , the correct potential difference will be
[ R]

0 2RT
(A) E − E = +
nF
0 2RT
(B) E − E = −
nF
0 RT
(C) E − E = +
nF
0 RT
(D) E − E = −
nF

67. If we pass 1 Coulomb of charge in an electrolytic cell, then 10 mg of substance will
get deposited. Calculate the gram equivalent of the substance.
(1 Faraday = 96500 C)

(A) 9.65
(B) 96.5
(C) 965
(D) 9650

68. The packing fraction efficiency of a simple cubic lattice is close to

(A) 34.0%
(B) 52.4%
(C) 68.0%
(D) 74.0%

69. How many NaCl are in the unit cell of sodium chloride crystal?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

70. Alkali halides do not show Frenkel defect because

(A) cations and anions have high coordination number
(B) cations and anions have low coordination number
(C) anions cannot be accommodated in voids
(D) cations and anions have almost equal size

71. Coordination number for body centered cubic is

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

72. Which one of the following is NOT applicable to chemisorption?

(A) Its heat of adsorption is high
(B) It takes place at high temperature
(C) It is reversible
(D) It forms mono-molecular layers

73. Lyophilic colloids are stable due to

(A) small size of the particle
(B) large size of the particle
(C) layer of dispersion medium on the particle
(D) high Tyndall effect

74. IUPAC name for the following compound is

(A) 2-bromo-1-fluoro-4-nitrobenzene
(B) 3-bromo-4-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
(C) 2-fluoro-5-nitro-1-bromobenzene
(D) 1-bromo-6-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

75. Dumas method is preferred over Kjeldahl’s method for determining nitrogen
quantitatively in

(A) explosives such as trinitrotoluene
(B) aminoacids
(C) amides
(D) compounds containing both sulfur and nitrogen

76. Pick the statement that is NOT true for a pair of cis and trans isomers such as
1,2-diphenylethene (stilbene).

(A) trans isomer has a higher melting point
(B) trans isomer has higher heat of combustion
(C) trans isomer has a higher retardation factor (Rf) in adsorption chromatography
over silica gel
(D) planarity is better maintained in the trans isomer

77. How will you selectively convert 2-bromopropane to 1-bromopropane?

(A) Treatment with alcoholic potassium chloride followed by reaction with HBr
(B) Reaction with metallic sodium followed by reaction with bromine
(C) Reaction with magnesium metal followed by treatment with HOBr
(D) Reaction with alcoholic potassium hydroxide followed by heating with HBr in
the presence of benzoyl peroxide.

78. Pick the WRONG statement about propyne.

(A) Addition of excess HBr to propyne gives 1,2-dibromopropane
(B) It is less acidic than acetylene
(C) Upon reaction with dilute sulfuric acid in the presence of mercuric sulfate, it
gives acetone as the major product
(D) It reacts with sodamide (NaNH2) to give sodium propynide

79. In aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions carried out under kinetically controlled
conditions

(A) all activating groups are meta orienting
(B) all deactivating groups are ortho-para orienting
(C) all deactivating groups are meta orienting
(D) deactivating groups possessing unshared pair of electrons on atoms directly
attached to aromatic ring are ortho-para orienting

80. Compounds possessing certain distinct structural features give a yellow precipitate of
iodoform on reacting with iodine in the presence of a base. This question is based on
the ability of alcohols having no other functional groups to undergo iodoform
reaction. Pick the WRONG statement.

(A) Ethanol is the only primary alcohol that gives a positive iodoform test
(B) Several secondary alcohols give positive iodoform test
(C) All tertiary alcohols test negative for iodoform reaction
(D) All alcohols test negative for iodoform reaction

81. Acidity of compounds is decided by several factors including electrometric effects,
H-bonding, aromaticity etc. for acids and their conjugate bases. Pick the correct
statement. pKa of

(A) 2-hydroxybenzoic acid > 3-hydroxybenzoic acid > 4-hydroxybenzoic acid
(B) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid > 3-hydroxybenzoic acid > 2-hydroxybenzoic acid
(C) 3-hydroxybenzoic acid > 2-hydroxybenzoic acid > 4-hydroxybenzoic acid
(D) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid ≈ 2-hydroxybenzoic acid > 3-hydroxybenzoic acid

82. The following statements are on the reactivity of phenols. Pick the WRONG statement.

(A) Bubbling carbon dioxide through a solution of phenol in aqueous sodium
hydroxide followed by acidification gives 2-hydroxybenzoic acid (salicylic acid)
(B) Treatment of phenol with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide
followed by acidification of the reaction mixture gives 2-hydroxybenzaldehyde
(salicylaldehyde)
(C) Phenol on treatment with concentrated nitric acid gives 4-nitrophenol as the only
product
(D) Phenol on oxidation with sodium dichromate in the presence of concentrated
sulfuric acid gives 1,4-benzoquinone

83. On refluxing with constant boiling hydroiodic acid (57% HI in water), most methyl
ethers are cleaved to give methyl iodide and an alcohol as the products. Which among
the following methyl ethers is most likely to give methanol instead of methyl iodide
upon treatment with constant boiling HI?

(A) anisole
(B) methoxyethane
(C) 2-methoxypropane
(D) 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

84. Carbonyl compounds can be separated from aliphatic hydrocarbons by

(A) extraction with acid
(B) extraction with base
(C) as bisulfite addition compounds by treating with sodium bisulfite
(D) as picrates by treating with picric acid

85. Which among the following methods is NOT suitable for the preparation of hydrocarbons?

(A) Meerwein-Verley-Ponndorf reduction of aldehydes
(B) Clemmensen reduction of ketones
(C) Wolff-Kishner reduction of aldehydes
(D) Treatment of alkyl chlorides with metallic sodium in dry ether

86. An organic compound gave positive tests with 2,4-DNP reagent, Tollens reagent and
Fehling solution. Upon treatment with iodine in the presence of sodium hydroxide it
gave iodoform and methanoic acid. The compound most probably is

(A) methanal
(B) ethanal
(C) ethanoic acid
(D) acetone

87. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is NOT a viable method for the direct synthesis of

CH2NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
CH3
H3C
CH3

(A) benzylamine
(B) cyclohexanamine
(C) aniline
(D) 2-methylpropan-2-amine

88. While H2S and H2Se are gases, H2O is liquid due to

(A) smaller size of oxygen
(B) arrangement of molecules
(C) presence of H-bonding
(D) difference in bonding of their molecule

89. Cd and Cu can be separated and analyzed using

(A) KCN
(B) H2S
(C) NH4OH
(D) H2SO4

58
90. What will be the product of the reaction 26Fe (d, p)?
59
(A) 25Mn
60
(B) 26Fe
59
(C) 26Fe
60
(D) 25Mn

2+
91. [Cu(NH3)4] ion has a ……………….. structure.

(A) square planar
(B) trigonal
(C) pyramidal
(D) tetrahedral

92. In Ellingham diagram, the slope obtained is equal to

(A) ∆G
(B) ∆H
(C) ∆S
(D) ∆E

93. How many 2c-2e centered bonds are present in diborane?

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 7

94. Choose the correct structure for Caro`s acid.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

95. Balmer lines are observed in

(A) UV region
(B) IR region
(C) microwave region
(D) visible region

96. Hybridization of Mn in KMnO4 is

(A) sp2
2
(B) sp d
(C) dsp2
(D) sp3

3−
97. The magnetic moment for the complex [CoF6] is

(A) 4.89 BM
(B) 1.73 BM
(C) 0 BM
(D) 5.90 BM

98. With respect to diamond and graphite, which of the following statement is CORRECT?

(A) Graphite is lower thermal conductor than diamond
(B) Graphite is harder than diamond
(C) Graphite is lower bond order than diamond
(D) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity than diamond

2−
99. The hybridisation and magnetic behavior of complexes [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4] is
2 3
(A) dsp and sp , both are paramagnetic
2 3
(B) dsp and sp , both are diamagnetic
3 2
(C) sp and dsp , paramagnetic and diamagnetic
3 2
(D) sp and dsp , both are diamagnetic

100. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

(A) Magnetic quantum number
(B) Azimuthal quantum number
(C) Spin quantum number
(D) Principal quantum number

101. A plant virus which contains a double-stranded DNA genome is

(A) Tobacco Mosaic Virus
(B) Cauliflower Mosaic Virus
(C) Gemini virus
(D) Tomato leaf curl virus

102. Which of the following carries deoxygenated blood from
upper half of the body to the heart?

(A) Right coronary artery
(B) Left coronary artery
(C) Superior vena cava
(D) Inferior vena cava

103. Insulin consists of polypeptide chains A and B. They are linked together by

(A) Disulfide bond
(B) Phosphodiester bond
(C) Glycosidic linkage
(D) Peptide bond

104. During mitosis, the spindle fibres pull the chromosomes towards the opposite poles in

(A) Prophase
(B) Metaphase
(C) Anaphase
(D) Telophase

105. The phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross is

(A) 12 : 3 : 1
(B) 15 : 1
(C) 9:6:1
(D) 9:3:3:1

106. The ability of a single cell to develop into an entire organism is called

(A) Totipotency
(B) Differentiation
(C) Dedifferentiation
(D) Redifferentiation
107. In nephrons, the blood plasma is filtered in the

(A) Loop of Henle
(B) Renal column

(C) Renal tubule
(D) Glomerular capsule

108. A common in situ treatment involving the supply of air and nutrients through wells to
contaminated soil for stimulating indigenous bacteria is called

(A) Bioventing
(B) Biopiles
(C) Bioreactors
(D) Bioaugmentation

109. The phytohormone which is involved in polar transport is

(A) Auxin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Brassinosteroid

110. In animal cells, pentose phosphate pathway occurs in

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Peroxisome
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Cytoplasm

111. The distance between each base pair in a DNA double helix is

(A) 340 nm
(B) 34 nm
(C) 3.4 nm
(D) 0.34 nm

112. The largest endocrine gland in human body is

(A) Pituitary gland
(B) Pineal gland
(C) Thyroid gland
(D) Thymus gland

113. The antibiotic chloramphenicol was first produced from

(A) Penicillium notatum
(B) Streptomyces venezuelae
(C) Bacillus subtilis
(D) Clostridium tetani

114. In eukaryotes, the ribosomes are made up of

(A) 40 S subunit and 50 S subunit
(B) 40 S subunit and 60 S subunit
(C) 30 S subunit and 50 S subunit
(D) 30 S subunit and 60 S subunit

115. The number of chromosomes in a child with Down’s syndrome is

(A) 45
(B) 46
(C) 47
(D) 48

116. ……………….. consists of a nitrogenous base, one to three phosphate groups and a
sugar moiety.

(A) Nucleoside
(B) Nucleoplasm
(C) Nucleosome
(D) Nucleotide

117. Which of the following occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell?

i. Replication
ii. Transcription
iii. Translation

(A) i only
(B) iii only
(C) ii and iii only
(D) i, ii and iii

118. The compound spike type of inflorescence is seen in

(A) Paddy
(B) Caesalpinia
(C) Sunflower
(D) Coconut

119. Which of the following tissue is a type of loose connective tissue?

(A) Bone tissue
(B) Adipose tissue
(C) Mucous connective tissue
(D) Elastic connective tissue

120. For a human cell, total cell cycle time is approximately 24 hours. The S phase in an
eukaryotic cell cycle takes place for about

(A) 11 hours
(B) 8 hours
(C) 4 hours
(D) 1 hour

121. The process of elgulfment and destruction of solid particles by the formation of large
endocytic vesicles is called

(A) Phagocytosis
(B) Pinocytosis
(C) Macropinocytosis
(D) Clathrin mediated endocytosis

122. The crown gall of tomato is caused by

(A) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(B) Xanthomonas campestris
(C) Erwinia carotovora
(D) Pseudomonas solanacearum

123. In Neurospora crassa, the flask shaped ascocarps are called

(A) Cleistothecium
(B) Apothecium
(C) Perithecium
(D) Megathecium

124. An enzyme that catalyses the addition of an inorganic phosphate to an acceptor is called

(A) Phosphatase
(B) Phosphdiesterase
(C) Kinase
(D) Phosphorylase

125. Centrioles are

(A) Absent in plant cell
(B) Absent in animal cell
(C) Absent in both plant cell and animal cell
(D) Present in both plant cell and animal cell

126. The DNA fragments which are separated by gel electrophoresis are stained for
visualization. The stain used for visualizing DNA fragments is

(A) Methylene Blue
(B) Safranin
(C) Malachite green
(D) Ethidium bromide

127. Epinephrine is synthesized from the amino acid

(A) Methionine
(B) Phenylalanine
(C) Tyrosine
(D) Tryptophan

128. The smallest, self-reproducing, gram negative bacteria, that lack cell wall are called

(A) Actinomycetes
(B) Sphirochetes
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) Cyanobacteria

129. In nucleus, euchromatin is a region where the chromatin is

(A) Transcriptionally inactive
(B) Darkly stained
(C) Loosely packed
(D) Found in eukaryotes only

130. An enzyme which moves along the DNA helix and separates the double strand is called

(A) DNA polymerase
(B) DNA ligase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) DNA helicase

131. A quantitative technique which allows us to analyse how much DNA or RNA
template is present in a given sample is

(A) PCR
(B) RT-PCR
(C) Northern blotting
(D) Southern blotting

132. Stobilus is present in

(A) Ophioglossum
(B) Marsilea
(C) Fern
(D) Equisetum

133. The antibody present in the colostrum is

(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgG

134. The karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome is

(A) XYY
(B) XO
(C) XXX
(D) XXY

135. Which of the following biologists pioneered the currently accepted definition of a
biological species?
(A) Ernst Mayr
(B) Charles Darwin
(C) Carolus Linnaeus
(D) R.H. Whittaker

136. Dikaryon condition is a characteristic feature of the members of

(A) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(B) Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes
(C) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes and Phycomycetes

137. The presence of a gelatinous coating of algin outside of the vegetative cells is a
characteristic feature of the alga

(A) Ulothrix
(B) Laminaria
(C) Polysiphonia
(D) Chara

138. Choose the correct answer:

Assertion : A virus is a nucleoprotein, and its genetic material is infectious.
Reason : The protein coat of viruses, made up of capsomeres, protects the
nucleic acid from host nucleases and thus is critical to successful
infection.

(A) The Assertion is true and the Reason is false
(B) The Assertion is false and the Reason is true
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion

139. Segmentation in the body is first observed in which of the following organisms?

(A) Platyhelminthes
(B) Aschelminthes
(C) Arthropoda
(D) Annelida

140. Water vascular system is the characteristic of which group of the following?

(A) Porifera
(B) Ctenophora
(C) Echinodermata
(D) Chordata

141. Which of the following is NOT a modified stem?

(A) Ginger
(B) Tendril
(C) Zaminkand
(D) Sweet potatoes

142. Dr. G.N. Ramachandran is famous for his outstanding scientific contribution to
solving the protein structure of

(A) Collagen
(B) Actin
(C) Albumin
(D) Tubulin

143. In terms of % weight, which of the following elements is present in greater amount in
the human body?

(A) Carbon
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Nitrogen

144. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase of the Krebs' cycle by fumarate is an example of

(A) Competitive inhibition as fumarate resembles the substrate succinate in
structure
(B) Non-competitive inhibition as fumarate does not resemble the substrate
succinate in structure
(C) Succinic dehydrogenase activity is not affected by any inhibitor
(D) Fumarate does not inhibit succinic dehydrogenase activity

145. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is called as

(A) Inspiratory Capacity
(B) Functional Residual Capacity
(C) Total Lung Capacity
(D) Vital Capacity

146. If the length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm, what will be the number of base pairs in
E.coli genome?
6
(A) 4.0 × 10
6
(B) 4.6 × 10
6
(C) 4.8 × 10
6
(D) 5.0 × 10

147. Which of the following traits in the pea plant was NOT studied by Gregor Mendel?

(A) Flower position
(B) Pod colour
(C) Seed colour
(D) Pod number

148. Considering a dihybrid cross, what is the probability of the progeny being
heterozygous at both the alleles?

(A) 1/16
(B) 4/16
(C) 7/16
(D) 9/16

149. Choose the correct statements on biofertilizers.

1. Rhizobium forms a symbiotic association with the roots of Medicago plants.
2. Azospirillum is free-living soil cyanobacteria that can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
3. In paddy fields, Nostoc serves as a critical algal biofertilizer.
4. Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 3

150. Which organism has the lifespan of 100-150 years?
(A) Crocodile
(B) Elephant
(C) Tortoise
(D) Parrot

151. Fruits developed only from ovary are called

(A) False fruits
(B) True fruits
(C) Parthenocarpic fruits
(D) Pseudocarp

152. Hormone involved in induction of parturition

(A) Progesterone
(B) Oxytocin
(C) Estrogen
(D) Androgen

153. The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called

(A) Parturition
(B) Menopause
(C) Colostrum
(D) Ovulation

154. Analysis of traits in several generation of a family is called

(A) Pedigree analysis
(B) Pleiotropy analysis
(C) Co-dominance analysis
(D) Inheritance analysis

155. Biological membrane is a

(A) Phospholipid monolayer
(B) Phospholipid bilayer
(C) Galactolipid monolayer
(D) Sphingolipid monolayer

156. How many hydrogen bonds are required to form bonding between adenine and thymine?

(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 5

157. Chemical evolution is demonstrated by the experiment of

(A) Charles Darwin
(B) Millers
(C) Ernest Heckel
(D) Hardy-Weinberg

158. Which mosquito is the transmitting agent for malaria?

(A) Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Aedes aegupti
(D) All the above

159. Ascariasis is caused by

(A) Round worm
(B) Hook worm
(C) Ringworm
(D) Filarial worm

160. The diagnostic test for AIDS is

(A) Tissue matching
(B) Blood group matching
(C) Enzyme linked Immo-sorbent assay (ELISA)
(D) Widal test

161. In which method, superior males of one breed are mated with superior female of
another breed?

(A) Out-breeding
(B) Out-crossing
(C) Cross-breeding
(D) In-breeding

162. Sewage Primary treatment method is

(A) Sedimentation
(B) Trickling filter
(C) Activated sludge
(D) Anaerobic sludge digestion

163. Biogas contains large amount of

(A) O2
(B) H2
(C) CH4
(D) N2

164. The number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere
during the time period under consideration is called

(A) Natality
(B) Mortality
(C) Immigration
(D) Emigration

165. Agaricus mushroom belongs to

(A) Phycomycetes
(B) Ascomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes

166. Osteocytes are present in

(A) Heart
(B) Liver
(C) Bone
(D) Kidney

167. Age related disorder characterized by decreasing bone mass, increased chances of
fracture and decreased level of estrogen is

(A) Muscular dystrophy
(B) Arthritis
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Gout

168. The organisms that can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature are called

(A) Eurythermal
(B) Steonothermal
(C) Euryhaline
(D) Stenohaline

169. Archaebacteria which live in extreme habitat of hot springs are called

(A) Halophiles
(B) Acidophiles
(C) Thermophiles
(D) Methanogens

170. Transport of molecules across the membrane in the same direction is called

(A) Active transport
(B) Symport
(C) Antiport
(D) Uniport

****

FINAL ANSWER KEY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 A 31 C 61 A 91 A 121 A 151 B
2 C 32 D 62 A 92 C 122 A 152 B
3 A 33 C 63 D 93 C 123 C 153 C
4 C 34 D 64 D 94 A 124 D 154 A
5 C 35 A 65 C 95 D 125 A 155 B
6 C 36 A 66 A 96 D 126 D 156 C
7 D 37 A 67 C 97 A 127 C 157 B
8 B 38 B 68 B 98 D 128 C 158 B
9 A 39 B 69 D 99 D 129 C 159 A
10 D 40 A 70 D 100 C 130 D 160 C
11 D 41 A 71 D 101 B 131 B 161 C
12 C 42 B 72 C 102 C 132 D 162 A
13 D 43 D 73 C 103 A 133 A 163 C
14 A 44 A 74 A 104 C 134 D 164 D
15 C 45 B 75 A 105 D 135 A 165 C
16 C 46 D 76 B 106 A 136 A 166 C
17 C 47 C 77 D 107 D 137 B 167 C
18 A 48 D 78 A 108 A 138 C 168 A
19 A 49 D 79 D 109 A 139 D 169 C
20 D 50 B 80 D 110 D 140 C 170 B
21 C 51 C 81 B 111 D 141 D
22 D 52 A 82 C 112 C 142 A
23 A 53 D 83 D 113 B 143 C
24 D 54 D 84 C 114 B 144 D
25 A 55 C 85 A 115 C 145 D
26 A 56 B 86 B 116 D 146 A
27 A 57 D 87 C 117 B 147 D
28 B 58 C 88 C 118 A 148 B
29 A 59 A 89 A 119 B 149 C
30 A 60 C 90 C 120 B 150 C