PU CET PG 2019 Question Paper MSc_HS__Geology_

MSc(HS)(Geology)
1. A sand zone that connects an island or rock to mainland is called
(A) Tombolo
(B) Berm
(C) Cusp
(D) Groin
2. Which of the following pairs in not correctly matched?
(A) Deflation Hollows: Deserts
(B) Rock Pedestals: Deserts
(C) Yardang: Deserts
(D) Kettle: Deserts
3. Which one of the following is not a feature of glacial erosion?
(A) Cirques
(B) Grooves and Striation
(C) V-shaped valley
(D) U-shaped valley
4. Mohorovicic discontinuity under the continents usually occurs at a depth of
(A) 5 km
(B) 15 km
(C) 25 km
(D) 35 km
5. Unconsolidated deposits of pyroclastic debris that have been erupted from a volcano is
called
(A) Scoria
(B) Tephra
(C) Lapilli
(D) Pumice
6. How many minerals are Ca-bearing in the Mohs scale of hardness?
(A) Five
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Two
7. Which of the following are the biaxial crystal systems?
(A) Orthorhombic-Monoclinic-Triclinic
(B) Orthorhombic-Monoclinic-Tetragonal
(C) Tetragonal-Hexagonal-Trigonal
(D) Tetragonal-Hexagonal-Isometric

8. Which one of the following minerals is characterised by irregular form, no cleavage, high
relief and parallel extinction

(A) Quartz
(B) Garnet
(C) Olivine
(D) Fluorite
9. Which one of the following oxides are referred to as network formers?
(A) BaO & CaO
(B) K2O & Na2O
(C) SiO2 & Al2O3
(D) Mgo & FeO
10. In which of the following minerals, the cleavages meet at an angle of 124o in the basal
section?
(A) Jadeite
(B) Acmite
(C) Omphacite
(D) Grunerite
11. Which of the following REEs exist in valance state other than +3?
(A) Eu and La
(B) Eu and Ce
(C) Eu and Nd
(D) Eu and Sm

12. The abundance of garnet in the source is indicated by
(A) Negative slope of LREE
(B) Negative slope of HREE
(C) Flat LREE pattern
(D) Flat HREE pattern
13. 127N decays to 126C by
(A) Negatron decay
(B) Positron decay
(C) Alpha decay
(D) Electron capture
14. Which one of the following isotopic methods is best suited to date garnet?
(A) Rb-Sr
(B) K-Ar
(C) Ar-Ar
(D) Sm-Nd
15. Which one of the following meteorites is considered to be most primitive in the solar
system?
(A) Chondrites
(B) Achondrites
(C) Iron meteorites

(D) Stony-iron meteorites
16. On flat topography, the outcrop width of a bed is 50 m. If the true dip of the bed is 30°,
the actual thickness of the bed will be
(A) 100 m (B) 25 m (C) 20 m (D) 15 m

17. If the angle of plunge of a fold is 45˚ and dip of axial surface is 45˚, then the fold is
(A) Reclined
(B) Moderately inclined
(C) Gently plunging
(D) Moderately plunging
18. Which one of the following is not associated with convergent plate boundary?
(A) Back arc
(B) Fore arc
(C) Ridge
(D) Trench
19. Which type of faulting is responsible for the formation of horst and graben structure?
(A) Reverse
(B) Normal
(C) Strike-slip
(D) Dip-slip
20. According to V-rule, the vertical beds
(A) Do not vee
(B) Vee upstream
(C) Vee downstream
(D) Do not have straight outcrop
21. In the QAP diagram, what will be the name of plutonic igneous rock containing 35%
quartz, 5% alkali-feldspar and 60% plagioclase?
(A) Granite
(B) Granodiorite
(C) Tonalite
(D) Diorite
22. The texture involving albitic plagioclase overgrowths on orthoclase in granite is called
(A) Myrmekitic
(B) Perthitic
(C) Rapakivi
(D) Graphic
23. Alkaline rocks are characteristics of
(A) Continental rift
(B) Collision zone
(C) Continental arc

(D) Island arc
24. Which of the following minerals are characteristic of strongly peraluminous granites?
(A) Hornblende-Biotite (B) Hornblende-Riebeckite
(C)Muscovite-Garnet (D) Muscovite- Riebeckite
25. Which one of the following is not a lamprophyre?
(A) Polzenite
(B) Vogsite
(C) Spessartine
(D) Minette
26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Amphibolite: Basalt
(B) Khondalite: Shale
(C) Clay-sand mixture: Marl
(D) Quartz sand: Quartzite
27. Which one of the following rocks occurs in a brittle fault zone?
(A) Breccia
(B) Mylonite
(C) Pseudotachylite
(D) Ultramylonite
28. The formation of secondary foliation in a rock is due to
(A) Deviatoric stress
(B) Lithostatic pressure
(C) Hydrostatic pressure
(D) Confining pressure
29. What is the sense of shearing in the S-type snowball garnet?
(A) Clockwise, Sinistral
(B) Clockwise, Dextral
(C) Anticlockwise, Dextral
(D) Anticlockwise, Sinistral
30. Anticlockwise P-T-t paths are characterised by
(A) Subduction-zone tectonics
(B) Extensional tectonics
(C) Attainment of Pmax and Tmax at the same time
(D) Attainment of Pmax before Tmax
31. A well-sorted sedimentary rock having about 2% matrix, 96% quartz, 1% feldspars and
1% lithic fragments in carbonate cement is known as
(A) Feldspathic arenite
(B) Quartz arenite

(C) Greywacke
(D) Lithicwacke
32. Which one of the following designates fragments of generally weakly cemented
carbonate sediment that has been broken up and redeposited in a new framework?
(A) Grapestone
(B) Pellets
(C) Intraclast
(D) Micrite
33. What one of the following factors inhibits the precipitation of carbonates in sea water?
(A) Increase in depth
(B) High evaporation rates
(C) Lowering of total pressure
(D) Rise in water temperature
34. Which one of the following decreases in a downstream direction?
(A) Discharge
(B) Channel shape and size
(C) Water volume
(D) Particle size
35. Which one of the following sedimentary structures cannot be used to delineate top and
bottom of beds?
(A) Graded bedding
(B) Cross bedding
(C) Current ripple marks
(D) Oscillatory ripple marks
36. Which one of the following features is not associated with Brachiopods?
(A) Pedicle valve
(B) Umbo
(C) Growth lines
(D) Muscle scars
37. Which one of the following invertebrate is characterised by a water vascular system, non-
centralized nervous system and a calcareous skeleton of plates developed from the
mesoderm?
(A) Mollusca
(B) Annelida
(C) Echinodermata
(D) Coelenterata
38. Which one of the following organisms was most abundant in the Mesozoic sea?
(A) Bryozoa
(B) Ammonites
(C) Brachiopoda

(D) Tetracorals
39. Fossilized nests, gastroliths, footprints and burrows are known as
(A) Trace fossils
(B) Body fossils
(C) Mold fossils
(D) Cast fossils
40. As index fossils, brachiopods were important during the
(A) Late Cretaceous (B) Early Jurassic
(C) Middle Jurassic (D) Late Paleozoic
41. Which of the following stratigraphic units has the correct chronological order?
(A) Bababudan Group-Nallamalai Group-Subathu Formation-Damuda Group
(B) Bababudan Group-Nallamalai Group-Damuda Group-Subathu Formation
(C) Nallamalai Group-Subathu Formation-Damuda Group-Bababudan Group
(D) Nallamalai Group-Damuda Group-Subathu Formation-Bababudan Group
42. The Syringothyris Limestone belongs to
(A) Early Carboniferous
(B) Middle Carboniferous
(C) Earlier Permian
(D) Middle Permian
43. Which tectonic boundary separates the Indian plate from Eurasian plate?
(A) South Tibetan Detachment Fault
(B) Indus Tsangpo Suture zone
(C) Karakoram fault zone
(D) Zanskar shear zone
44. The age of Patcham Formation is
(A) Upper to Lower Oxfordian
(B) Lower Callovian to Bathonian
(C) Upper Oxfordian to Middle Tithonian
(D) Upper Neocomian to Lower Aptian
45. The rocks of Debari Group occur in the cratonic block of
(A) Dharwar
(B) Singhbhum
(C) Bastar
(D) Aravalli
46. Pedosols are soils with high content of
(A) Magnesium
(B) Lime
(C) Sodium
(D) Potassium

47. The factor that does not substantially effects the rate of runoff of rain fall is
(A) Soil profile
(B) Slope of topography
(C) Altitude
(D) Surface vegetation
48. Which one of the following is a product of alternate phase of expansion and contraction
caused by heating and cooling, wetting and drying and burrowing activities of organism?
(A) Heave
(B) Slides
(C) Debris flow
(D) Cavity collapse
49. Mature Karst topography is characterised by
(A) An arid climate
(B) Pedocal soil
(C) Underground drainage
(D) Extremely rugged terrain
50. Bifurcation ratio is defined as the ratio of
(A) The number of streams of higher order to that of lower order
(B) The number of streams of lower order to that of higher order
(C) The number of stream branches of a given higher order to the number of
streams of preceding order
(D) The number of stream branches of a given lower order to the number of
stream branches of next higher order
51. The host rocks for the Khetri copper deposits belong to
(A) Aravalli Supergroup
(B) Delhi Supergroup
(C) Vindhyan Supergroup
(D) Marwar Supergroup
52. The locality, Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, is known for
(A) Uranium
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous coal
(D) Petroleum
53. The host rocks for gold in Kolar Gold Mines is
(A) Granite
(B) Amphibolite
(C) Dolomite
(D) Schist
54. Which one of the following ore minerals shows granular form, black colour, brown
streak, no cleavage and high specific gravity?

(A) Galena
(B) Sphalerite
(C) Magnetite
(D) Chromite
55. What is the main process responsible for the formation of iron deposits?
(A) Mechanical concentration
(B) Metamorphism
(C) Residual concentration
(D) Chemical sedimentation
56. The age of Neyveli lignite deposit is
(A) Oligocene (B) Miocene
(C) Pliocene (D) Palaeocene
57. Which one of following traps has produced greatest amount of oil?
(A) Unconformity (B) Anticline
(C) Faults (D) Combination of traps
58. Which of the following countries has the largest proven oil reserves?
(A) Russia (B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Kuwait (D) Venezuela
59. The increase in grade of coal is primarily a function of
(A) Decreasing heat
(B) Time span of surface exposure
(C) Increasing grade of metamorphism
(D) Type of organic matter
60. Which one of the following building stones is not resistant to weathering?
(A) Granite (B) Gabbro
(C) Limestone (D) Sandstone
61. Under what condition, the compressive strength of the material will be low?
(A) If cementing material is entirely clay
(B) If cementing material is entirely siliceous
(C) When compressive stress is perpendicular to strata
(D) When compressive stress is parallel to strata
62. Which one of the following rock types is suitable for construction of any river valley
project?
(A) Shale and conglomerate (B) Laterites and conglomerate
(C) Well cemented siliceous sandstone (D) Highly porous limestone
63. The slow and continuous downward movement of unconsolidated earth material is called
(A) Soil creep (B) Rock fall
(C) Rock slide (D) Mudflows

64. In what scale pH is measured?
(A) Logarithmic (B) Exponential
(C) Linear (D) Relative
65. What is the desirable limit of Total Dissolved Salts (TDS) in safe drinking water?
(A) >1000 ppm (B) 700-1000 ppm
(C) 500-700 ppm (D) < 500 ppm
66. Which one of the following represents an aquiclude?
(A) Alluvium sand (B) Clay
(C) Sandy clay (D) Granite
67. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Transmissivity: metre
(B) Hydraulic Resistivity: metre2/day
(C) Leakage Factor: day
(D) Specific Storage: metre-1
68. Which one of the following logs records the radioactivity of rock formations?
(A) SP Log (B) Gamma Ray Log
(C) Resistivity Log (D) Calliper Log
69. Which one of the following corrections is applied to remove the effect of elevation on the
Earth’s gravity value?
(A) Free Air (B) Bouguer
(C) Terrain (D) Eӧtvӧs
70. Which one of the following is expressed in milligals (mGal) unit?
(A) Rotation of the Earth
(B) Rotation of the Moon
(C) Gravitational acceleration of the Earth
(D) Gravitational acceleration of the Moon
71. The difference between the Magnetic North and Geographic North of the Earth is
(A) 400 km (B) 999 km
(C) 600 km (D) 298 km
72. The lines of constant latitude are called
(A) Meridians (B) Parallels
(C) Equator (D) Longitude
73. GNSS stands for
(A) Geological Norms for Satellite System
(B) Geological Navigation Satellite System
(C) Global Norms for Satellite System
(D) Global Navigation Satellite System
74. What is the first and most important requirement for remote sensing?
(A) Target (B) Energy Source

(C) Sensor (D) Medium
75. Name the three components of atmosphere that are responsible for absorption of radiation
(A) Ozone, Oxygen, Water Vapour
(B) Ozone, Carbon dioxide, Water Vapour
(C) Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Dust particles
(D) Oxygen, Ozone, Dust particles

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