PU CET PG 2019 Question Paper MSc_2Yr__Environment Science_

MSc(2Yr)(Environment Science)

1. Haemoglobin in blood contains which of the following element?
A) Aluminium B) Magnesium C) Iron D) Calcium

2. Which of the following is referred to ‘Biodiesel Plant’?
A) Neem B) Banyan C) Sisham D) Jatropha

3. Sulphur dioxide in atmosphere is responsible for acid deposition. Which of the following is
NOT a major source of SO2?
A) Emissions from paddy fields B) Emissions from thermal power plant
C) Burning of fuel wood D) Burning of fossil fuel

4. What is the transition area between two biomes called?
A) Habitat B) Ecotone C) Ecotype D) Community

5. Lentic ecosystem refers to
A) Static water system B) Terrestrial flowing water
C) Ecosystem of straits D) Deep marine water system

6. Which of the following countries will host World Environment day, 2019?
A) India B) Pakistan C) China D) Australia

7. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the greatest heat-trapping ability per molecule?
A) CO2 B) CH4 C) NO D) SF6

8. Which of the following ecological pyramid is always upright?
A) Pyramid of number B) Pyramid of energy
C) Pyramid of biomass D) Pyramid of species richness

9. Thermal pollution in natural streams can be reduced by
A) Installing chimneys
B) Using electronic thermometers
C) Using Dissolved Oxygen Meters
D) Installing adequate cooling towers or ponds

10. What is the term for the complete disappearance of a species?
A) Extinction B) Endangered C) Abundance D) Affluence

11. Our bone and teeth are generally made up of
A) Calcium sulphate B) Fluorapatite
C) Calcium phosphate D) Calcium oxalate

12. Which of the following are the most abundant rocks found on the crust of the earth?
A) Sandstone and limestone B) Granite and basalt
C) Limestone and gypsum D) Gypsum and shale

13. When the human species are divided on the basis of physical characteristics that are
inherited, it is called
A) Race B) Ethnicity C) Cultural Pride D) Society

14. Ethnocentrism refers to
A) Appreciating cultural traits of other people
B) The belief in the inherent superiority of one’s own ethnic group or culture
C) The tendency of a cultural group to uphold and sustain traditional culture
D) The attempt to modernize traditional culture

15. Which of the following possess maximum moons/satellites in our solar system?
A) Saturn B) Jupiter C) Neptune D) Mars

16. The difference between polar and equatorial diameter of earth is
A) 23 km B) 33 km C) 43 km D) 53 km

17. Exfoliation is a type of
A) Physical weathering B) Chemical weathering
C) Biological weathering D) Mass Wasting

18. River piracy is a feature which is more active in its _________ stage.
A) Incipient B) Mature C) Youth D) Old

19. Consider the following States
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests' occur?
A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3

20. Which of the following is the only mineral component of chlorophyll?
A) Carbon B) Hydrogen C) Calcium D) Magnesium

21. From which part of the plant is ‘clove’, a commonly used spice, obtained?
A) Flower bud B) Root C) Stem D) Fruit

22. Which amongst the following countries is considered to have the world’s 1st sustainable bio
fuel economy?
A) Australia B) Brazil C) China D) India

23. The stratospheric ozone is considered as a friend of living being. The thickness of this layer
is measured in
A) Candela B) Watts C) Decibels D) Dobson

24. Which of the following is NOT a component of sustainable agriculture?
A) Social & economic equality B) Social Justice

C) Environmental health D) Economic profitability

25. Which of the following formation neither contains water nor transmits water?
A) Aquifer B) Aquitard C) Aquiclude D) Aquifuge

26. A device fitted to vehicles to chemically reduce gases like NOx, CO and hydrocarbons by
internal combustion into less harmful products is called
A) Catalytic converter B) Carburetor
C) Tail pipe D) 2- stroke engine

27. India’s first national park, Hailey National Park is now known as
A) Kaziranga National Park B) Jim Corbett National Park
C) Ranthambore National Park D) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve

28. What is the angle between the hands exactly at 4:40 PM?
A) 120o B) 100o C) 280o D) 240o

29. The middle value of ordered array of numbers is called
A) Mean B) Mode C) Median D) Standard deviation

30. Population Census is conducted through
A) Sample survey B) Accounting
C) Complete Enumeration D) Partial Enumeration

31. The first hand and unorganized set of data is called
A) Primary data B) Secondary data C) Fictitious data D) Dubious data

32. The number of students in a class in a particular year is a
A) Discrete data B) Hypothetical data
C) Continuous data D) Qualitative data

33. Nelong valley, which was opened for tourists in 2015, first time since 1962 is situated in
A) Sikkim B) Uttrakhand C) Manipur D) Mizoram

34. Which of the following India’s biosphere MISSES a mention in UNESCO’s ‘Man and
Biosphere’ list?
A) Nokrek B) Nicobar C) Sunderbans D) Manas

35. Odisha state’s disaster preparedness and zero causality policy during the recent devastating
cyclonic storm was appreciated by United Nations. This cyclone was named as
A) Fani B) Fenny C) Fury D) Funny

36. An alignment of three celestial objects like sun, earth and moon in the straight line is called
A) Syzygy B) Conjunction C) Aphelion D) Perigee

37. The oceanic zone between 40 o to 60 o in both the hemispheres record

A) High salinity B) Low salinity C) Moderate salinity D) Zero salinity

38. The Richter’s scale used to record earthquake intensity is a
A) Linear Scale B) Parabolic Scale C) Geometric Scale D) Logrithmic Scale

39. Tritium is an isotope of
A) Helium B) Berillium C) Terullium D) Hydrogen

40. Which of the following sound waves are used in echo cardio-graphy?
A) Ultrasonic B) Infrasonic
C) Between 20 Hz to 2000 Hz D) Between 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

41. In which of the following dispersed phase is a solid and dispersion medium is a liquid?
A) Foam B) Solid Foam C) Sol D) Emulsion

42. Which of the following transitions are studied by UV Spectrometer?
A) Rotational B) Electronic C) Nuclear D) Vibrational

43. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is
A) >1 B) <1 C) 1 D) 0

44. Which of the following weather condition is indicated by the fall of barometer reading?
A) Stormy B) Calm C) Cold and dry D) Hot and dry

45. The normal rainfall in clean atmosphere at mean sea level is _________ in nature.
A) Neutral B) Alkaline C) Acidic D) May be acidic or alkaline

46. For the ecological balance, the forest cover should be at least ____ of the total geographical
area of a country.
A) 23% B) 33% C) 43% D) 53%

47. Which of the following relates to ‘sustainable development’??
A) Kyoto Protocol B) Brundtland Report
C) Paris Agreement D) Montral Protocol

48. Estuaries possess distinct blooms excessive growth of pigmented dianoflagellates. These
blooms are referred to
A) Red tides B) Blue tides C) Green tides D) Black tides

49. Which of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of percent by mass in the
earth’s crust?
A) Silicon B) Oxygen C) Aluminium D) Magnesium

50. Which of the following layer of atmosphere is responsible for the deflection of radio waves?
A) Mesosphere B) Troposphere C) Stratosphere D) Ionosphere

51. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of first number to second is 2:3 and that of
second to third is 5:8; the second number is
A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50

52. Which of the following is the force required to move a body uniformly in a circle?
A) Centripetal B) Centrifugal C) Linear D) Frictional

53. What is the apparent weight of a person when the elevator is accelerated downwards?
A) Same as actual weight B) More than actual weight
C) Less than actual weight D) Zero

54. What is the time taken by earth to complete one rotation about its axis with regard to a fixed
star?
A) Tropical day B) Solar day C) Stellar day D) Sedrial day

55. The atomic clock is based on the periodic vibration produced in the atom of which element?
A) Caesium B) Barium C) Rubidium D) Titanium

56. What happens to the level of dissolved oxygen during eutrophic conditions in lakes?
A) Remains same B) Increases
C) Decreases D) May increase or decrease

57. The artificial sweetener containing chlorine that has the appearance and taste of sugar and is
stable at the cooking temperature is
A) Saccharine B) Aspartame C) Sucrose D) Sucralose

58. ‘Franken food’ is a term synonym to
A) Junk food B) Organic food C) GM food D) Uncooked food

59. The ‘ecomark’ logo of India is
A) Tree twig B) Earthen pot C) Dove D) Peacock

60. The Environment (Protection) Act of India was enacted in the year
A) 1972 B) 1981 C) 1986 D)1996

61. What is the name of the agreement made between countries to reduce ozone depletion?
A) Environmental Protection Act B) Montreal Protocol
C) Rio Earth Summit D) Kyoto Protocol

62. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
A) World Water Day 22nd of March
B) World Earth Day 22nd of April
C) World Biodiversity Day 22nd of May
D) World Environment Day 22nd of June

63. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

A) Saltwater crocodile B) Olive ridley turtle
C) Gangetic dolphin D) Gharial

64. Hydro-fluoric acid is not kept in glass bottles because it reacts with
A) Visible light B) Sodium oxide of glass
C) Aluminium oxide of glass D) Silicon dioxide of glass

65. If by mistake some radioactive substance gets into human body, then from the point of
view of radiation damage, the most harmful will be one that emits
A) Gamma rays B) Neutrons C) Beta particles D) Alpha particles

66. Which one of the following is the best description of the term 'ecosystem'?
A) A community of organisms interacting with one another and their physical environment
B) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms.
C) A community of organisms without any interaction
D) The flora and fauna of a geographical area

67. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the
following diseases?
A) AIDS B) Bird flu C) Dengue D) Swine flu

68. Which of the following is NOT a weather element?
A) Humidity B) Air pressure C) Latitude D) Solar radiations

69. Ultimate source of energy for all living beings is
A) Fats B) Carbohydrates C) Amino acid D) Sunlight

70. pH value of potable water is
A) 10-11.5 B) 6.5-8.5 C) 3.5-5.5 D) 7.0- 10.0

71. Aurora Borealis occurs in the
A) Troposphere B) Stratosphere C) Mesospere D) Ionosphere

72. Which of the following is not a type of grassland?
A) Praries B) Savannas C) Pampas D) Himalayas

73. Hazardous waste should be disposed off in/ by
A) Sanitary landfill B) Secure landfill C) Open dumping D) Incineration

74. Which of the following lakes are poorly nourished and have low biological productivity?
A) Mesotrophic B) Oligotrophic C) Eutrophic D) Heterotrophic

75. Which of the following hosted the Convention on Wetlands in 1971?
A) Stockholm B) Kyoto C) Ramsar D) Montreal

x-x-x

MSc(2Yr)(Human Genomics)

1. Ramachandran Plot describes
A) Dihedral angles of side chains in amino acids
B) Dihedral angles of backbone of polypeptide
C) Dihedral angles of aromatic amino acids
D) Dihedral angles of nucleotides

2. Globular proteins have
A) Alpha helices only B) Beta sheets only
C) Alpha helices and beta sheets D) Alpha helices, beta sheets and loops

3. Hydrolysis of RNA takes place under alkaline conditions as
A) The 2’ hydroxyl in RNA acts an nucleophile in an intramolecular displacement
B) The 3’ hydroxyl in RNA acts as an nucleophile in an intramolecular displacement
C) The 2’ hydroxyl in RNA acts an nucleophile in an intermolecular displacement
D) The 5’ hydroxyl in RNA acts an nucleophile in an intermolecular displacement

4. Which enzyme is involved in protein folding?
A) Disulphide isomerise B) Hydrolase
C) Kinase D) Phosphatase

5. The tripeptide produced by the translation of the transcript of the 5’-AAGTACTCT-3’
DNA sequence will be
A) Arg-Phe-Trp B) Arg-Leu-Gly C) Thr-lys-Ser D) Phe-Met-Arg

6. Histones are rich in
A) Valine B) Lysine C) Arginine D) Lysine and Arginine

7. An amino acid commonly used as an ingredient in the buffer for SDS-PAGE is
A) Valine B) Glycine C) Proline D) Serine

8. Same DNA sequence may code for more than one polypeptide by
A) Gene splitting B) Alternative splicing of mRNA
C) Recombination D) Mutation

9. At pH below pI, amino acids will be
A) Positively charged B) Negatively charged
C) Neutral D) No charge

10. The side chain of histidine contains
A) Imidazole ring B) Phenyl ring
C) Benzene ring D) Porphyrin ring

11. Which of the following amino acid is optically inactive?
A) Serine B) Valine C) Glycine D) Leucine

12. Which amino acid is least occurring amino acid in proteins?
A) Tyrosine B) Histidine C) Tryptophan D) Serine

13. A spiral structure that contains coiled and tightly packed polypeptide backbone core and
side chains of component amino acids is named as
A) Linear sequence B) Double stranded structure
C) Helix D) Double stranded sheet

14. A single unit of amino acid is called
A) Monomer B) Dimer
C) Primary structure D) Single amino acid

15. A short, rigid and planner bond that link consecutive amino acids is named as
A) Peptide bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Covalent bond D) Sulphide bond

16. In case of low blood glucose concentration, the negative feedback is
A) To avoid sweets B) To workout
C) To rest D) Conversion of glycogen to glucose

17. Which of the following characteristic differentiate Eubacteria from Archaebacteria?
A) Circular nature of chromosome B) Absence of nuclear membrane
C) Presence of 70S ribosomes D) Presence of murein in cell wall

18. Rifampicin
A) Inhibits hepatic microsomal enzymes B) Inhibits DNA synthesis
C) Is bactericidal for mycobacteria D) Is not appreciably protein bound

19. Which of the following statements about fatty acids is correct?
A) Fatty acids are used as fuel molecules by all cells.
B) Fatty acids are oxidised to acetyl-CoA.
C) Fatty acids are hydrolysed to acetyl-CoA.
D) Fatty acids are converted to glucose in the liver.

20. Which of the following is true of the lac operon in E. coli?
A) The operon is only switched on in the absence of lactose in the growth medium.
B) The lac operon messenger RNA is a polycistronic mRNA (it carries information for
synthesis of several proteins).
C) The enzyme β-galactosidase is only produced in large quantities when the lac
repressor is bound to the operator.
D) The promoter is the binding site for the lac repressor

21. Which of the following statement concerning glucose metabolism is NOT CORRECT?
A) Conversion of glucose to pyruvate occurs in cytoplasm
B) Glu enters in intestinal cells by a mechanism in which Na+ and Glu are co-transported
C) Pyruvate kinase catalyzes a reversible reaction

D) Insulin binds to IRS and cause the GLUT transporter to recruit on plasma membrane

22. Binomial nomenclature refers to:
A) One Latin name and one vernacular name
B) One scientific name and one Latin name
C) One scientific name and one vernacular name
D) One generic name and one specific name

23. The restriction enzymes are also called :
A) Molecular markers B) Molecular scissors
C) Vectors D) Carriers

24. Bt toxin is coded by a gene named as:
A) cry B) bty C) tby D) dt

25. Which organ is called as the graveyard of RBC’s?
A) Spleen B) Liver C) Pancreas D) Kidneys

26. Which of the following is an example of highly repetitive DNA?
A) Alu element B) Histone gene cluster
C) DNA minisatellite D) Dispersed repetitive DNA

27. In which region of the interphase chromosome does transcription take place?
A) Heterochromatin B) Euchromatin
C) The telomere D) The centromere

28. All enzymes are proteins except :
A) Ribozymes B) Kinase C) Dehydrogenase D) Transaminase

29. A by- product for forming a peptide bond from two amino acids is
A) Water B) Heat C) Carbon dioxide D) Energy

30. Which of the following is not part of protein structure?
A) Helices B) Sheets C) Loops D) Arches

31. Maltose is made up of
A) Two molecules of sucrose joined together
B) Two molecules of glucose joined together
C) One molecule of glucose joined to one molecule of fructose
D) One molecule of glucose joined to one molecule of galctose

32. Entropy in a biological system does not increase because:
A) It is an open system B) It is closed system
C) It is governed by vitalism D) It is related to thermodynamics

33. Popai, a scientific advisor of nina, went to moon and obtained few proteins on the lunar
surface. When he returned to earth somehow, change in the environment, few amino
acids got modified by chemical conversions. Which of the following changes in amino
acids would have led to maximum alteration in the structure?
A) Serine to Threonine B) Leucine to Isoleucine
C) Glutamate to Isoleucine D) Histidine to Arginine

34. Ninhydrin test is given by
A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins C) Alkanes D) Alkenes

35. A nonsense mutation involves
A) A regulatory sequence B) Creation of a stop codon
C) Frameshift D) Deletion

36. In meosis, recombination occurs in
A) Prophase I B) Metaphase I C) Prophase II D) Metaphase II

37. The presence of two or more cell lines from different zygotes in a single individual is
known as:
A) Mosaicism B) Diploidy C) Aneuploidy D) Chimaerism

38. Normal adult haemoglobin (Hb A. consists of:
A) Two α (alpha) and two β (betA. Chains) B) Two α and two γ (gammA. Chains)
C) Two α and two δ (deltA. Chains) D) Four γ chains

39. The mutation in sickle-cell disease consists of:
A) A deletion B) A duplication C) An insertion D) A point mutation

40. Gel-filtration chromatography separates proteins
A) On their ability to bind to specific groups on the column matrix
B) On the basis of molecular mass
C) On the basis of their molecular shape
D) On the basis of their charge

41. In reverse phase chromatography the wanted protein can be selectively eluted by
A) Solutions of different hydrophobicities or ionic strengths
B) Solutions of different pH
C) Solution of constant pH
D) Solution of constant ionic strength

42. The lipid and protein composition of inner and outer halves of the lipid layer are:
A) Identical B) Symmetrical C) Non identical D) Similar

43. Lateral movement of membrane lipids are
A) Absent B) Catalysed by proteins
C) Catalysed by ATPases D) Diffusion controlled

44. Membrane fluidity is increased when there is
A) High proportion of trans unsaturated fatty acids
B) High proportion of cis unsaturated fatty acids
C) Low proportion of trans unsaturated fatty acids
D) Low proportion of cis unsaturated fatty acids

45. Cell membranes are permeable to
A) Most inorganic ions B) Few inorganic ions
C) None of the inorganic ions D) Most inorganic and organic ions

46. Sacromere is a unit of
A) Myofibril B) Protofibril C) Topofibril D) Keratin

47. Which ion has role in skeletal muscle contraction?
A) Magnesium B) Cadmium C) Calcium D) Chromium

48. Protein digestion begins in
A) Stomach B) Small intestine C) Buccal cavity D) Oesophagus

49. Starch digestion begins in
A) Stomach B) Buccal cavity C) Oesophagus D) Small intestine

50. Among Fat and Glycogen
A) Fat is more efficient form of fuel storage
B) Glycogen is more efficient form of fuel storage
C) None is a form of fuel storage
D) Both are not fuels for the body

51. Glucose-6-phosphatase is
A) Present in liver but not in muscle B) Present in liver and muscle both
C) Absent in liver and muscle D) Present in muscle only

52. Hexokinase has
A) Low affinity for glucose B) High affinity for glucose
C) High affinity for glucose and galactose D) High affinity for galactose

53. Approximately what proportion of the human genome is made up of repetitive DNA
sequences?
A) 1% B) 15% C) 50% D) 90%

54. Which of the following is true of histones?
A) Histones are acidic proteins
B) Histones are found in animal chromatin but in not plant cells
C) The amino acid sequences of histone proteins are very similar in different organisms
D) All histones form part of the nucleosome core particles in chromatin

55. Which of the following statements is correct, according to Chargaff's rules?
A) All DNA molecules contain the same proportions of A, C, G and T
B) Single-stranded RNA molecules contain the same amount of A and U
C) In double-stranded DNA, the amount of T equals the amount of C
D) In double-stranded DNA, the amount of G equals the amount of C

56. Which of the following is NOT a pyrimidine?
A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Uracil D) Cytosine

57. Which of the following does NOT contain phosphate?
A) A nucleoside B) A nucleotide C) DNA D) RNA
58. Which of the following reactions is required for proofreading during DNA replication by
DNA polymerase III?
A) 3' - 5' exonuclease activity B) 5' - 3' exonuclease activity
C) 3' - 5' endonuclease activity D) 5' - 3' endonuclease activity

59. In which of the following would you find telomeres?
A) Human mitochondrial DNA B) Human chromosomes
C) Bacterial chromosomes D) The influenza virus genome

60. Which of the following is true of RNA synthesis (transcription)?
A) RNA synthesis is always in the 5' - 3' direction
B) RNA polymerase needs a primer to initiate transcription
C) In transcription, U is inserted opposite T
D) New nucleotides are added on to the 2' OH of the ribose sugar

61. In bacterial promoters, which of the following describes the 'Pribnow box'?
A) The 5' untranslated region B) The -10 box
C) The -35 box D) The termination sequence

62. Which of the following does the abbreviation TBP stand for?
A) TATA-box binding protein B) Transcription associated factor
C) Transcription factor binding protein D) TATA box polymerase

63. How many different transfer RNA molecules are present in a cell (not including those
present in the mitochondria?
A) 64 B) 61
C) 20 D) More than 20, less than 61

64. Which of the following proteins involved in peptide chain elongation is a GTPase
switch?
A) Only EF-Tu B) Only EF-G
C) Both EF-Tu and EF-G D) Initiation factor 2

65. The major differences between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic protein synthesis
mechanisms are in which part of the process?
A) The initiation of synthesis B) The chain elongation process
C) The chain termination process D) None - there are no major differences

66. Proteins directed to which of the following organelles are synthesized by ribosomes
attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Lysosomes D) Peroxisomes

67. What is the energy source for transport of molecules into and out of the nucleus?
A) ATP hydrolysis within the cytoplasm B) GTP hydrolysis within the cytoplasm
C) ATP hydrolysis within the nucleus D) GTP hydrolysis within the nucleus

68. Which of the following signal molecules binds to a receptor situated in the cytoplasm, not
the outer membrane of the cell?
A) Progesterone B) Adrenaline (Epinephrine)
C) Epidermal growth factor D) Interferon.

69. Which second messenger signals the release of Ca++ from the endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Cyclic AMP B) Cyclic GMP
C) 1,2 diacyl glycerol D) Inositol triphosphate

70. Which of the following is NOT required for a PCR reaction?
A) A thermostable DNA polymerase B) Dideoxy-dNTPs (ddNTPs)
C) Template DNA D) Primers

71. Where in the cell is cytochrome P450 located?
A) Mitochodrial inner membrane B) Cytoplasm
C) Mitochondrial matrix D) Endoplasmic reticulum

72. Cancer cells often have reduced amounts of cell surface proteins, including class I MHC
antigens. Which of the following cells of the immune system can exploit this property to
kill cancer cells?
A) Cytotoxic T-cells B) Natural killer cells
C) Helper T-cells D) Macrophages

73. In order to enter the cell cycle a cell must be stimulated from outside. What type of
molecule provides this stimulation?
A) Cyclins B) Cyclin dependant kinases
C) Cytokine growth factors D) Tyrosine kinases

74. In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
A) G1 phase B) S phase C) G2 phase D) M phase

75. At which cell cycle checkpoint is the cell cycle halted if the cell's DNA is damaged?
A) G1 – S B) S - G2 C) G2 – M D) G0 - G1