WB SET 2018 Question Paper 2 Home Science

SET-18-HomeSci.-II-G

Signature of Invigilators
Roll No.
1. _______________________________
(Write Roll Number from left side
exactly as in the Admit Card) 2. _______________________________

Question Booklet Series X
2318
PAPER–II Question Booklet No.
(Identical with OMR
Subject Code : 23 Answer Sheet Number)

HOME SCIENCE
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page as well as on the OMR Sheet provided.
2. At the commencement of the examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you
are requested to open the booklet and verify it:
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page.
(ii) Faulty booklet, if detected, should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator
within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra
time will be given.
(iii) Verify whether the Question Booklet No. is identical with OMR Answer Sheet No.; if not, the full set is
to be replaced.
(iv) After this verification is over, the Question Booklet Series and Question Booklet Number should be entered
on the OMR Sheet.
3. This paper consists of One hundred (100) multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory. Each
question carries two marks.

4. Each Question has four alternative responses marked: A B C D . You have to darken the circle as
indicated below on the correct response against each question.

Example: A B C D , where C is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated correctly in the OMR Sheet. If you mark your response at
any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Rough work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
7. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except
in the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ
any other unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself
liable to disqualification.
8. Do not tamper or fold the OMR Sheet in any way. If you do so, your OMR Sheet will not be evaluated.
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination compulsorily and
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry question booklet
and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet after completion of examination.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or mobile phone etc. is strictly prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.

[ Please Turn Over ]

X–3 2318–II

HOME SCIENCE

PAPER II

1. Body Mass Index for an individual who is 5 feet 6. The percentage of fat present in heavy cream —
6 inches tall and has a weight of 78 kg is (A) 30 – 40%
(A) 29·8 kg/m2 (B) 40 – 60%
(B) 32·8 kg/m2 (C) 35 – 50%
(C) 27·8 kg/m2 (D) 60 – 80%
(D) 25·8 kg/m2

2. Which one of the followings is not the function of
the antioxidants? 7. Which of the followings is not a micronutrient?
(A) Colour preservation (A) Copper
(B) Preventing protein degradation (B) Boron
(C) Minimizing rancidity (C) Sulphur
(D) Preserving flavour (D) Manganese

3. Which vitamin can be synthesized in the body
from non-dietary sources? 8. Pungent smell of raddish is due to the presence of
(A) Vitamin B12 (A) Solanine
(B) Vitamin D (B) Capsaicin
(C) Isothiocyanate
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Di amino compound
(D) Vitamin A

4. Recognition site for amino acid is present in
9. Typical aroma of butter is due to
(A) Matured mRNA
(A) Salicylic acid
(B) Mitochondrial mRNA (B) Acetic acid
(C) tRNA (C) Diacetyl compound
(D) rRNA (D) Diethyl ether

5. Conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenol
pyruvate (PEP) is carried out by 10. ‘Juice boxes’ would be an example of the
(A) Carboxylase preservation technique of
(A) Irradiation
(B) PEP carboxykinase
(B) Freeze drying
(C) PEP carboxylase
(C) Sugaring
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (D) Aseptic technique

2318–II X–4

11. Keto acidosis is frequently found among which 16. Entropy means
category of patients? (A) Decrease in Free energy
(A) Hypertension (B) Increase in Free energy
(B) Heart burn (C) Disorder
(C) Alzheimer’s disease
(D) Enthalpy
(D) Diabetes

17. Which is the important flavor enhancer?
12. Which of the following compounds transport
dietary lipids to the adipose tissue for storage? (A) Aspartic acid
(A) Chylomicrons (B) Butyric acid
(B) Low density lipoprotein (C) Monosodium glutamate
(C) High density lipoprotein (D) Aspartame
(D) Peripheral proteins

18. Maillard reactions gives colour due to reaction
13. What is the precursor of Vitamin D? between
(A) Phytosterol (A) fats and amino acids
(B) Sitosterol (B) fats and starch
(C) 7 Dehydro Cholesterol (C) amino acids and reducing sugars
(D) Ergosterol (D) fats and reducing sugars

14. Sympathetic stimulation :
19. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum affects
(A) Increases cellular metabolism
(A) Heart beat
(B) Decreases cellular metabolism
(B) Liver function
(C) Has no effect on cellular metabolism
(C) Neuro muscular junction
(D) Decreases body temperature
(D) Spleen

15. Which of the following hormones regulates the
basal state of metabolism? 20. The process of digestion in human is completed in
(A) Vasopressin (A) Oesophagus
(B) Thyroxin (B) Small Intestine
(C) Insulin (C) Stomach
(D) Estrogen (D) Large Intestine

X–5 2318–II

21. Fructose 2, 6 diphosphate (Bisphosphate) is a 26. Lye which is alkaline in nature is chemically
potent regulator of known as
(A) PFK-I (A) Potassium hydroxide
(B) PEP kinase (B) Sodium hydroxide
(C) Phosphatase (C) Potassium chloride
(D) Hexokinase (D) Sodium chloride

22. Breakdown of beta carotene to retinol takes place in 27. Full form of DPPH is
(A) Kidney (A) 2, 2 diphenyl-1-phenyl-hydrazyl-hydrate
(B) Pancreas (B) 2, 2 diphenyl-1-phenyl-hydroxyl
(C) Gall Bladder (C) 2, 2 diphenyl-1 picryl hydrazyl
(D) Intestine (D) 2, 2 diphenoxy-1 picryl hydrazyl

23. In which of the diseases the patients should not
eat gluten? 28. Human colostrum is rich in _________ which is
(A) Gastrointestinal disorder responsible for antibacterial and antiviral property.
(B) Malabsorption syndrome (A) Lactose
(C) Lipidosis disorder (B) Glycosides
(D) Celiac disease (C) Lactoferrin
(D) Maltose

24. What is the ICMR recommendation (2017) for
dietary intake of iron and folic acid for pregnant woman
respectively? 29. Parboiling of rice leads to the formation of
(A) 38 mg/day and 400 g/day (A) Type I resistant starch
(B) Type II resistant starch
(B) 32 mg/day and 400 g/day
(C) Type III resistant starch
(C) 35 mg/day and 450 g/day
(D) Type IV resistant starch
(D) 34 mg/day and 400 g/day

25. Which of the followings is not a product of 30. Which of the followings is primarily digested in
fermentation? the mouth?
(A) Methane (A) Carbohydrates
(B) Hydrogen (B) Proteins
(C) Oxygen (C) Fats
(D) Carbon dioxide (D) Vitamins

2318–II X–6

31. Salmon fish contains 2260 mg of omega 3 fatty 36. Bottled milk exposed to strong sunlight causes
acid per 3·5 oz. How much omega 3 fatty acid can be loss of
obtained from a food containing 50 gms of serving of (A) Protein
Salmon?
(B) Fat
(A) 1260 mg
(C) Carbohydrate
(B) 1130 mg
(D) Riboflavin
(C) 4520 mg
(D) 3260 mg

37. Yellowish tinch of milk is due to
(A) Sodium
32. Approximately at which pH casein precipitates? (B) Potassium
(A) 3·70 (C)  carotene
(B) 4·60 (D) Vitamin B2
(C) 7·00
(D) 9·40

38. During third trimester of pregnancy BMR
33. Potassium/Sodium ratio of banana per 150 gms
increases by
of serving will be
(A) 5%
(A) 308
(B) 406 (B) 12%
(C) 358 (C) 18%
(D) 256 (D) 8%

34. Total phenolic content is represented in terms of
39. Coli form bacteria are
(A) Catechinic acid equivalent
(A) Gram – ve rod
(B) Gallic acid equivalent (B) Gram + ve rod
(C) Tannic acid equivalent (C) Gram – ve spherical
(D) Quercetic acid equivalent (D) Gram + ve spherical

35. Physical activity helps a person in all of these
except 40. The functionally active form of vitamin D is
(A) Loss of belly fat (A) Cholecalciferol
(B) Constant weight loss (B) Ergocalciferol
(C) Retain muscle mass (C) Dehydrocholesterol
(D) Loss of toxin through sweat (D) 1, 2, 5 Dihydroxy cholecalciferol

X–7 2318–II

41. Match List I with List II. 46. During autoclaving, the temperature inside usually
List I List II remains
(a) Selenium (i) Garlic (A) 119°C at 15 psig
(b) Vitamin E (ii) Tomato (B) 122°C at 15 psig
(c) Flavonoids (iii) Sunflower seeds (C) 121°C at 15 psig
(d) Lycopene (iv) Sea foods (D) 123°C at 15 psig
(v) Green leafy vegetables
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v) 47. Selenium is used as cofactor of
(C) (ii) (iii) (v) (i) (A) Glutathione reductase
(D) (iv) (v) (ii) (iii) (B) Glutathione peroxidase
(C) Glutathione oxidase
42. Which of the followings is not a method of (D) Catalase
nutritional assessment using anthropometry?
(A) Skinfold thickness
(B) Waist circumference
(C) Blood pressure and pulse rate 48. Which of the followings is not normally considered
(D) Midupper arm circumference to be a food additive?
(A) Salt
43. Acetyl CoA is converted into sugar by (B) Artificial sweeteners
(A) Halophytes (C) Antioxidants
(B) Xerophytes (D) Artificial colour
(C) Ruminants
(D) Photosynthetic bacteria

44. A dye must contain : 49. Name the hormone secreted by  cells of pancreas:
(A) At least one chromophore group and one (A) Insulin
auxochrome group (B) Glucagon
(B) No chromophore group (C) Epinephrine
(C) No auxochrome group (D) Non-epinephrine
(D) One chromophore but no auxochrome group

45. During muscle contraction, the reaction occurs
between 50. Porin is present in
(A) Actin and Albumin (A) Gram + ve bacteria
(B) Actin and Tropomyosin (B) Gram – ve bacteria
(C) Actin and Myosin (C) Methanogens
(D) Actin and Troponine (D) Eubacteria

2318–II X–8

51. Management is a discipline of 56. Deficiency of Iodine leads to a condition called
(A) Talent (A) Hyperthyroidism
(B) Science (B) Hypothyroidism
(C) Intelligence (C) Cretinism
(D) Art (D) Deafmutism

52. Who among the followings does not necessarily 57. A balanced diet should provide ________% of
require iron rich food on routine basis? energy from proteins.
(A) Pregnant women (A) 50-60
(B) Infant and toddlers (B) 30-50
(C) Teenage girls (C) 20-40
(D) Post-menopausal women (D) 10-15

58. Which one of the followings has the best chemical
53. Successful dieter include the following qualities
score/calorie?
except
(A) Wheat
(A) Excercise (heavy or light) on daily basis
(B) Egg
(B) To skip breakfast
(C) Milk
(C) To have consistent diet plan
(D) Pulses
(D) To minimize fat and carbohydrate from diet

59. The dye which is developed during textile
54. Non-digestible food ingredients that stimulate manufacturing and processing itself from a chemical
the growth and activity of certain bacteria in the colon reaction is
are called (A) Vat dye
(A) Insoluble fibre (B) Sulphur dye
(B) Probiotics (C) Acid dye
(C) Prebiotics (D) Azo dye
(D) Symbiotics

60. A white coloured sidecap pointed at both ends
55. Protein malnutrition leads to a condition called made of khadi is known as
(A) Marasmus (A) Hat
(B) Anaemia (B) Turban
(C) Stroke (C) Gandhi cap
(D) Kwashiorkor (D) Beret

X–9 2318–II

61. The colour of clothing which express the symbol 66. Misunderstanding between Britishers and Indians
of good luck for bride is was due to which of the following items?
(A) Blue (A) Dhoti and hat
(B) Yellow (B) Turban and shoes
(C) Green (C) Saree and frock
(D) Red (D) Dhoti and shirt

67. Which strategy does influence internal
62. Nauvari style of draping saree is common with communication?
women from which state? (A) Organization strategy
(A) Maharastra (B) A strategy of its own
(B) Assam (C) Combination of both organization strategy
(C) Andhra Pradesh and a strategy of its own
(D) Rajasthan (D) Depends upon the media

68. The act of communication is also known as
63. How many beds can be accommodated in a flat
bed knitting machine? (A) Affiliation
(A) Only One (B) Teleporation
(B) Only Two (C) Transmission
(C) One or Two (D) Fortification
(D) More than two

69. __________ is a type of education imparted in a
free atmosphere without rigidity of rules and regulations
64. Which part of the jute plant is used for extraction governing the formal schools and colleges.
of jute fiber? (A) Non-formal education
(A) Stem (B) Formal education
(B) Root (C) Distance education
(C) Branch (D) Classroom education
(D) Leaves

70. An act of stage craft in which a person changes
his or her voice so that it appears that the voice is coming
65. For which of the following plants cultivations from elsewhere, usually done by a puppeteered “dummy”
warm climate and black soil is required? is called
(A) Jute (A) Ventriloquism
(B) Coconut (B) Spiritualism
(C) Cotton (C) Silappadikaram
(D) Hemp (D) Bommalattam

2318–II X–10

71. The movement of information to the general 76. Casual questions asked during an interview are
public from the media is known as known as
(A) Awareness (A) Filter question
(B) Reality (B) Response
(C) Publicity (C) Probe
(D) Rage (D) Pilot

77. Which of the followings is true for psychomotor
72. Outdoor advertisement can be advertised in study?
everything except (A) It deals with psychology
(A) Guerrilla advertising (B) It measures feelings
(B) Radio (C) It deals with physical skills such as
(C) TV movement, strength and speed
(D) Educational Institution (D) It measures intellectual capability

78. Assertion (T) : In theory “Y” the attitude held
by the manager is optimistic.
73. Simple random sampling offers which of the
following benefits?
Reason (R) : He believes that employees
(A) Calculation of accuracy of results under proper condition need to
(B) Representative results be guided and supervised.
(C) Respondents are choosen by interviewers (A) T is true and R is false.
(D) Informants practice freedom (B) Both T and R are true.
(C) Both T and R are false.
(D) T is false and R is true.

74. Smallest element in sample selection is
(A) Sample interval
79. Identify the sequence for starting up a business:
(B) Sampling unit
(C) Sample cells (i) Research
(D) Respondents (ii) Writing a business plan
(iii) Registration
(iv) Seeing an accountant
(v) Funding for business start up
75. Difference of observed frequencies from expected
frequencies can be determined by (vi) Setting up a business account
(A) t-test (A) (i) (ii) (v) (vi) (iv) (iii)
(B) f-test (B) (i) (iii) (v) (vi) (iv) (ii)
(C) t-test for independent sample (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)
(D) Chi-square test for independence (D) (ii) (i) (iii) (vi) (v) (iv)

X–11 2318–II

80. What is the most important criteria for a successful 84. When Jagriti was 5 years old, she met with a
entrepreneurship? terrible car accident with her parents and she was trapped
(A) Employ less no. of employee within the car for 5 hours. Later in her life she developed
(B) Internal rate of return (IRR) should be more claustrophobia. This can be explained by that area of
than 12% research where it is predicted that how early childhood
experiences may act as risk factors for later diagnosable
(C) Providing minimum wages to the employee
psychological disorders. Name the concerned area of
(D) Selection of the raw material research.
(A) Clinical psychopathology
(B) Developmental psychopathology
(C) Applied psychopathology
(D) Cognitive psychopathology
81. Which of the followings is not a characteristic of
extension education?
(A) Adaptability
(B) Happiness
85. Enuresis, one of the symptoms based disorder
(C) Collaboration
faced by a child means ________.
(D) Satisfaction
(A) Bed wetting
(B) Stammering
(C) Sleep talking
(D) Sleep walking

82. Which of the followings is not a characteristics of
non-formal education?
(A) It is well planned and no need of any agency’s
involvement 86. Which of the followings is the example of fine
(B) Age, Time and Curriculum flexibility motor skill for a child?
(C) No involvement of public and private sector (A) Kicking
in the process (B) Drawing
(D) No need for structured course and curriculum (C) Running
(D) Climbing

83. “Education is the manifestation of the perfection 87. Which scientist was of this opinion that the social
already in man”. ... This famous quote had been opined interactions are the driving force in cognitive
by development?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore (A) Skinner
(B) Swami Vivekananda (B) Dixon
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Vygotsky
(D) Indira Gandhi (D) Piaget

2318–II X–12

88. Children with down syndrome are at higher risk 93. Developmental communication refers to
of which of the followings? combination of actions by
(A) Visual and hearing problem (A) Governments
(B) Congenital heart disease (B) Donors
(C) Sleep apnoea (C) Civil Society
(D) Asthma (D) Governments, Donors and Civil Society

89. Which of the followings is True for Treacher-
Collin’s syndrome?
(A) Conductive hearing loss
(B) Hyperthyroidism 94. Which method is used in qualitative sampling?
(C) Anaemia (A) Random digital dialling
(D) Congenital heart disease (B) Quota
(C) Stratified random
(D) Simple random

90. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder includes
which one of the followings?
(A) Hypokinetic disorder
(B) Hyperactivity disorder
(C) Hyperkinetic disorder
(D) Hypoactivity disorder 95. When research is done to understand an event
from the past, it is called
(A) Historical research
(B) Replication
91. Heridity is _______ social structure. (C) Archival research
(A) Primary (D) Repetitive research
(B) Secondary
(C) Indispensable
(D) Static

92. Thorndike’s law of effect says 96. Lightness and drakness of colour is known as
(A) Give praise if work done is outstanding. (A) Tint
(B) Give feedback if work done is incorrect. (B) Intensity
(C) Give punishment if movement is incorect. (C) Tinge
(D) Give satisfactory if movement is correct. (D) Hue

X–13 2318–II

97. The basic principle of interior design includes 99. There is an urgent need for resoruce management
(A) Unity, balance, rhythm, emphasis because:
(B) Unity, balance, rhythm (A) Resoruces are limited in supply
(C) Unity, balance, rhythm, emphasis, scale and (B) Resources have alternate uses
proportion (C) Resources can be substituted
(D) Rhythm, emphasis, scale and proportion, (D) Resources identification
contrast

98. State whether the following statements are true or
false?
(i) Decision making is one time process to
setup major family goal.
(ii) The course of action selected after analyzing
all the alternatives should ideally satisfy all
family members. 100. Which one of the followings is a probability
(A) (i) is true and (ii) is false. method?
(B) (i) is false and (ii) is true. (A) Judgement
(C) (i) is true and (ii) is true. (B) Quota
(D) (i) is false and (ii) is false. (C) Simple random
(D) Convenience

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ROUGH WORK

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ROUGH WORK

2318–II X–16

ROUGH WORK