PULEET 2026 Question Paper

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PULEET 2026
Question Paper
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PULEET 2026 Question Paper

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m .co s e m PULEET 2026 Question Paper

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1. Find the resistance between the Points A and B in the circuit shown in fig. 1.

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(A) 100 (B) 150 Ω (C) 60 Ω (D) 30 Ω
2. AnaA.C. current is given by expression 𝑖 = 200 sin 100𝜋𝑡. It will attain a value of 100A
after ________________ sec.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. If Thevenin’s equivalent resistance for the given circuit is 2 ohms, then what is the value of
the unknown resistance R.?

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(A) 2 Ω (B) Zero Ω (C) 1 Ω (D) 4 Ω
4. The readings of two wattmeters are 1154, and 577 respectively while calculating three
phase power on a balance 3 phase load using two wattmeter method. The delta connected
load impedance for a system of 100V will be
(A) 15∠ − 90 (B) 15∠ + 30 (C) 15∠ − 30 (D) 15∠
15 + 90
5. The speed- torque regimes in a dc motor and the control methods suitable for the same are
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respectively in Group II and Group I
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Group I Group II
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s e X) Field control 1. Below the base speed
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a 3. Above the base torque
4. Below the base torque
(A) X-1 ; Y-3 (B) X-2 ; Y-1 (C) X-2 ; Y-3 (D) X--1 ; Y-4
6. For a two –pole, 3-phase,
phase, 50 Hz induction motor, the rotor frequency at a slip of 3% is
equal to _______________ Hz.
(A) 50 (B) 150 (C) 1.5 (D) 16.67

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PULEET 2026 Question Paper

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7. A 200 turns coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns are increased by 2
times the original number while keeping all other parameters like area, length etc. Same.
The new inductance will be ___________.
(A) 48 mH (B) 6 mH (C) 24 mH (D) 3 mH
8. A single phase transformer has maximum efficiency of 90% at full load at unity power
factor. The efficiency at half a full load will be _______% at unity power factor.
(A) 86.7 (B) 88.3 (C) 88.7 (D) 87.8
9. A transformer transforms the
(A) Voltage (B) Current (C) Power (D) Voltage and current
10. In a capacitor-start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in series with the
auxiliary winding is to
(A) Improve power factor (B) Increase overload capacity
(C) Reduce fluctuations in torque (D) To improve torque
11. In 50 % modulated AM signal, the carrier is suppressed before transmission. The saving in
transmitted power would be
(A) 88.9 % (B) 11.1% (C) 72 % (D) 18 %
12. A 4 bit ripple counter and a 4 bit synchronous counter are made by flip-flops having a
propagation delay of 10ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple counter and the
synchronous counter be R and S respectively, then
(A) R=10 ns , S=40 ns (B) R=30 ns , S=10 ns
(C) R=10 ns , S=30 ns (D) R=40 ns , S=10 ns
13. Which of the followings is commonly used as a voltage regulator?
(A) PIN diode (B) Zener diode
(C) Schottky diode (D) Photodiode
14. When a step input is applied to an OP-AMP integrator, the output will be:
(A) A square wave (B) A sine wave
(C) A ramp (D) A constant DC
15. When is the dual of the Boolean expression A+ AB=A?
(A) A+AB=B (B) A. (A+B) =B
(C) A. (A+B) = A (D) (A+A).B=A
16. The primary difference between a FET and BJT is that _____________.
(A) FET is current controlled device and BJT is voltage controlled device
(B) FET has lower input impedance than BJT
(C) BJT is more sensitive to temperature than FET
(D) FET is voltage controlled device and BJT is current controlled device
17. Convert (1100101)2 into hexadecimal number system.
(A) (C3)16 (B) (B3)16 (C) (65)16 (D) (125)16

(2)

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18. The output voltage Vo in the figure given below is:

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+ V0

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15V

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DC

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(A)a14.3 (B) 14.7 V (C) 14.0 V (D) 15.0 V
19. As per Barkhausen Criterion, for sustained oscillations, the total gain around the loop must
be:
(A) 0 (B) ∞ (C) 1 (D) < 1
20. Lissajous pattern obtained on a CRO can be used to determine:
(A) Phase shift (B) Voltage amplitude
(C) Amplitude distortion (D) Frequency gain
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21. A switch statement in C cannot work with:
(A) char (B) int m
(C) float .co (D) enum
e
s improves code reusability?
22.
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Which feature in object oriented programming
(A) Polymorphism (B) Inheritance
ag (C) Abstraction (D) Encapsulation
23. What is the output of this snippet?
char s1[10] = "Yes";
char s2[10] = "Yes";
if (s1 == s2) printf("Yes");
else printf("No");
(A) No (B) Compilation Error (C) Yes (D) Yes No
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24. Consider a 2D array int m[3][4]. Which of the following expressions correctly accesses
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m[2][3] using pointers?
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(A) *(*m + 2) + 3 (B) *(m + 2) + 3
s (C) *(*(m + 2 * 4) + 3) (D) *(*( m + 2) + 3)
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g la 25. What is the output of the following comparison logic? a
a const char *p1 = "PRINTER";
const char *s2 = "PRINT";
if (strncmp(p1, p2, 5) == 0) { printf("Match "); }
if (strcmp(p1, p2) == 0) { printf("Equal"); }
else { printf("Different"); }
(A) Match Equal (B) Different (C) Match Different (D) Equal

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26. Which of the following statements about recursion is FALSE?
(A) Every recursive function must have a base case to prevent infinite recursion.
(B) Recursion generally uses more memory than iteration due to the function call stack.
(C) A recursive function cannot be replaced by any iterative loop.
(D) Recursion is implemented using a Stack data structure.
27. In a self-referential structure, why must the reference to itself be a pointer?
(A) To allow the structure to be defined globally.
(B) Because the compiler needs to know the exact size of the structure at compile time.
(C) Because C doesn't allow nested structures.
(D) To prevent the code from being too long.
28. Which of the following is true about FILE *fp
(A) FILE is a keyword in C for representing files and fp is a pointer of FILE type
(B) FILE is a structure and fp is a pointer to the structure of FILE type
(C) FILE is a stream
(D) FILE is a buffered stream
29. What is the correct hierarchy of memory from fastest to slowest?
(A) RAM → Cache → Register → Hard Disk
(B) Cache → Register → RAM → Hard Disk
(C) Hard Disk → RAM → Cache → Register
(D) Register → Cache → RAM → Hard Disk
30. What will be the output of the following code?
float f = 3.7;
int i = (int)f;
printf("%d %.1f ", i, (float)i);
return 0;
(A) 4 4.0 (B) 3 3.0
(C) 3 3.7 (D) 4 3.7
31. Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut off is
(A) increased (B) decreased (C) maximum (D) zero
32. The specific heat of air increases with increase in
(A) pressure (B) air flow
(C) variation of its constituents (D) temperature
33. Water boils when its vapour pressure
(A) Boiling has nothing to do with vapor pressure
(B) Equals 760 mm of mercury
(C) Equals to atmospheric pressure
(D) Equals that of the surroundings
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34. The function of injector used in small steam plants is to
(A) Create vacuum in furnace
(B) Create vacuum at turbine exhaust
(C) Control steam temperature by injecting water
(D) Pump feed water
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Two important forces for a floating body are
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(A) Buoyancy, pressure (B) Buoyancy, viscous force
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(C) Gravity, pressure (D) Buoyancy, gravity
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36. l as
The ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as ag
ag
(A) Mach number (B) Froude number
(C) Reynold number (D) Weber number
37. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as
(A) One dimensional flow (B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow (D) Streamline flow
38. The loss of strength in compression due to overloading is known as
(A) Bouschinger effect (B) Hysteresis
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(C) Creep (D) Resilience
39. Stress in a beam and moment
e m(B) are inversely proportional
(A) are directly proportional
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(C) have curvilinear relation
a g (D) have unpredictable relationship
40. A hollow shaft of same cross section area as solid shaft transmits
(A) more torque (B) less torque
(C) same torque (D) more or less depending on external diameter
41 The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on A is
2.455 m If the foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the R.L.
of point B will be
(A) 94.80 m (B) 99.71 m (C) 100.29 m (D) 105.20 m
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42 If in a Dorry abrasion test the loss in weight is 21gms, then the coefficient of hardness is
(A) 9.5 (B) 13 (C) 17
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(D) 21

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In the limit state approach, spacing of main reinforcement controls
g la (A) Cracking (B) Deflection (C) Durability a (D) Collapse
a 44 What is the anchorage value of a standard hook of a reinforcement bar of diameter D?
(A) 4D (B) 8D (C) 12D (D) 16D
45 Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
(A) Drum roller (B) Rubber tyred roller
(C) Sheep’s foot roller (D) Vibratory roller

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46 The maximum longitudinal pitch in bolted joints, subjected to tensile forces, wherein
t = thickness of the plate and D = diameter of bolt is:
(A) 32 D (B) 16 D (C) 32 t (D) 16 t
47 Number
ber of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header
course, where x is equal to
(A) ½ (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) ¼
48 A steel wire of 20mm diameter is bent into a circular shape of 10m radius. If the modulus
of elasticity is 2×106 kg/cm2, then the maximum stress induced in the wire is:
(A) 103 kg/cm2 (B) 2×103 kg/cm2 (C) 4×103 kg/cm2 (D) 6×103 kg/cm2
49 If E = 2.06×105 N/mm2, an axial pull of 60kN suddenly applied to a steel rod 50mm in
diameter and 4m long. It causes an instantaneous elongation of the order of
(A) 119mm (B) 11.9mm (C) 1.19mm (D) 0.119mm
50 The diagram below shows a simply supported beam with load.

which one of the following diagrams is the shear force diagram for this beam?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
51. During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its :
(A) Internal energy increases (B) Enthalpy decreases
(C) Enthalpy remains constant (D) Enthalpy reduced to zero
52. What will be the weight of air required for the combustion 3 Kg of carbon
(A) 34.783 Kg. (B) 36.298 Kg. (C) 36.248 Kg. (D) 36.254 Kg.
53. Grams of Butane (C4H10) formed by the liquefaction of 448 litres of the gas (measured at
STP) would be :
(A) 580 (B) 640 (C) 1160 (D) 1180
54. The molar composition of gas is 10% H 2, 10% O2, 30% CO2 and balance H2O. If 50% H2O
condenses, final mol% of H2 in the gas on a dry basis will be :
(A) 10% (B) 5% (C) 18.18% (D) 20%
55. A bypass stream for a process is useful because :
(A) It improves conversion
(B) It increases the product yield
(C) It ensures better control over the process
(D) It improves selectivity

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56. 100 kmol of pure ethane is burned with 200 Kmol of air. The percent excess air supplied is:
(A) 40% (B) 20% (C) 60% (D) 80%
57. If 5.6 m3 of oil weighs 46800 N, its density in Kg/m3 is equal to
(A) 836 (B) 8357 (C) 0.852 (D) 852
58. A pressure of 1.0 torr is equal to
(A) 1 m H2O (B) 1 mm Hg (C) 1N/m2 (D) 1 Kgf/cm2
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The kinetic energy of gas molecules is zero at . co
(A) 00 C . c
(B) 2730 C (C) 1000C (D) -2730C e m
e m l as
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Which of the following is intensive property of a mixture
l a ag
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(A) Volume (B) Temperature (C) Heat Capacity (D) Enthalpy
61. Two masses of 4 kg and 6 kg are connected by a light inextensible string passing over a
smooth, frictionless pulley. Determine the acceleration of the system.
(A) 1.96 m/s2 (B) 2.45 m/s2 (C) 3.92 m/s2 (D) 4.90 m/s2
62. The phase difference between acceleration and displacement in simple harmonic motion is:
(A) 0 o (B) 90 o (C) 180o (D) 45o
63. Which of the following does not produce interference by the division of wavefront?
(A) Fresnel’s prism (B) Lloyd’s mirror m
(C) Young’s double-slit experiment .co
(D) Colours produced in thin films
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If wavelength is reduced by half while aperture remains constant, the resolving power of a
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telescope:
(A) Becomes half (B) Remains unchanged
(C) Doubles (D) Becomes four times

65. Two bodies of equal masses and specific heats c1 and c2 are supplied with equal heat. The
ratio of the rise in temperatures of the first body to the second body (∆𝑻𝟏 /(∆𝑻𝟐 ) is:
(A) c1:c2 (B) c2:c1 (C) c12:c22 (D) 1:1
66. Which mode of heat transfer can occur in vacuum?
(A) Conduction only (B) Convection only m
m (C) Radiation only (D) Conduction and convection
c.67.o A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and separation d. A dielectric mslab of dielectric .co
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constant K and thickness t is inserted between the plates. The new
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∈𝒐 𝑨 ∈𝒐 𝑨 ∈𝒐 𝑨 ∈𝒐 𝑨
(A) 𝒕 (B) 𝒕 (C) (D)
𝒅 𝒕 𝒅 𝒕 𝒅 𝒕 𝑲 𝒅 𝒕 𝑲
𝑲 𝑲

68. The drift velocity of electrons in a conductor is of the order:
(A) 108 m/s (B) 106 m/s (C) 10-8 m/s (D) 10-4 m/s
69. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 300V. The de-
Broglie wavelength associated with the electron is:
(A) 0.071 A˚ (B) 0.71 A˚ (C) 1.22 A˚ (D) 2.24 A˚

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PULEET 2026 Question Paper

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70. Fusion reactions require extremely high temperature primarily to
(A) increase electron density (B) produce neutrons
(C) increase radioactivity (D) overcome Coulomb repulsion

71. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible?
(A) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0 (B) n = 3, l = 3, m = 2
(C) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 (D) n = 4, l = 3, m = -3

72. The electronic configuration of the atom with atomic number 47 is
(A) [Kr] 4d10 5s2 (B) [Ar] 4d10 5s2 (C) [Kr] 4d10 5s1 (D) [Ar] 4d10 5s1
73. Which one of the followings has zero cetane number?
(A) Diesel (B) Pterol
(C) 1-Methyl naphthalene (D) Hexadecane
74. The conversion of higher hydrocarbons to lower hydrocarbon is known as
(A) Splitting (B) Reforming (C) Refining (D) Cracking
75. Precipitates formed during boiling of water are?
(A) CaCO3 and MgCO3 (B) Ca(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2
(C) CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2 (D) Ca(OH)2 and MgCO3
76. Which one of the followings can be used to sterilize water?
(A) Ozone (B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen peroxide (D) Caustic potash
77. The corrosion caused by the direct chemical action of environmental gases is called
(A) Wet corrosion (B) Dry corrosion
(C) Pitting corrosion (D) Electrochemical corrosion
78. For sacrificial anodic protection of steel, which one of the following metals cannot be
used?
(A) Pb (B) Mg (C) Al (D) Zn
79. Carbon monoxide is a serious pollutant because
(A) it reacts with oxygen and hydrocarbons
(B) it inhibits glycolysis
(C) it causes nervous system disorder
(D) it reacts with haemoglobin
80. Chlorofluorocarbons are generally known as
(A) Freon (B) Fluoromethane (C) Hydrocarbons (D) Anisol
81. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (-2,-3), (3,2) and (-1,-8).
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
…
82. The value of (0.2) √ is _____________________
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) –log2 (D) 2 log

(8)

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83. If A is singular matrix, then 𝐴 (𝑎𝑑𝑗 𝐴) = _______________.
(A) A unit matrix (B) A null matrix
(C) A symmetric matrix (D) Cannot be determined
84. Find the value of tan 1 tan 2 tan 3 … tan 89 .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) 1/2
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85. If 𝑒 + 𝑒 = 𝑒
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, then = __________. . co
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(A) 𝑒
e m (B) 𝑒 (C) −𝑒 (D) −𝑒
l as
86.
l as
Find the general solution of the differential equation 𝑥 = 𝑦 + 𝑥 tan .
ag
(A)ag
cos = 𝑐𝑥 (B) sin 𝑦𝑥 = 𝑐 (C) sin = 𝑐𝑥 (D) sin 𝑦 = 𝑐𝑥

87. Find the shortest distance between the lines = = and = = .
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12

88. Find the curvature for the curve r  ( a cos t )iˆ  ( a sin t ) ˆj  bkˆ, a, b  0, a 2  b 2  0.
(A) 1/𝑏 (B) 1/𝑎 (C) (D)

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89. Evaluate the ∮ (𝑥 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥 𝑑𝑦) where C is the boundary of the triangular region with
vertices (0,0), (1,0) and (1,1).
e m(C) 8 𝜋
(A) 3/16 (B) 16 𝜋
l as (D) 5/12
90.
a g coordinates.
Find the area of the region R in polar
(A) ∬ 𝑑𝑟 𝑑𝜃 (B) 𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑑𝜃
∬ √ (C) 𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑑𝜃 ∬ (D) ∬ 𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑑𝜃
91. A is in the West of B, B is in the South of C. If D is in the North of C, then in which
direction of A is D?
(A) North (B) South (C) North- West (D) North- East
92. In a certain code language, MUST is coded as ‘3785’ and POUR is coded as ‘9672’.
What is the code of STORM in the language?
o m
(A) 85623 (B) 68532 (C) 85632
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(D) 32586
m two years older than Y, Z is twice as old as Y. If total of the agemof.three of them is
c. o X26,isthen
93.
s e
e m how old is Y?
l a(D) 5
s (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 10 g
la 94. Look at the series; 57, 57, 40, 40, 23, 23,…… what is the nextanumber in the series?
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(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 10
95. Choose the sentence with the correct word order:
(A) Always she arrives early to class. (B) She always arrives early to class.
(C) She arrives always early to class. (D) Arrives she always early to class.

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PULEET 2026 Question Paper

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96. Identify the sentence with proper subject and verb arrangement after a negative adverbial
expression:
(A) Rarely he attends the meetings on time.
(B) Rarely attends he the meetings on time.
(C) Rarely does he attend the meetings on time.
(D) Rarely he does attend the meetings on time.
97. Identify the active voice sentence among the following:-
(A) The project was completed by the research team.
(B) A new policy has been introduced by the company.
(C) The students presented the seminar effectively.
(D) The invitations were sent by the coordinator.
98. Select the sentence in which the future perfect tense is used correctly:
(A) By next month, she completes her internship.
(B) By next month, she will have completed her internship.
(C) By next month, she had completed her internship.
(D) By next month, she has completed her internship.
99. Select the correct option of articles for the given sentence:
I bought _______ horse, _________ ox, and ________ buffalo.
(A) a, an, a (B) an, a, an (C) a, a, a (D) an, an, a
100. Identify the sentence with the correct use of a relative pronoun:
(A) The employee which submitted the report was appreciated.
(B) The employee whom submitted the report was appreciated.
(C) The employee who submitted the report was appreciated.
(D) The employee whose submitted the report was appreciated.
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK

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ROUGH WORK

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ROUGH WORK

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