KSET 2020 Question Paper Environmental Science

Paper : II

Booklet SERIAL No.
Subject : environmental science
Subject Code : 29

Roll No.
(Figures as per admission card)

OMR Sheet No. : ____________________

Name & Signature of Invigilator/s
Signature : _________________________________
Name : _________________________________
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
A»Ü¦ìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá Instructions for the Candidates
1. D ±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÆᤩ¿áÈÉ J¨ÜXst ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ ¯ÊÜá¾ ÃæãàÇ… ®ÜíŸÃÜ®Üá° ŸÃæÀáÄ. 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2. D ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áá ŸÖÜá BÁáR Ë«Ü¨Ü ®ÜãÃÜá (100) ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜWæãíw¨æ. 2. This paper consists of Hundred multiple-choice type of questions.
3. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ±ÝÅÃÜí»Ü¨È
Ü É, ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤P¿
æ á®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ ¯àvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. Êæã¨ÜÆ 5 ¯ËáÐÜWÜÙÜÈÉ 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be
¯àÊÜâ ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áÆá ÊÜáñÜᤠPæÙÜX®Üíñæ PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX ±ÜÄàQÒÓÜÆá PæãàÃÜÇÝX¨æ. given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet
(i) ±ÜÅÍæ°±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ ±ÜÅÊæàÍÝÊÜPÝÍÜ ±Üvæ¿áÆá, D Öæã©Pæ ±Üâo¨Ü Aíb®Ü ÊæáàÈÃÜáÊÜ and compulsorily examine it as below :
±æà±ÜÃ… ÔàÆ®Üá° ÖÜÄÀáÄ. ÔrPÜRÃ… ÔàÇ… CÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ ñæÃæ¨Ü ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal
on the edge of the cover page. Do not accept a booklet without
ÔÌàPÜÄÓܸæàw.
sticker seal or open booklet.
(ii) ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜâoWÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜááS±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the
ÊÜáá©Åst ÊÜÞ×£Áãí©Wæ ñÝÙæ ®æãàwÄ. ±ÜâoWÜÙÜá/±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PÝOæ¿Þ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ
booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty
©Ì±ÜÅ£ A¥ÜÊÝ A®ÜáPÜÅÊÜáÊÝXÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ CñÜÃÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜ¨Ü ¨æãàÐܱÜäÄñÜ booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in
±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° PÜãvÜÇæ 5 ¯ËáÐÜ¨Ü AÊܘ JÙÜWæ, ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄí¨Ü ÓÜÄ CÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced
Ÿ¨ÜÇÝÀáÔPæãÙÜÛ¸æàPÜá. B ŸÚPÜ ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á®Üá° Ÿ¨ÜÇÝÀáÓÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ, immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within
¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÖæaÜác ÓÜÊÜá¿áÊÜ®Üã° PæãvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
4. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜã (A), (B), (C) ÊÜáñÜᤠ(D) Gí¨Üá WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨Ü ®ÝÆáR ±Ü¿Þì¿á Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæ. ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜÅÍæ°¿á G¨ÜáÃÜá ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜ¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ, PæÙÜWæ PÝ~Ô¨Üíñæ 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D).
AívÝPÜꣿá®Üá° PܱݳXÓܸæàPÜá. You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response
E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæ : A B C D against each item.
(C) ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜÊÝX¨ÝªWÜ. Example : A B C D
5. D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á hæãñæ¿áÈÉ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ ¯ÊÜá¾ EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° where (C) is the correct response.
ÓÜãbÓÜñÜPÜR¨Üáª. OMR ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ AívÝPÜꣿáÆÉ¨æ ¸æàÃæ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Óܧ٨
Ü È
Ü É EñܤÃÊ
Ü ®Ü áÜ ° 5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet
WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨ÜÃæ, A¨ÜÃÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. kept inside this Booklet. If you mark at any place other than in the circles
6. OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ Pæãor ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° hÝWÜÃÜãPÜñæÀáí¨Ü K©Ä. in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully.
7. GÇÝÉ PÜÃÜvÜá PæÆÓÜÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR¨Üáª.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. ¯ÊÜá¾ WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° Ÿ×ÃÜíWܱÜwÓÜŸÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü ¯ÊÜá¾ ÖæÓÜÃÜá A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà bÖæ°¿á®Üá°, 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
ÓÜíWÜñÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓܧÙÜ ÖæãÃÜñÜá ±ÜwÔ, OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà »ÝWܨÜÈÉ ŸÃæ¨ÜÃæ, Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries,
¯àÊÜâ A®ÜÖÜìñæWæ ¸Ý«ÜÂÃÝWÜᣤàÄ. which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to
9. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿áá ÊÜááX¨Ü®ÜíñÜÃÜ, PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄWæ disqualification.
¯àÊÜâ ×í£ÃÜáXÓܸæàPÜá ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÄàPÝÒ PæãsÜw¿á ÖæãÃÜWæ OMR®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ 9. You have to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you
Pæãívæã¿áÂPÜãvܨÜá. outside the Examination Hall.
10. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ®ÜíñÜÃÜ, ±ÜÄàPÝÒ ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜáñÜᤠ®ÜPÜÆá OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of OMR Answer
¯Êæã¾í©Wæ ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãívÜá ÖæãàWÜŸÖÜá¨Üá. Sheet after the examination.
11. ¯àÈ/PܱÜâ³ ¸ÝÇ…±ÝÀáíp… ±æ®… ÊÜÞñÜÅÊæà E±ÜÁãàXÔÄ. 11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
12. PÝÂÆáRÇæàoÃ…, ˨Üá®ݾ®Ü E±ÜPÜÃÜ| A¥ÜÊÝ ÇÝW… pæàŸÇ… CñÝ©¿á 12. Use of any calculator, electronic gadgets or log table etc., is
E±ÜÁãàWÜÊÜ®Üá° ¯Ðæà˜ÓÜÇÝX¨æ. prohibited.
13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. ÓÜÄ AÆÉ¨Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚWæ Má| AíPÜ CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ .
14. In case of any discrepancy found in the Kannada translation of a
14. PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠCíXÉàÐ… BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜ ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæWÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Äࣿá ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜWÜÙÜá question booklet the question in English version shall be taken as
PÜívÜáŸí¨ÜÈÉ, CíXÉàÐ… BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜâ¨æà Aí£ÊÜáÊæí¨Üá ±ÜÄWÜ~ÓܸæàPÜá. final.
K – 2920 1 ±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O.

Environmental science
Paper – II

Note : This paper contains Hundred (100) objective type questions. Each question carries
two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
1. Replacement rate of a species along an 5. Refer to the data in the table and calculate
altitude/habitat condition is called as the standard deviation of the revenue
(A) α - diversity earned by the IPL teams in 2019.
IPL Team Revenue earned in
(B) β - diversity
2019 (Million dollars)
(C) γ - diversity Rajasthan 62
(D) d - diversity Hyderabad 93
Mumbai 126
2. The Anerobic method of mechanical Bangalore 75
compositing as practised in India is Kolkata 34
called the (A) $ 34, 387, 498
(A) Bangalore method (B) $ 36, 385, 468
(B) Indore method (C) $ 38, 285, 428
(C) Nagapur method (D) $ 42, 285, 328
(D) Bhopal method 6. scatter diagram is
3. Which of these is not the typical (A) A plot of non-paired observations
characteristics of urban heat Island ? (B) A plot of paired observations
(A) Waste heat (C) A plot of positive linear relationship
(D) A plot of negative linear relationship
(B) Low water quality
(C) Rolling Blackouts 7. Although human ear can hear sound of all
(D) Low-nighttime temperatures frequencies varying from 20 to 20,000 Hz,
most sensitive to frequencies in the
4. First satellite of NASA was range of
(A) Sputnik 2 (A) 100 to 500 Hz
(B) Explorer 1 (B) 500 to 5,000 Hz
(C) Sputnik 1 (C) 5,000 to 10,000 Hz
(D) 10,000 to 20,000 Hz
(D) Terra 1
Paper II 2 K – 2920

8. The instrument which provide 10. Subsidence inversion can be related
electromagnetic radiation of specified to a
wavelength or a brand of wavelengths to (A) Radiation
illuminate the earth surface are called (B) Tornado
(A) Sensors (C) Cyclone
(B) Passive sensors (D) Anticyclone

(C) Active sensors 11. NRLM of ministry of Rural
(D) Both passive and active sensors Development (MORD), Govt. of India
is renamed as
9. Match the List – I and List – II.
(A) Deendayal Antayodaya Yojana
List – I List – II
(B) Sardar Patel Antayodaya Yojana
a) National Mission i) Energy efficiency
(C) Madan Mohan Malviya Antayodaya
for Green India
Yojana
b) National Mission ii) Protection of
(D) Lokmanya Tilak Antayodaya
for sustainable forest cover
Yojana
Agriculture
c) National Mission iii) Awareness on 12. What is the number of Tiger reserves
for sustainable threats of climate in India under the National Tiger
Habitat change Conservation Authority ?
d) National Mission iv) Soil and water (A) 25 (B) 30
for climate change conservation (C) 35 (D) 50
Identify the correct codes :
13. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry
Codes :
and sunny climate, one of the following
a b c d is not amongst the components of
(A) ii iv i iii photochemical smog, identify it.

(B) i ii iii iv (A) NO2
(B) O3
(C) iii ii iv i
(C) SO2
(D) iv ii i iii
(D) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
K – 2920 3 Paper II

14. The Keystone predator species maintain 18. According to the principle of
diversity in a community by uniformatarianism
(A) Preying on community dominant (A) Geological processes we observe
species today have operated in the past
(B) Coevolving with prey (B) Geologic process in the past operated
(C) Inclusion of other predators at the same rate as they do today
(D) Discouraging competitiveness (C) All of the planets formed from a

15. The unit of ozone is uniform solar nebula

(A) dB (B) ppb (D) Early earth was covered by a uniform

(C) ppm (D) DU magma ocean

16. NICRA stands for 19. What was the atmospheric CO 2

(A) National Innovations on Climate concentration during 2018 as per world

Resilient Agriculture meterological organization ?

(B) National Innovations to Climate (A) ~ 205 ppm
Responsive Agriculture (B) ~ 350 ppm
(C) National Innovations on Climate (C) ~ 405 ppm
Risk Adaptation
(D) ~ 305 ppm
(D) National Integration of Climate
Resilient Agriculture 20. Which one of the following equipments is
employed for the removal of particulate
17. The Home-range of an Elephant
matter above 50µ in size ?
herd is
(A) Fabric filter
(A) 100 – 300 Sq. Kms.
(B) Cyclone
(B) 200 – 1000 Sq. Kms.
(C) Gravity settling chamber
(C) 250 – 2500 Sq. Kms.
(D) 250 – 3500 Sq. Kms. (D) Electrostatic precipitator

Paper II 4 K – 2920

21. Working Group – II contribution to 23. Which rock type would make the best
the IPcc’s Fifth Assessment Report aquifer ?
(A) Shale
(WGIIAR5) evaluates
(B) Mudstone
(A) How pattern of risks and potential (C) Sandstone
benefits are shifting due to climate (D) Basalt
change since 2015 when the MDGs
24. The order of vegetation development in
era comes to a conclusion with the 10 m deep pond will be
end of the year 2016. (A) Floating→Submerged→Reed→
(B) How pattern of risks and potential Herb
(B) Submerged→Reed→Floating→
benefits are shifting due to Herb
climate change since 2012 the (C) Floating→Submerged→ Herb →
third international conference on Reed
sustainable development. (D) Submerged→Floating→Reed→
Herb
(C) How pattern of risks and potential
benefits are shifting due to climate 25. In urban air pollution, the most poisonous
gas is supposed to be carbon monoxide.
change since 2007 when the fourth It is hazardous because
Assessment Report (AR4) was (A) It is carcinogenic in nature
released (B) It causes blindness
(D) How pattern of risks and potential (C) It affects our sense of smell
(D) It combines with haemoglobin
benefits are shifting due to climate
change since 2001 when the Third 26. Deepor Beel is a
Assessment Report (AR3) was (A) Ramsar site located in Uttarakhand
and known for conservation of
released. avifauna including migratory birds
(B) Ramsar site located in Assam and
22. The most important cause for turtle
known for conservation of avifauna
mortality in India is including migratory birds
(A) Coastal development (C) Ramsar site located in Nagaland
known for conservation of
(B) Climate change amphibians
(C) Eco-tourism (D) Ramsar site located in Manipur
known for conservation of Hilsa
(D) Incidental catch
fish
K – 2920 5 Paper II

27. Twin Pit Toilet design was built under 32. Assertion (A) : Sanitary landfills can no
which programme of Government of longer be used for the disposal of solid
India ?
waste in India.
(A) Swachtha hi Seva
Reason (R) : The leachator from sanitary
(B) Swach Bharath Abhiyan
landfills may be pollute the ground
(C) Ek Bharath Shresht Bharath
(D) Gramin Swachtha Abhiyan water.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
28. Rivers that receives water from
the correct explanation of (A)
groundwater seepage are termed as
(A) Effluent rivers (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(B) Consequent rivers not a correct explanation of (A)
(C) Influent rivers (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Braided rivers (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
29. What is the built up area required for
33. Biodiversity hotspots are earth’s
eligibility to obtain GRIHA certification ?
(A) 1000 Sq. m2 most biologically rich-yet threatened
(B) 1500 Sq. m2 regions.
(C) 2500 Sq. m2 Assertion (A) : Contain atleast 1500
(D) 3500 Sq. m2 species of vascular plants found nowhere
else an Earth (known as “endemic”
30. Metamorphic rocks form a significant
proportion of species).
(A) Oceanic crust Reason (R) : Not with standing having
(B) Continental crust to have lost atleast 70% of its primary
(C) Shields and core of mountain native vegetation.
(D) Oceanic crust and continental crust (A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
31. A species when established in new area not the correct reason for (A)
is called as (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(A) Aggregation the correct reason for (A)
(B) Ecesis
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false
(C) Migration
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Stabilization
Paper II 6 K – 2920

34. What is the special chemical component 38. Photosynthesis is an example of
required to reduce NoX emissions in
BSVI Diesel engine ? (A) Condensation reaction
(A) Deionised water (B) Exothermic reaction
(B) Reduced urea (C) Reversible reaction
(C) Reduced sulfur
(D) Diesel exhaust fluid (D) Endothermic reaction

35. The second stage Biochemical Oxygen 39. Earth summit held at Rio de Janeiro was
Demand (BOD) as shown in figure related to one of the following. Identify
below is due to
the correct one.
(A) Survey of natural resources
(B) Afforestation and deforestation
(C) Conservation of environment
(D) Species assessment

40. The formulation for BOD assimilation
in a River should include
Fig. (A) BOD rate constant and sedimentation
(A) Increased activity of biomass of organic matter
(B) Interference by certain chemical (B) Sedimentation of organic matter
reaction
(C) Experimental error only
(D) Nitrification demand (C) BOD rate constant
36. Saalu Marada Timmakka received Indira (D) Pathogenic bacterial decay
Priyadarshini Vrikshamitra Award in coefficient
(A) 1990 (B) 1997
(C) 2005 (D) 2018 41. Changing consumption pattern is
37. Blue-carbon strategies for carbon (A) 13th SDGs
sequestration is mainly achieved by
(B) Chapter 4 in Section – I of Agenda 21
(A) Marine fungi
(B) Coral reefs (C) Chapter 26 in Section – III of
(C) Angiosperms Agenda 21
(D) Macroalgae (D) 7th MDGs
K – 2920 7 Paper II

42. Assertion (A) : Warming of the climate 46. Ecologically India is divided into
system is unequivocally resulting in (A) 18 agroecological regions
urban heat islands.
(B) 20 agroecological regions
Reason (R) : At continental, regional and
ocean basic scales numerous changes (C) 21 agroecological regions
have been observed including changes (D) 14 agroecological regions
in precipitation amounts and wind
pattern. 47. Emission trading as set out in Article – 17
(A) (A) is the consequence of (R) of the Kyoto Protocol provides for
(B) (A) is true (R) is false (A) Annex-I parties to acquire certified
(C) (A) and (R) are false emission reduction from other
Annex-I parties
(D) (A) and (R) are independent of each
other (B) Annex-II parties to acquire certified
emission reduction from Annex-I
43. Aichi Target is the outcome of which parties
among the following protocol/summits ? (C) Annex-II parties to acquire certified
(A) Kyoto protocol emission reduction from other
(B) Nagoya protocol Annex-II parties
(C) Copenhagen climate summit (D) Annex-I parties to acquire certified
(D) Bali Communique emission reduction from Annex-II
parties
44. How many biogeographic region in India
are reported ? 48. The descent of oceanic lithosphere into
(A) 05 (B) 10 the mantle is the process of ______
(C) 15 (D) 08 (A) Accretion
45. The following reactions take place (B) Subduction
during anerobic digestion of organics (C) Divergence
1. Acid regression (D) Contraction fault
2. Acid fermentation
3. Methane production 49. The National Food Security Act, 2013
4. Alkaline fermentation aims to provide subsidized food grains to
The correct sequence of the reaction is (A) One third of India’s population
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) Half of the India’s population
(B) 1 2 4 3 (C) All rural population
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) Approximately two thirds of
(D) 2 3 1 4 India’s 1.2 billion people
Paper II 8 K – 2920

50. Which of these species absorb Near 54. Assertion (A) : Ecosystem constitutes
Infrared Radiation and can be detected better life support for fulfilling the
by NIRS ? human needs and can be sustainable.
(A) O2 (B) C Reason (R) : The size and productivity
(C) N2 (D) Cl2 of the ecosystem is limited by various
ecosystem services such as provisioning,
51. Which one of the following is correct supporting, regulating and cultural.
for ‘Ecotype’ ? Identify the correct answer :
(A) Plant species with a wide range of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
genetic distribution evolve into a the correct explanation of (A)
local population (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(B) Plant species distributed widely not correct explanation of (A)
(C) Plant species found in different (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
ecosystem (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) Plant species grows with pine
forest 55. The Travel Cost Method (TCM) is
(A) Used for calculating economic
52. Match List – I and List – II : values of environmental goods
List – I List – II (B) Used for calculating economic values
a) Pollen i) Photochemical of medicinal plants products
grains smog
(C) Used for calculating economic
b) PAN ii) Particulate pollution values of protected areas
c) CO2 iii) Global warming (D) Used for calculating economic
d) Cadmium iv) Itai disease values of Ramsar sites
Identify the correct codes :
codes : 56. Tendency of some minerals to break
a b c d along smooth, flat surface is known as
(A) ii i iii iv (A) Fracture (B) Cleavage
(B) iv ii i iii (C) Streak (D) Luster
(C) i ii iii iv
(D) iii i ii iv 57. Contingent valuation is
(A) a survey method of determining
53. The unfolding of regular secondary the economic value of a processed
structure causes product
(A) Little increase in the entropy (B) a survey based method of determining
of protein the economic value of NTFPs
(B) Large decrease in the entropy of the (C) a survey based method of determining
protein the economic value of a non-market
(C) No change in the entropy of the resource
protein (D) a survey based method of determining
(D) Large increase in the entropy of the the economic value on environmental
protein resource
K – 2920 9 Paper II

58. Given below are two statements as 60. Gandha mardham Movement was
Assertion (A) and other labelled as taken up to prevent ecological
Reason (R). degradation due to
Assertion (A) : Mass wasting is the
(A) Iron mining
downslope movement of material under
the influence of gravity. (B) Copper mining
Reason (R) : Gravitational force acting (C) Bauxite mining
parallel to a slope reduces the slope's
(D) Platinum mining
strength.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is 61. As per UN report published on October11,
the correct explanation
2018 which country has experienced the
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
not the correct explanation highest economic loss in last 20 years
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false from climate related disasters
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (A) India

59. Match List – I and List – II : (B) China
List – I List – II (C) USA
(Treatment (Related
(D) Bangladesh
process) terms)
a) Oxidation i) Extended Aeration
62. A liquid mixture of complex hydrocarbons
ponds system
b) Lagoons ii) Attached growth chain chains/compounds is known as
system (A) Alcohol (B) Petroleum
c) Activated iii) Low cost
sludge treatment (C) Aldehyde (D) Ketone
process method
d) Trickling iv) Algae-Bacteria 63. Secondary Treatment of Activated
filter symbiotic sludge process is the
relationship (A) Aerated sludge in the aeration unit
Identify the correct codes :
codes : (B) Sludge settled in the Humus tank
a b c d (C) Sludge in the secondary tank after
(A) iv i ii iii
aeration and rich in microbial mass
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iii ii iv i (D) Sludge in the secondary tank after
(D) iii iv ii i aeration and rich in nutrients
Paper II 10 K – 2920

64. The anticancer compound ‘Taxol’ is 68. Large ecosystem on land represent with
obtained from which plant species ? different types of vegetation and wildlife
Choose the right one : is called
(A) Valeriana Jatamansi (A) Ecology (B) National park
(B) Podophyllum hexandrum
(C) Biome (D) Biodiversity
(C) Aconitum heterophyllum
(D) Taxus baccata 69. Consider the following treatment steps
in a water treatment plant
65. Geographical indications means
1. Filtration
(A) Socio-cultural significance of a
product 2. Aeration
(B) Socio-ecological significance of a 3. Sedimentation with coagulation
products 4. Intake with screening
(C) Geographic information of crops
5. Disinfection
with relation to their cultural
importance The correct sequence of these steps is
(D) Any indications which define the (A) 2 3 4 5 1
goods as originating in the territory
(B) 2 1 4 3 5
of a country or a region or locality
in that territory (C) 4 2 3 1 5
(D) 4 1 5 2 3
66. Carbon sequestration in soil is difficult
due to 70. The first environmental law in India was
(A) Anthropogenic warming enacted in the year
(B) Uncontrollable feedback
(A) 1947 (B) 1982
(C) Soil-climate feedback
(C) 1974 (D) 1950
(D) Positive feedback

67. Types of texture sedimentary rocks can 71. Climate forcing is a phenomenon which
have are results in
(A) Fine-grained only (A) Altering the global energy balance
(B) Fine-grained and coarse-grained (B) Changes in the composition of
(C) Fine-grained, medium-grained and Earth’s atmosphere
coarse-grained
(C) Fluctuations in the earth's orbit
(D) Fine-grained, medium grained,
coarse-grained and hard-grained (D) Variations in ocean circulation
K – 2920 11 Paper II

72. Ecological Footprint is 75. The response of plants to
(A) Consumption of ecological environmental rhythms of light and
resources darkness is known as
(B) The demand placed on nature by (A) Vernalization
individuals or nations
(C) Total harvest of ecological resources (B) Phototrophism
in a year (C) Photoperiodism
(D) Percentage of forest in an ecological (D) Phototaxis
region
76. Which of these is the correct combination
73. Island arc are characterized by the with respect to climate change ?
1. Extremely active subduction zone
(A) Dutch Rising sea
2. Represents forearc basin submersion – levels
3. Fissure type of volcanic activity
(B) Australian
4. Large negative Bouguer anomaly on
the convex side of volcanic arc Bushfire – Anti-El-nino
(A) 1 2 3 4 (C) California Southern
(B) 1 3 4 wildfire – Oscillation
(C) 1 2 4 (D) Kiribati Pacific
(D) 2 3 4 Phenomenon – acidification
74. Match List – I and List – II : 77. Dependent variables are known as
List – I List – II (A) Rarely dependent
(WQ (Permissible
parameters) value in drinking (B) Explanatory variables
water) (C) Random quantification of datasets
a) Total Hardness (mg/l) i) < 5 (D) Response variable, is affected by
b) Most probable ii) 0.3 independent variables
number per 100 ml
c) Iron concentration 78. Chemosynthesis is
(mg/l) iii) 0 (A) The process in which inorganic
d) Turbidity (NTU) iv) < 300 chemicals provide energy for
Select the correct answer using codes synthesis of organic molecules
given below : (B) The process in which organic
codes : molecules provide energy synthesis
a b c d of inorganic chemicals
(A) ii iv iii i (C) Synthesis of inorganic chemicals
(B) ii iv i iii within a short span of time
(C) iv iii ii i (D) Mixing of inorganic chemicals with
(D) iv ii iii i organic molecules
Paper II 12 K – 2920

79. A crescent shaped sand dune with the tips 82. Which of the following is part of
of the crescent pointing downwards regulatory services ?
(A) Transverse (B) Barchan (A) Livelihood
(C) Linear (D) Parabolic (B) Soil and Nutrients

80. Match the following and choose the (C) Food
correct answer : (D) Culture
List – I List – II
83. Assertion (A) : Wind erosion is
a) Origin of reptiles i) Ordovician
accelerated when soil is dry.
b) Rise of dinosaurs ii) Devonian
Reason (R) : Winds segregate dry humus,
c) Origin of
clay, silt and sand. The material with
amphibians iii) Triassic
least density is carried the farthest.
d) First land plants iv) Carboniferrous
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
Codes :
a b c d (B) (R) is not the correct reason
for (A)
(A) iv i ii iii
(C) (A) is true (R) is false
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iv iii ii i (D) Both (A) and (R) are false
(D) i iii iv ii 84. Second law of thermodynamics states
81. Assertion (A) : Alum is the most (A) That with each successive energy
commonly used coagulant in water transfer or transformation in a
treatment. system less energy is available to
do work
Reason (R) : Alum is effective in killing
pathogens present in water. (B) That energy is conserved

The correct option evaluating the above (C) That energy is neither created nor
statement is destroyed under normal condition

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and Reason (D) That energy may be transformed but
total amount does not change
(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is 85. Waves in oceans are larger than those
not the correct explanation of (A) in lake because of
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (A) Deeper water (B) Larger storms
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (C) Greater fetch (D) Wave base
K – 2920 13 Paper II

86. Temporary Hardness in water is 90. When a melting glacier deposit unsorted
caused by materials it is called as
(A) Dissolved carbondioxide
(B) Carbonates of calcium and (A) Glacial drift
magnesium (B) Till
(C) Bicarbonates of sodium and
potassium (C) Stratified drift
(D) Carbonates and bicarbonates of (D) Moraines
calcium and magnesium
91. Iron and manganese can be removed
87. Shedding of leaves or plant part is caused
due to the deficiency of from water, by
(A) Gibberellins (A) Activated carbon added
(B) Absicisic acid
(C) Cytokinins (B) Boiling of water
(D) Auxins (C) Aeration followed by coagulation

88. Soil management land capability classes (D) Chlorination
are numbered from one to eight. Choose
the right combination. 92. A mutually beneficial association
(A) Class – I : cannot be used for between two organism is known as
continuous cultivation
(B) Class – III : Soils have limitation (A) Symbiosis
and require special conservation (B) Commanalism
measures
(C) Class – V : Soils are likely to (C) Amenalism
erode (D) Parasites
(D) Class – VII : Soils do not require
extreme care for low intensity use 93. During which conference of parties to
89. Ecological niche is defined as the UNFCC was the program on ethical
(A) Environmental factors that determine dimensions of climate change launched ?
a species distribution
(B) Ecological surrounding of a particular (A) 19th – Warsaw
species (B) 16th – Cancun
(C) Transition zone between two
ecosystems (C) 10th – Buneos Aires
(D) Boundaries of an ecosystem (D) 25th – Madrid

Paper II 14 K – 2920

94. Which of the following organisms can Read the following passage carefully and
act as primary consumer, secondary answer Q. No. 98 to Q. No. 100 :
consumer, tertiary consumer or scavenger Earth is differentiated into layers. The
in different types of food chain ? outermost layer is the crust, which is divided
(A) Zooplanktones into continental and oceanic portions. Below
(B) Snake the crust is the upper mantle. The crust and
(C) Raven upper mantle or lithosphere, overlie the
(D) Wild boar asthenosphere, a zone that slowly flows. The
asthenosphere is underlain by the solid lower
95. A scientist examined puzzle pieces on
map was mantle. Earth’s core consists of an outer
(A) Alfred Wegner liquid portion and an inner solid portion.
(B) John Wegner 98. A plate is composed of the
(C) Samuel Wegner (A) Lower mantle and asthenosphere
(D) Jefferson Wegner (B) Asthenosphere and upper mantle
96. Which of them is not a typical character (C) Upper mantle and crust
of Eutrophication ? (D) Continental and oceanic crust
(A) Anoxic conditions in the
99. The layer between upper mantle and
hypolimnion
lower mantle
(B) High ammonium concentration
(A) Lithosphere
and pH
(B) Crust
(C) Pelagic fish sink to the bottom
(C) Asthenosphere
(D) Floating macrophytes increase
oxygenation (D) Oceanic crust

97. The Indian Wetland declared as “Tiger 100. What fundamental process is thought to
Conservation landscape”of global be responsible for plate motions ?
importance is (A) Density differences between crust
(A) Rudrasagar and mantle
(B) Nalsarovar (B) Outer liquid portion of core
(C) Sunderbans (C) Subduction
(D) Keoladeo national Park (D) Convection cells

K – 2920 15 Paper II

Space for Rough Work

Paper II 16 K – 2920