KEAM 2024 Question Paper B.Pharm with Answers

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 9/2024/OL
Exam:KEAM2024 09
Date of Test: 09-06-2024

If the displacement of a body moving on a horizontal surface is 151.25 cm in a time interval of 2.25 s,
1. then the velocity of the body in the correct number of significant figures in cm s-1 is
A) 6722
B) 67.22
C) 67.222
D) 0.672
E) 67.2

Correct Answer : Option E

2. The dimensions of the torque is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

3.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

The displacement (x) – time (t) graph for the motion of a body is a straight line making an angle 45° with
4. the time axis. Then the body is moving with
A) uniform velocity
B) uniform acceleration
C) non-uniform acceleration
D) decreasing velocity
E) increasing velocity

Correct Answer : Option A

A ball is thrown up vertically at a speed of 6.0 m s-1. The maximum height reached by the ball (Take g =
5. 10 m s-2. ) is ;
A) 80 m
B) 100 m
C) 18 m
D) 1.8 m
E) 1m

Correct Answer : Option D

6. The INCORRECT statement is
A) Forces in nature always occur between pair of bodies
B) Action and reaction forces are simultaneous forces
C) Coefficient of static friction is greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction
D) Force is always in the direction of motion
E) Centripetal force acts towards the centre of a circle

Correct Answer : Option D

7. A bullet of 10 g, moving at 250 ms-1 penetrates 5 cm into a tree limb before coming to rest. Assuming
uniform force being exerted by the tree limb, the magnitude of the force is:
A) 12.5 N
B) 625 N
C) 62.5 N
D) 125 N
E) 6250 N

Correct Answer : Option E

8.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

9.

A) 128 J
B) 128 mJ
C) 12.8 mJ

D) 256 mJ
E) 2.56 mJ

The kinetic energy of a body is increased by 21 %. The percentage increase in the magnitude of its linear
10. momentum is :
A) 10 %
B) 11 %
C) 1%
D) 20 %
E) 21 %

Correct Answer : Option A

A tennis ball of mass 50g thrown vertically up at a speed of 25 m s-1 reaches a maximum height of 25 m.
11. The work done by the resistance forces on the ball is :
A) 12.5 J
B) 50 J
C) 62.5 J
D) 25 J
E) 31.25 J
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
12. The radius of gyration of a circular disc of radius R, rotating about its diameter is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

13. For a smoothly running analog clock, the angular velocity of its second hand in rad s-1 is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet is 2.5 times that on earth and radius, 10 times
14. that of the earth, then the ratio of the escape velocity on the surface of a planet to that on earth is
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:1
D) 1:5
E) 5:1

Correct Answer : Option E

The time period of revolution of a planet around the sun in an elliptical orbit of semi-major axis a is T.
15. Then
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

16. In an incompressible liquid flow, mass conservation leads to
A) equation of continuity
B) Bernoulli’s law
C) Stoke’s law
D) Toricelli’s law
E) Pascal’s law

Correct Answer : Option A

17. The maximum velocity of a fluid in a tube for which the flow remains streamlined is called its
A) terminal velocity
B) critical velocity
C) turbulent velocity
D) streamlined velocity
E) surface velocity

Correct Answer : Option B

18. Coefficient of linear expansion of aluminum is 2.5 x 10-5 K-1. Its coefficient of volume expansion in K-1 is
A) 1.25 x 10-5
B) 5.0 x 10-5
C) 7.5 x 10-5
D) 1 x 10-4
E) 4.0 x 10-5

19. The efficiency of a carnot engine operating between steam point and ice point is
A) 100 %
B) 50 %
C) 77 %
D) 27 %
E) 11 %

Correct Answer : Option D

20.

A) isothermal and isobaric
B) Isothermal and Adiabatic
C) isobaric and isochoric
D) isochoric and isobaric
E) Adiabatic and isothermal
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

21.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

According to equipartition principle, the energy contributed by each translational degree of freedom and
22. rotational degree of freedom at a temperature T are respectively ( kB =Boltzmann constant)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

The kinetic energy of 3 moles of a diatomic gas molecules in a container at a temperature T is same as
23. that of kinetic energy of n moles of monoatomic gas molecules in another container at the same
temperature T. The value of n is
A) 3
B) 4
C) 2.5
D) 5
E) 3.5

Correct Answer : Option D

A string of length L is fixed at both ends and vibrates in its fundamental mode. If the speed of waves on
24. the string is v, then the angular wave number of the standing wave is:

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

Ratio between the frequencies of the third harmonics in the closed organ pipe and open organ pipe of
25. same length is
A) 2:1
B) 1:2
C) 1:4
D) 4:1
E) 1:5

Correct Answer : Option B

A tuning fork vibrating at 300 Hz, initially in air, is then placed in a trough of water. The ratio of the
26. wavelength of the sound waves produced in air to that in water is (Given that the velocity of sound in
water and in air at that place are 1500 ms-1 and 350 ms-1 respectively)
A) 1:1
B) 37:23
C) 30:7
D) 7:30
E) 23:37

Correct Answer : Option D

The ratio of the magnitudes of electrostatic force between an electron and a proton separated by a
27. distance r to that between a proton and an alpha particle separated by the same distance r is
A) 1:1
B) 1:4
C) 4:1
D) 2:1
E) 1:2

Correct Answer : Option E

28.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

A spherical metal shell A of radius RA and a solid metal sphere B of radius RB (< RA) are kept far apart
29. and each is given charge +Q. If they are connected by a thin metal wire and QA and QB are the charge
on A and B, respectively, then
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

30.

A) 352
B) 35.2
C) 3.52
D) 70.4
E) 17.6

31. Magnitude of drift velocity per unit electric field is known as
A) displacement current
B) mobility
C) electric resistance
D) electrical conductivity
E) relaxation time

Correct Answer : Option B

32.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

A charged particle will continue to move in the same direction in a region, where (E- Electric field, B –
33. Magnetic field)
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

34.

A) 1:1
B) 1:4
C) 2:1
D) 1:2
E) 4:1

Correct Answer : Option D

An electric appliance draws 3A current from a 200 V, 50 Hz power supply. The amplitude of the supply
35. voltage is nearly:
A) 140 V
B) 200 V
C) 283 V
D) 67 V
E) 600 V

36.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

Correct Answer : Option A

A path length of 1m in air medium is equal to a path length of x m in a medium of refractive index 1.5.
37. Then the value of x (in metre) is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

38.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

39.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

40.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

41. The constancy of the binding energy per nucleon in medium sized nucleus is due to
A) short range nature of nuclear force
B) attractive nature of nuclear force
C) saturation of nuclear force
D) charge independent nature of nuclear forces
E) strongest nature of nuclear forces

Correct Answer : Option A

42. In a radioactive decay, fraction of the number of atoms left undecayed after time t is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

43.
A) neutron
B) neutrino
C) antineutrino
D) proton
E) positron

44. The current flowing from p to n side in a pn junction diode irrespective of biasing is termed
A) drift current
B) diffusion current
C) net current
D) displacement current
E) biasing current

Correct Answer : Option B

45. The energy required by the electron to cross the forbidden band for Germanium is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

The molarity of sodium hydroxide in the solution prepared by dissolving 6 g in 600 mL of water is (molar
46. mass of NaOH = 40 g mol-1 )
A) 0.5 M
B) 0.4 M
C) 0.25 M
D) 0.1 M
E) 0.2 M

The volume of ethanol required to prepare 3 L of 0.25 M aqueous solution is (density of ethanol= 0.36 kg
47.
L-1, molar mass = 60 g mol-1)
A) 125 mL
B) 25mL
C) 75mL
D) 50mL
E) 12.5mL

Correct Answer : Option A

48. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Bohr’s model of atom?
A) It fails to account for the finer details of the hydrogen atom spectrum.
B) Unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of magnetic field.
C) The angular momentum of electron is quantised.
D) The ability of atoms to form molecule by chemical bonds.
E) Unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of electric field.

Correct Answer : Option D

49. The decreasing order of first ionisation enthalpy of the following elements is
A) N>O>C>Be
B) O>N>C>Be
C) Be>C>O>N
D) O>N>Be>Ce
E) N>O>Be>C

Correct Answer : Option A

50. The hybridisation involved in the metal atom of [CrF6]3- is
A) d2sp3
B) dsp2
C) sp3d
D) sp3
E) sp3d2

Correct Answer : Option A

51. The valence electron MO configuration of C2(atomic number of C = 6) molecule is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

52. Which of the following is used as anode in mercury cell?
A) Paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2
B) Manganese dioxide and carbon
C) Paste of HgO and carbon
D) Paste of KOH and ZnO
E) Zinc-Mercury amalgam

Correct Answer : Option E

53. Which of the following is true for a reaction is spontaneous only at high temperature?
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

In a process, 600 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 375 J of work is done by the system. The
54. change in internal energy of the process is
A) 975 J
B) -225 J
C) -975 J
D) 985 J
E) 225 J

Correct Answer : Option E

55.

A) 6 x 10-42 M
B) 12 x 10-44 M
C) 8 x 10-44 M
D) 2 x 10-44 M
E) 4 x 10-44 M

56. The quantity of electricity required to produce 18 g of Al from molten Al2O3 is (Atomic mass of Al = 27)
A) 2F
B) 4F
C) 5F
D) 6F
E) 1.5F

Correct Answer : Option A

57. The average oxidation state of sulphur in the tetrathionate ion is
A) +3
B) +2.5
C) +5
D) +3.5
E) +1.5

Correct Answer : Option B

58. The mass percentage of glucose in acetonitrile when 6 g of glucose is dissolved in 294 g of acetonitrile is
A) 6%
B) 10 %
C) 8%
D) 4%
E) 2%

Correct Answer : Option E

The rate constant of a first order reaction is 4.606 x 10-3 s-1. The time taken to reduce 20 g of reactant
59. into 2 g is
A) 300 s
B) 500 s
C) 150 s
D) 400 s
E) 250 s

Correct Answer : Option B

60.

A) 3
B) 2.5
C) 3.5
D) 1.5
E) 2

Correct Answer : Option B

61. Which of the following mixture forms azeotrope?
A) Phenol-aniline
B) Nitric acid-water

C) Ethanol-acetone
D) Chloroform-acetone
E) CS2-acetone
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
62. A coordination compound of cobalt acts as antipernicious anaemia factor is
A) cyanocobalamine
B) carboxypeptidase
C) [Co(NH3)6]3+
D) haemoglobin
E) myoglobin

Correct Answer : Option A

63. The type of d-d transition of the electron occurs in [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

64. The increasing order of field strength of ligands in the spectrochemical series is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

65. The reaction, 2I- + S2O82- → I2 + 2SO42- , is catalysed by
A) Iron(II)
B) Manganese(VI)
C) Iron(III)
D) Vanadium(V)
E) Cobalt(III)

66. Which of the following is used in the treatment of lead poisoning?
A) EDTA
B) DMG
C) Cupron
D) α-nitroso-β-naphthol
E) [(Ph3P)3RhCl]

Correct Answer : Option A

67.
A) (ii)< (i) < (iii)
B) (i)< (iii) < (ii)
C) (ii)< (iii) < (i)
D) (iii)< (ii) < (i)
E) (i)< (ii) < (iii)

Correct Answer : Option E

68.
A) (ii)> (i) > (iii)
B) (iii)> (ii)>(i)
C) (ii)> (iii)>(i)
D) (i)> (iii)>(ii
E) (i)> (ii) >(iii)

Correct Answer : Option D

69. The number of unpaired electrons in [CoF6]3- is
A) one
B) four
C) zero
D) two
E) three

Correct Answer : Option B

One mole of an alkene on ozonolysis gives a mixture of one mole pentan-3-one and one mole methanal.
70. The alkene is
A) 3-ethylbut-1-ene
B) 2-methylpent-1-ene
C) 2-ethylbut-1-ene
D) 4-methylpent-2-ene
E) 4-methylpent-1-ene

A tertiary alkyl halide (X), C4H9Br, reacted with alc.KOH to give compound(Y). Compound(Y) reacted
71. with HBr in presence of peroxide to give compound(Z). The compounds (Y) and (Z) are respectively
A) propene and tert.butylbromide
B) 2-methyl-1-propene and 1-bromo-2-methylpropane
C) but-1-ene and 2-bromopropane
D) but-2-ene and 2-methylpropane
E) but-2-ene and 3-methylpropane

Correct Answer : Option B

72.

A) 2-methylbutan-1-ol and iodoethane
B) ethanol and 2-methyliodobutane
C) 2-methylbutan-2-ol and iodoethane
D) 2-methylbutan-2-ol and iodomethane
E) 2-methylbutan-1-ol and ethene

Correct Answer : Option A

73. The reagent used for the conversion of but-2-ene to ethanal is
A) anhydrous CrO3
B) DIBAL-H
C) PCC
D) O3/H2O-Zn dust
E) anhydrous AlCl3

Correct Answer : Option D

74. Which of the following is used as insect attractant?
A) Propan-1-amine
B) N,N-Dimethylmethanamine
C) Propan-2-amine
D) N, N-dimethylbutan-1-amine
E) Ethanamine

Correct Answer : Option B

75. Lactose is composed of
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

76.
A) 22
B) 12
C) 32
D) 42
E) 52

Correct Answer : Option A

77.
A) reflexive
B) symmetric
C) transitive
D) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
E) an equivalence relation

Correct Answer : Option A

78.

A)

B)

C)

D) 1
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option D

79.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

80.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

81.

A)

B)

C) -9
D) 17
E) 9

82.
A) 1 and 0
B) 0 and 1
C) -1 and 0
D) 0 and -1
E) 1 and -1

83.

A) 0

B)

C)

D) 1
E) 2

Correct Answer : Option D

84. The second term of G.P. is 4, then the product of first three terms is
A) 16
B) 32
C) 48
D) 64
E) 128

Correct Answer : Option D

85.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

86.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

87.
A) 12
B) 10
C) 38
D) 76
E) 56

Correct Answer : Option B

88.

A) 1023
B) 1024
C) 511
D) 2047
E) 612
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

89.

A) 12

B) 15
C) 10
D) 30
E) 20

Correct Answer : Option B

90.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

91.
A) 210
B) 240
C) 140
D) 120
E) 320

Correct Answer : Option A

92.

A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10
E) 20

Correct Answer : Option D

93.

A) 4
B) 7
C) 9
D) 11
E) 13

Correct Answer : Option D

94.
A) 0

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

95.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

96.

A) -2 and -6
B) 2 and 6
C) 1 and 4
D) -1 and -4
E) 2 and -6

Correct Answer : Option E

97.

A) -100
B) -80
C) 0
D) 60
E) 80

Correct Answer : Option B

98.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

99.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

100.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E) 1

Correct Answer : Option A

101.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

102.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

103.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

104.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

105.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 3
D) 5
E)

106.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

107.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

108.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

109.

A) 47
B) -25
C) 25
D) -47
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option B

110.
A) 1
B) 0
C) -1
D) 2
E) -2

Correct Answer : Option E

111.

A) 3
B) 6

C)

D)

E) -6

Correct Answer : Option B

112.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

113.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

114.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

115.
A) 2
B) 3
C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

116.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

117.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

118.

A) 3

B)

C) 2
D) 4

E)

119.

A) 2,-1
B) 1,3
C) -1,-3
D) -2,1
E) -1,1

Correct Answer : Option D

120.

A)

B) 3
C) 4

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

121.
A) 1
B) 13
C) 24
D) 17
E) 3

Correct Answer : Option B

122.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

123.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

124.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

125.
A) 2
B) 2.5
C) 2.57
D) 3
E) 3.75

126.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

127.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

128.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

129.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option B

130.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

131.

A)

B) -1
C) 1

D)

E) 0

Correct Answer : Option E

132.

A)

B)

C)

D) -1
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option D

133.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

134.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

135.
A) 12
B) 11
C) 10
D) 9
E) 35

Correct Answer : Option B

136.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16
E) 12

Correct Answer : Option B

137.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

138.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

139.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

140.
A) 4
B) 0

C)

D) 1

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

141.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

142.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option D

143.

A)

B)

C) -1
D) 1
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option E

144.

A)

B) 1

C)

D)

E) 0

Correct Answer : Option E

145.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E) 0

146.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

147.
A) a family of circles having centre on the x -axis.
B) a family of circles having centre on the y -axis
C) a family of all circles having centre at the origin
D) a family of ellipses
E) a family of hyperbolas

Correct Answer : Option A

148.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option A

149.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) not defined

Correct Answer : Option E

150.

A) (3,2)
B) (3,0)
C) (0,2)
D) (1,0)
E) (0,1)

Correct Answer : Option A

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