CS CSEET June 2026 Question Paper Business Laws and Management (OMR Based)

FOR CS CSEET EXAM PREPARATION

CS CSEET 2026
Question Paper ·
Business Laws and
Management (OMR
Based)
EXAM YEAR TYPE

CS CSEET 2026 Question Paper
SUBJECT DATE

Business Laws and Management (OMR Based) June 2026

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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714 : 2 :
Part—A
1. The decisions of Supreme Court and High 4. In the case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State
Court which lay down some rule or principle
of Kerala, (1973) 4 SCC 225, what does
are called :
‘‘SCC’’ stand for ?
(A) Judicial Precedents
(A) State Court Cases
(B) Custom
(B) Supreme Court Cases
(C) Statute
(C) Supreme Court Calendar
(D) Act
(D) Supreme Court Citation
2. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
5. What is the primary objective of the DPDP
deals with consolidation and amendment
of : Act, 2023 ?

(A) Provisions relating to offences and (A) To regulate only traditional, non-digital
incidental matters data
(B) Law relating to criminal procedure (B) To ban international data transfers
(C) Law related to civil procedure completely

(D) All of the above (C) To protect digital personal data for

3. Which of the following is correct in reference lawful purposes
to The Mediation Act, 2023 ? (D) To increase governmental surveillance
(A) It encourages voluntary and structured on social media
mediation to resolve disputes amicably
6. The ‘‘Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023’’
(B) It encourages voluntary and
replaces which of the following law ?
unstructured mediation to resolve
disputes amicably (A) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(C) It encourages involuntary and structured (B) The Indian Penal Code, 1860
mediation to resolve disputes amicably
(C) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(D) It encourages involuntary and
unstructured mediation to resolve (D) The Code of Civil Procedure Code,
disputes amicably 1908

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A

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7. What do you mean by maxim ‘‘Audi alteram 10. In ‘The Workmen Employed in Associated
partem’’ ? Rubber Industries Ltd., Bhavnagar v The

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Associated Rubber Industries. Ltd.,

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(A) Let the buyer beware
m .
Bhavnagar and another (1986) the corporate

c. o
(B) Seller is responsible veil was lifted because :
s e m
emother side
(C) Hearsthe
g
(A) Purpose of company formation was to
l a
g l a avoid welfare legislation a
(D) a No one can be a judge in his own (B) Company evaded income tax
case (C) Company was just an agency or trust
8. The property of the company CFI for someone else

Technologies Private Ltd. is not the property (D) For determining true character of the
company
of its shareholders. It is the property of the

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11. A company is called a small company, if it

c. o has :
company. Which landmark case stated this

em
concept ?

l a s (A) Borrowing of less than ` 25 lakh

g
(A) Connors Bros. v Connors (1940)

(B) Gilford Motor Co. v Hornea (1933)
(B) Number of employees less than 25

(C) Number of directors less than seven
(C) Gramophone & Typewriter Co. v
(D) Turnover is ` 50 lakhs
Stanley (1906)
12. A company in broad sense may mean ‘‘an
(D) Salomon v Salomon (1897) association of individuals formed for some

m
9. Which section of The Companies Act, 2013 purpose’’, was governed by the case

m
study :
c. o
c. o under the Companies Act, 2013 or under
defines company as a company incorporated

s em
em any previous Company Law ?
(A) Smith v. Anderson

s g lav. Solomon and Company
la a
(B) Solomon

ag (A) Section 2(20) Limited

(B) Section 2(21) (C) Gramophone & Typewriter Co. v.
Stantley
(C) Section 2(50)
(D) Section 2(51) (D) Mohari Bibi v. Dharmodas Ghosh

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714 : 4 :

13. Pursuant to Companies Act, 2013 a company 16. Any company in which not less than fifty-
should file resolutions of certain specified one per cent of the paid-up share capital
agenda discussed in board meeting in is held by the Central Government, or by
e-form : any State Government or Governments, or
(A) MGT-15 partly by the Central Government and partly
(B) DIR-12 by one or more State Governments and
(C) MGT-7 includes a company which is a subsidiary
(D) MGT-14 company of such a Government company.
14. Without approval of the shareholders by the (A) Small Company
special resolution a company can have how (B) Government Company
many directors under the Companies Act,
(C) Producer Company
2013 ?
(D) Foreign Company
(A) 20
17. In case a company does not have a common
(B) 15
seal and there is Company Secretary, the
(C) 12
authorization shall be made by :
(D) 10
(A) One Director
15. A general meeting may be called after giving
(B) A Director and Company Secretary
a shorter notice if consent is given in writing
(C) Company Secretary
by :
(D) Either (A) or (B)
(A) Not less than 75% of members entitled
18. Every listed company should have at least
to vote at such meeting
................. of the total number of directors
(B) Not less than 90% of members entitled
to vote at such meeting as independent directors.

(C) Not less than 95% of members entitled (A) One-half

to vote at such meeting (B) One-third

(D) Not less than 50% of members entitled (C) Two-third

to vote at such meeting (D) Two-fifth

1/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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19. The minimum number of directors in Samrat 23. In case of a dormant company at least :
Steels Private Ltd. which is a small company (A) One board meeting should be

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is :

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conducted in each half of the

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(A) Two
c m
calendar year

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(B) One
e
(B)
conducted in each half gofl the
Three board meetings should be

l a
(C) Three s a
(D) g
a Five
20. The minimum paid-up share capital of Sunrise
financial year
(C) Two board meetings should be
Private Ltd. is : conducted in each half of the
(A) ` 1,00,000 calendar year
(B) ` 5,00,000 (D) One board meeting should be
(C) ` 10,00,000 conducted in a calendar year

o m Every company shall have at least one
c
(D) As may be prescribed by Central
. director who stays in India for how many
24.
Government
e m
l a s
21. A meeting of Board of Directors was called

ag
days in the financial year ?
on 18.12.2025. There was no quorum.
(A) Not less than 150 days
Hence the meeting shall automatically stand
(B) Not less than 180 days
adjourned to :
(C) Not less than 200 days
(A) Next day
(D) 182 days or more
(B) Next month
25. Which of the following person cannot be an
(C) Same day in the next week
m
c. o
independent director in FDE Textiles

m
(D) After 14 days from 18.12.2025

c. o m
Ltd. ?
e
22. The gap between two consecutive board

em meetings in Himmat Ltd. should not be more la s
(A) Who was a promoter of a subsidiary

l as ag
company
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than :
a (A) 90 days
(B) Who is a promoter of holding company
(C) Who is related to directors in the
(B) 120 days
company
(C) 60 days
(D) All of the above
(D) 180 days
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714 : 6 :

26. Contract by which one party promises to save 29. A person who is employed to bring his
the other party from loss caused to him by principal into contractual relations with third
the conduct of the promisor himself, or by parties is known as :
the conduct of any other person is called :
(A) Bailor
(A) Proposal
(B) Bailee
(B) Indemnity
(C) Agency
(C) Guarantee
(D) Owner
(D) Agreement
30. An agreement was entered into with Raghu
27. Rohit deposited his gold chain with the bank
as security for loan of ` 1,00,000/- and who is a minor. This agreement is :

promised to repay the amount with interest. (A) Voidable

What kind of special contract entered by (B) Void
Rohit and Bank ? (C) Bad
(A) Bailment (D) Illegal
(B) Indemnity
31. Which one from below is not related to
(C) Guarantee
contract of bailment ?
(D) Pledge
(A) Ranjan left luggage in a cloak room
28. In order to convert a proposal to promise,
(B) Ranvir delivered his TV for repair
the acceptance must be :
(C) Rajesh left his scooter at parking stand
(A) Absolute and qualified
beside the mall
(B) Expressed in some usual and
reasonable manner, unless the proposal (D) Shareholder Rana executed a bond

prescribes the manner in which it is favoring the company thereby agreeing
to be accepted to satisfy the company for any loss
(C) Absolute and unqualified caused as a consequence of his own
(D) Both (B) and (C) only act

1/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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32. While attending a seminar, Sumana invited 35. A warranty is a stipulation ................ to the
Amrita to have dinner at her flat on Saturday. main purpose of the contract, the breach of

o m
c
Amrita hired a cab and reached Sumana’s

om .
which gives rise to a claim for damages but

c not to a right to reject the goods and treat m
. e
flat at the appointed time. Sumana failed to

e m l a s
s
perform her promise. Can Amrita recover

l a
the contract as repudiated.
a g
g
any damages from Sumana ?
(A) a Yes, as Amrita has suffered
(A) Collateral

(B) Not collateral
(B) No, as the intention was not to create
(C) Essential
legal relation
(D) Not essential
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) None of the above 36. Praveen is a partner in a LLP. Contribution

o m from Praveen may consist of :
.c (A) Intangible property
33. Which of the following is not competent to

e m
s
contract ?

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a
(A) Jay – A person of unsound mind (B) Tangible property
(B) Dev – A minor (C) Immovable property
(C) Sam – A person disqualified from (D) All of the above
contracting by some law
37. State which one from this is false in the hands
(D) All of the above
of Dixit, Saxena, Ghosh and Co. LLP ?
34. Cancellation of contract by agreement

o m
(A) It cannot raise funds from public

m
between the parties at any time before it is
c
(B) Any act of partner. Saxena without the
c. o discharged by performance and as a result s emother partners may not
s em none requires to perform is called : g la
knowledge of

gla binda the LLP
a (A) Rescission
(C) No separation of Management from
(B) Remission
(C) Waiver owners

(D) None of the above (D) It is easy to dissolve or wind up

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714 : 8 :
38. Which of the following is not an essential 42. Under section 2(b) of Indian Partnership Act
requisite for creating a partnership as per
1932 ‘business’ includes :
section 4 of the Partnership Act 1932 ?
(A) An agreement to carry on a business (A) Every trade and occupation
(B) Sharing of profits (B) Every occupation and profession
(C) Sharing of losses
(C) Every trade, occupation and profession
(D) Business to be carried by all or any
of them acting for all (D) Every trade and profession

39. Every LLP shall ensure that decisions taken 43. Under section 10 of the Indian Partnership
by it are recorded in minutes within how many
Act, 1932 every partner has a duty to
days of taking such decisions ?
indemnify the firm for any loss caused to
(A) Fifteen
(B) Twenty-one firm by his conduct of business of the firm
(C) Thirty arising out of :
(D) Forty-five
(A) Negligence
40. Any matter or issue relating to the LLP shall
be decided by a resolution passed by : (B) Wrongful act
(A) Two-third of partners (C) Fraud
(B) Majority of partners
(D) All of the above
(C) Three-fourth of partners
(D) Three-fifth of partners 44. The relation of partnership according to

41. A partner who does not invest or participate prescribed section of Indian Partnership Act,
in the management of the firm but only give
1932 arises from :
their name to the business or firm is known
as : (A) Status

(A) Sleeping Partner (B) Contract
(B) Nominal Partner
(C) Friendship
(C) Ostensible Partner
(D) None of the above
(D) Sub-Partner
1/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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45. Bobby is a partner in East and West Tyres. 48. Which can be called as a Promissory

He has contributed more than share of the Note ?
m
om
capital for business purpose. In the absence
. co
m
(A) I promise to pay Susanta ` 500 and
.c s e
em a
of any agreed rate, Bobby is entitled to

s l
to deliver to him by black horse on

l a ag
g
interest at the rate of :

(A) a 5% p.a.
1st June next

(B) I promise to pay Susanta ` 500 five
(B) 7% p.a.
days after my marriage with Koyel
(C) 8% p.a.
(C) I acknowledge myself to be indebted
(D) 6% p.a.

m demand for value received
to Susanta in ` 500 to be paid on
46. A stipulation which is essential to the main
. c o
purpose of the contract of sale is known m
s e
l a (D) I promise to pay Susanta ` 500 on

ag
as :
Damodar’s death, provided he leaves
(A) Condition
me enough to pay that sum
(B) Guarantee
49. If the endorser signs his name and adds a
(C) Warranty
direction to pay the amount mentioned in the
(D) Indemnity

m
m c. o
47. Which legal maxim governs the transfer of instrument to or to the order of a specified

c. o title by non-owners ? s e m
em (A) Ubi jus ibi remedium
person the endorsement is said to be :

s la
gla ag
(A) Restrictive

a (B) Nemo dat quod non habet (B) Full

(C) Caveat Emptor (C) Partial

(D) Ab initio (D) Conditional

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714 : 10 :

50. In a contract of sale of goods, the seller 53. A bill is said to be dishonored by non-
is under no duty to reveal unflattering truths
acceptance when the :
about the goods sold. The doctrine is called
(A) Drawee does not accept it within 48
as :

(A) Doctrine of constructive notice hours from time of presentment

(B) Doctrine of unjust enrichment (B) Drawee does not accept it within 72
(C) Doctrine of Caveat Emptor
hours from time of presentment
(D) Doctrine of ultra vires
(C) Drawer does not accept it within 90
51. When a surety pays off the debt of the
hours from time of presentment
principal debtor, the surety steps into the

shoes of the creditor. This right is known (D) Acceptance is an unqualified one

as :
54. When can a seller stop the goods in
(A) Right of Lien
transit ?
(B) Right of Subrogation
(A) When the buyer of goods informs that
(C) Right of Contribution

(D) Right of Set-off he will pay after sometime

52. Under the Negotiable Instrument Act, what (B) The seller has no right to stop the goods
is the validity period for presenting a cheque
in transit
for payment ?
(C) When the buyer of goods becomes
(A) 1 month

(B) 3 months insolvent and goods are in transit

(C) 6 months (D) When the buyer informs that he is now

(D) 12 months not in need of the goods

1/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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55. Which of the following is an inland 58. A bill or note payable ‘‘after sight’’
instrument ?
means :
m
co
(A) A bill drawn in India, payable in Korea

o min India (A) Payable on maturity
m .
c
. in India, payable in India
upon a company
s e
e m l a
s
(B) Payable on demand
g
(B) A bill drawn

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(C) a A bill drawn in India, payable in Korea
but drawn upon a company in Korea (C) Payable at a fixed rate

(D) Payable after acceptance
upon a company in Korea
59. When a holder of a negotiable instrument
(D) Both (A) and (B) above
56. Vicky is a minor and has been admitted to signs it for the purpose of negotiation, it is

the benefits of partnership under partnership
m
called :
law. On attaining majority, he has to exercise
c. o (A) Acceptance
option to stay or leave the firm within how m
s e
l a (B) Presentment

ag
many days/months of attaining majority ?
(A) Ninety days (C) Crossing

(B) One month (D) Endorsement
(C) Six months
60. According to Section 13(1) of the Negotiable
(D) Four months
Instrument Act, 1881 which of the following
57. Which implied condition or warranty from
m
m c. o
below is false in a contract of sale of is specifically recognized as a negotiable

c. o goods ? s e m
em (A) Goods must be of merchantable quality
instrument ?

s la
gla ag
(A) Promissory Notes

a (B) Condition as to wholesomeness
(B) Share Certificates
(C) As to the quality or fitness for any
particular purpose of goods supplied (C) Money Orders

(D) None of the above (D) Post Dated Cheques

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714 : 12 :
Part—B
61. Which ancient Indian text is a comprehensive 64. Which of the following is false ?

treatise on state administration, governance, (A) Management can be physically seen

and economic policy ? (B) Presence of management can be felt

(A) Arthashastra (C) Management cannot be touched
(D) None of the above
(B) Rigveda
65. Which one from the following will denote
(C) Samveda
an autocratic management ?
(D) Ramayana
(A) Quick decision-making in crisis
62. Scientific management which aimed to
situations
improve economic efficiency, especially
(B) Clear chain of command and high
labour productivity was introduced by :
accountability
(A) Henry Fayol (C) High risk of poor decisions if manager
(B) F.W. Taylor lacks all the necessary information
(C) Max Weber (D) Leads to better and innovative decisions

(D) Elton Mayo by pooling expertise

63. Which of the following is a key characteristic 66. Democratic management is highly effective
in which type of environment ?
of persuasive management ?
(A) Environments that require strict, rigid
(A) Low involvement of the manager in
rules
relational aspects
(B) Environments where innovation and
(B) Significant involvement of the manager
creativity are required
on the organizational level
(C) Manufacturing units requiring only
(C) Short focus on short-term profits
manual labour
(D) Centralized decision-making with no (D) Crisis situations requiring immediate,
feedback solitary action

1/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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67. Transformational leadership works best in
70. Which of the following is the first step in
environments where :
m
co
the process of organizing ?

om .
(A) Creativity and innovation are vital

.c e m
e m
(B) Routine tasks are the main focus (A) Assignment of duties
l a s
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g
(C) High risk of failure is unacceptable

(D) a The organization is stagnant
(B) Identification and division of work

(C) Departmentalization
68. Servant leadership is often described as a

‘‘paradox’’ because : (D) Establishing reporting relationships

(A) It achieves objectives by focusing on
71. Which one from below is correct relating

o m
c
people, not just results

(B) It requires being weak to be strong m
. to performance appraisal ?
s e
g l a
a
(C) It is both authoritative and democratic (A) It evaluates an employee’s skills
(D) It relies on monetary incentives
(B) It evaluates an employee’s skills and
69. What is the role of listening in servant

leadership ? achievements

(A) It is passive and inefficient

m
(C) It evaluates an employee’s skills

m
(B) It helps the leader make decision faster
c o
achievements and. growth
c. o s em
em (C) It builds trust and shows respect for la an employee’s skills,
without team input

las a g
g
(D) It evaluates

a team members
achievements and growth or lack
(D) It is only necessary during disciplinary
thereof
actions

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714 : 14 :

72. Which of the following is a primary 75. Assigning responsibility, granting authority and

creating accountability refers to which
characteristics of Laissez-faire leadership ?
concept ?
(A) Close supervision of all tasks
(A) Centralization
(B) Centralized decision-making
(B) Decentralization

(C) Strict compliance with rules (C) Delegation

(D) High autonomy and minimal supervision (D) Specialization

76. The process where the result of a group’s
73. Which function is the base for all other
effort exceeds an individual effort, promoting
management functions ?
team work, exchange of ideas and viewpoints
(A) Planning
allowing the organization to reach its maximum

(B) Controlling potential is called :

(C) Staffing (A) Synergy effect

(B) Growth in size
(D) Organizing
(C) Specialisation
74. Which of the following defines the relationship
(D) Empire building
between Superior and subordinate in an
77. The final step in the selection process is :
organization ?
(A) Medical examination
(A) Planning
(B) Preliminary interview
(B) Reporting relationships
(C) Reference check
(C) Staffing
(D) None of the above
(D) Controlling

1/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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78. The process of searching for prospective 81. Who is popularly known as the father of

m
employees and stimulating them to apply for

co
Scientific Management ?

.c
jobs is known as :
om e m .
(A) Selectionm
e
(A) Frederick Taylor
l a s
l a s a g
(B) g
a Training (B) Henry Maine

(C) Placement (C) Austin

(D) Recruitment
(D) Salmond
79. Which feature of planning implies that it exists

m
82. Fayol’s principle of ‘‘unity of command’’ is

c. o based on the idea that :
at all levels of management ?

(A) Futuristic
s em
g l a
a
(B) Pervasive (A) An employee shall receive orders from

(C) Continuous
one senior only
(D) Decision-making
(B) To ensure obedience and respect for
80. Management reports can be presented in

m
superiors
o
various formats. Which one from below is

m c
. out and executing
c. o correct ? e m
(C) It refers to thinking
s
s em (A) Written plan gl
a
gla a
a (B) Oral
(D) It refers to superiors-subordinate
(C) Visual
relations throughout the organization
(D) All of the above

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714 : 16 :

83. The theory which suggests leaders should 85. How much should be the minimum turnover

adapt their style based on the readiness or of a unlisted public company to trigger

maturity of their followers is known as : requirement of Secretarial Audit Report ?

(A) Path-Goal Theory (A) ` 100 crore

(B) Situational Leadership Theory (B) ` 200 crore

(C) Decision Making Theory (C) ` 300 crore

(D) Fiedler’s Contingency Theory (D) ` 250 crore

84. Budgeting provides a benchmark against 86. Advising companies on compliance of legal

which an organization can measure its actual and procedural aspects such as environment

financial performance, allowing for and pollution control laws is covered in which

identification of areas of success and those of the following areas where a Company

in need of improvement. This refers to which Secretary renders service ?

objective of budgeting ? (A) Corporate secretarial services

(A) Allocating resources (B) Secretarial audit and certification

(B) Controlling costs services

(C) Financial planning (C) Corporate laws advisory services

(D) Performance evaluation (D) Representation services

1/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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87. ‘‘MOST Analysis’’ in management stands 89. ‘‘Specialization increases efficiency.’’ Which

m
co
for :

om .
principle does this refer to ?
.c e m
e m
(A) Mission, Objectives, Strategy, Tactics
l a s
l a s (A) Discipline
ag
(B) g
a Management, Objectives, Structure,

(B) Division of work
Tactics

(C) Mission, Organization, Systems, Targets (C) Equity

m
(D) Memorandum, Offer, Strategy,

c. o
(D) Initiative

Technology
s em 90. Which principle emphasizes that personal
l a
ag main
88. According to Henri Fayol, what is the

interests should be secondary to
objective of the ‘Division of Work’

principle ? organizational interests ?

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(A) To increase employee workload (A) Stability of Tenure
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c. o (B) To reduce the number of employees s e m
s em la
(B) Subordinate of individual interest

gla ag
a
(C) To create a hierarchy
(C) Equity
(D) To produce more and better work with

(D) Esprit de corps
the same effort

1/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.

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A
. c
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m a s
se
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714 : 18 :

91. Arranging board/general meetings and
94. Mention which of the following is a demerit
preparing minutes thereof is covered under
which of the following areas where a of transformational style of management ?
Company Secretary render services ?
(A) Employees can get frustrated if their
(A) Corporate Secretarial Services
(B) Secretarial/Compliance Audit and
inputs is continuously ignored
Certification Services
(C) Corporate Law Advisory Services (B) Requires a high level of skill and
(D) Representation Services
charisma from the manager
92. A Company Secretary’s compliance with
rules and regulations, especially for Audit in (C) A strong individual can sometimes
relation to Reconciliation of share capital for
a listed company will be covered under : dominate the group decision.

(A) Financial Market Services
(D) Employees can become over reliant of
(B) Securities Compliance and Certification
Services the manager
(C) Taxation Services
(D) Management Services 95. MBO is often considered a/an ...............

93. Annual Secretarial compliance report shall
approach to management.
be submitted by a listed company to stock
exchange within .................. days from end (A) Traditional
of each financial year.
(A) 21 (B) Modern

(B) 30
(C) Outdated
(C) 45
(D) 60 (D) Bureaucratic

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A

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96. You are the Company Secretary in 98. Advising companies on compliance of legal

and procedural aspects such as environment

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employment of your company. You hold a

om . co
and pollution control laws is covered in which

c of the following areas where a Companym
vital position in your company as a KMP.

You contributem
. s e
s e considerably in integration and g l a
lautilization of resources. Which a
Secretary renders services ?

a g
optimum
(A) Corporate secretarial services
function of management is being performed (B) Secretarial audit and certification

by you in this statement ? services

(A) Planning (C) Corporate laws advisory services

om Company Secretaries are now recognized as
(D) Representation services
(B) Organizing
c. 99.
(C) Coordination
s em
g l a ................. under the Companies Act, 2013.

a
(D) All of the above
(A) Accountant
97. Conducting board meetings through video (B) Key Managerial Personnel

conferencing and tele-conferencing is covered (C) Manager

under which of the following services (D) Financial Officer

m
100. Company Secretaries play an important role

c. o
rendered by a Company Secretary ?

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c. o (A) Management services m
as ................... professionals in all types of

s e
em (B) Corporate communication and public la
companies.

las ag
g
(A) Secretarial
a relations services
(B) Legal
(C) Information technology services (C) Governance

(D) Finance and accounting services (D) Ethics

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714 : 20 :
Space For Rough Work

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A

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