KCET 2024 Question Paper Chemistry

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

2C0419K24 (DAY-2, SECOND SESSION)
Jaba)

a. 2.30 dod
3.50 dJon
A-2 4159826

80 DDT 70 rt 60 60

1

1

2. shedse ses . 2.40 rbga. egatbsono,

1. d3dO wdAcO3 SIGNS AND SYMBOLS re, aeð DeSob dedd iode, arOd dd zot8dOs spFJ, oricðzeiezo.

B 8ar'w WRONG METHODS
CORRECT METHOD
A
A
5

C A-2 (1)

() WhichTeflon
of the following set of polymers are used as fibre?
(i) (ii) Starch (iii) Terylene (iv) Orlon
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv) (DY (i) and (iv).

2. The biodegradable polymer obtained by polymerisation of Glycine and
is:
Aminocaproic acid
(A) Nylon 6 (B) PHBV
4GY Nylon 2 Nylon 6 (D) Nylon 6, 10
-CO
3. The compound NH is :
CO

(A) Sucralose
(B) Aspartame
(C Saccharin (D) Alitame

Which one of the following is a cationic detergent ?
(A) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
(B) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(C) Dodecylbenzene sulphonic acid
(D) Dodecylbenzene
5. The type of linkage present between nucleotides is:
(A) Phosphoester linkage (B) Ph0sphodiester linkage
(C) Amide linkage (D) Glycosidic linkage
6. .-D-(+)-glucose and B- D-(+)-glucose are:
A) Enantiomers (B) Conformers
(C) Epimers (D)) Anomers

Space for Rough Work /wot3 dOTºt

C A-2 (2)

7. Propanone and Propanal are :
(A) Position isomers (BY Functional isomers

(C) Chain isomers (D) Geometrical isomers

8. Sodium ethanoate on heating with soda lime gives X. Electrolysis of aqueous solution of
sodium ethanoate gives Y. X and respectively are :
4) Methane and Ethane (B) Methane and Methane
(C) Ethane and Methane (D) Ethane and Ethane
9. But-1-yne on reaction with dil. H,S04 in presence of Hg2+ ions at 333 Kgives :
CHO
(B)

(C) CHO
(D)

10. Biologically active adrenaline and ephedrine used to increase blood pressure contain :
(A) Primary amino group (B) )Secondary amino group
(C) Tertiary amino group DS Quaternary ammonium salt
11. In the reaction

Aniline NaNO, Phenol
dil. HCI NaOH
Q' is:

(A) CGH,N,C1 (B) ortho-hydroxyazobenzene
( para-hydroxyazobenzene (D) meta-hydroxyazobenzene
12. The female sex hormone which is responsible for the development of secondary female
characteristics and participates in the control of menstrual cycle is :
(A) Testosterone (B) Estradiol
(C) Insulin
D) Thyroxine

Space for Rough VWork / dt tOI g

C A-2 (4)

13. In the following scheme of reaction,
X
’CzH;F
CH,C1
Y
’ CH, =CH,

X, Y and Z respectively are:
CA AgF; alcoholic KOH and benzene
(B) HF, aqueous KOH and Na in dry ether
(C) Hg,F,, alcoholic KOH and Na in dry ether
(D) CoF, aqueous KOH and benzene

14. 8:8 g of monohydric alcohol added to ethyl magnesium iodide in ether liberates 2240 cm
of
ethane at STP. This monohydric alcohol when oxidised using
pyridinium-chlorochromate,
forms a carbonyl compound that answers silver mirror test (Tollens' test). The
monohydric
alcohol is :

(A) butan-2-ol B) 2, 2-dimethyl propan-1-ol
(C) pentan-2-ol (DY 2, 2-dimethyl ethan-1-ol
15. When a tertiary alcohol 'A' (C,H60) reacts with 20% H,PO, at 358 K, it gives a
compound
B (C,H) as a major product. The IUPAC name of the compound Bis :

(A But-1-ene (B) But-2-ene
(C) Cyclobutane D)) 2-Methylpropene
16. PCC is :

(A) K,Cr,0, + Pyridine
(B) CrO, + CHCl,
(C) CrO, + H,S04
(D) Acomplex of chromiumtrËoxide with pyridine + HCI

< Space for Rough Work l wo
aORE ZF

C A-2 (6)

17. On treating 100 mL of 0·1 Maqueous solution of
the complex CrCl,. 6H,0 with excess of
2 AgNO, 2-86 g of AgCl was obtained. The complex is :
(A) ICr (H,0), Cl,l . 3H,0 (B) (Cr (H,0), CL,) CI. 2H,0
C) (Cr (H,0), Cl Cl,. H,0 (D) (Cr (H,0), Cl¡l
18. The complex compounds [Co(NHg); SO,] Br and
[Co(NH); Br] SO, are:
(A) Coordination isomers (B) Geometrical isomers
(C) Optical isomers Ionisation isomers
19. Which of the following statements are true about [CoFlion ?
I. The complex has octahedral geometry.
II. Coordination number of Co is 3 and oxidation state is + 6.
III. The complex is sp°d hybridised.
IV. It is a high spin complex.
(A) I, II and IV B I, IIIand IV
(C) II and IV (D) II, IIIand IV
20. A haloalkane undergoes S2 or Syl reaction depending on :
(AX Solvent used in the reaction
(B) Low temperature
(C) The type of halogen atomn
(D) Stability of the haloalkane

21. 2-Methyl propane can be prepared by Wurtz reaction. The haloalkanes taken along with
metallic sodium and dry ether are:
KA) chloromethane and 2-chloropropane
(B) chloroethane and chloromethane
(C) chloroethane and 1-chloropropane
(D) chloromethane and 1-chloropropane

Space for Rough Work / d BONE

C A-2 (8)

22. In the analysis of III group basic radicals of salts, the purpose of adding NH,Cl) to
NH,OH is:
(A) to increase the concentration of OH ions.
(B) to precipitate the radicals of group IV and V.
to suppress the dissociation of NH,OH.
{D) to introduce CI ions.

23. Solubility product of CaC,0, at a given temperature in pure water is 4 x 10- (mol
L.
Solubility of CaC,0, at the same temperature is:
(A)) 6-3x 10-5 mol L-1 (B) 2 x 10- mnol L-l
(C) 2x 10-4 mol L-1 (D) 6-3 × 10 mol L-1
0.5
24) In the reaction between moist SO, and acidified
permanganate solution :
((A)) SO, is oxidised to SO4
MnO; is reduced to Mn2+
(B) SO, is reduced to S
MnO7 is oxidised to MnO,
(C) SO, is oxidised to so
MnO, is reduced to MnO,
(D) SO, is reduced to HoS
O.S MnO, is oxidised to MnO
25, Which one of the following properties is generally not applicable to ionic hydrides ?
(A) Non-volatile Non-conducting in solid state
(B)
(C) Crystalline D)) Volatile
26. Which one of the following nitrate will decompose to give NO, on
heating?
(A) NaNO, B) KNO, (C) RbNO, (D)) LiNO,
27. Which of the following halides cannot be
hydrolysed ?
(B) SiCl, (C) GeCl4 (D) SnCI,

SRace for Rough Work / uos BO

C A-2 (10 ).

28. 0-48 g of an organic compound on complete
combustion produced 0:22 g
percentage of C in the given organic compound is :
of (o, The
(A) 25 (B) 50
9 12-5 (D) 87-5
28. In the given sequence of reactions, identify
P, Q, R and 'S respectively.
CH, = CH CH,- CH, CH, = CH- Br CH =CH CRH,
Br Br
AA) Br, Alc. KOH, NaOH, Al,Og
(B) HBr, Alc. KOH, CaC, KMn04
(C) HBr, Alc. KOH, NaNH, Red hot iron tube
BY, Alc. KOH, NaNH,, Red hot iron tube
30.) The first chlorinated organic insecticide
prepared is :
(A) Gammnexane (B) Chloroform
(C) COCL, DDT
31.) Which of the following crystals has the unit cell such that a
= b# c and a =B = 90°,
Y= 120° ?

(A) Zinc blende (B) Graphite
(C) Cinnabar o) Potassium dichromate
32! MnO exhibits :
(A) Ferrimagnetism (B) Antiferromagnetism
(C) Ferromagnetism (DY Paramagnetism
33) The number of atoms in 4-5 g of a face-centred cubic crystal with edge length 300 pm is :
(Given density = 10g cmaand N, = 6-022 x 102)
(A) 6-6 x 1020 6-6 x 1023
(B)
(C) 6-6 x 1o19 6-6 x 1022
(D)

Space for Rough Work / d BONE

C

34. Vapour pressure of a solution containing 18 g of glucose and 178-2 g of water at 100°Cis:
(Vapour pressure of pure water at 100°C= 760torr)
(A) 76-0 torr (B) 752-4 torr (C) 76 torr (D) 3207-6 torr

35. A mixture of phenol and aniline shows negative deviation from Raoult's law. This is due to
the formation of:
(A) Polar covalent bond
(B) Non-polar covalent bond
e) Intermolecular Hydrogen bond (D) Intramolecular Hydrogen bond
36. Which one of the following pairs will show positive deviation from Raoult's Law?
(A) Water HCI
B)/ Benzene - Methanol
(C) Water - HNOa (D) Acetone- Chloroform

37. How many Coulombs are required to oxidise 0-1 mole of H,0 to oxygen
?
(A) 1:93 x 105 C (B) 1·93 x 104 C.
(C) 3-86 x 10 C (D) 9-65 x 108 C
38. A current of 3 A is passed through a molten calcium salt for 1 hr 47 min 13 sec.
The mass of
calcium deposited is : (Molar mass of Ca = 40 g mol-)
(A) 6-0 g (B) 2-0g (C) 8-0g D)) 4-0g
39. The value of 'A' in the equation . = m - AVC is same for the pair :
(A) NaCl and CaCl, (Br CaCl, and MgSO,
(C) NaCl and KBr
(D) MgCl, and NaCl
40. For the reaction, A B, E, = 50 kJ mol and AH = 20 kJ mol-, When a catalyst is
added, E, decreases by 10 kJ mol-. What is the E, for the backward reaction in the
presence of catalyst ?
(A) 60 kJ mol-l 40 kJ mol-1
(C) 70 kJ mol-1 (D) 20 kJ mol-1

Space for Rough Work / JS BO

C A-2 14 )

41. For the reaction PCl, ’ PCl, + Clo, rate and rate constant are 1-02 x 10- mol L's
and
3:4 x 100 s respectively at a given instant. The molar concentration of
PCl, at that
instant is :

(A) 8-0 molL-1
B 3-0 mol L-1
(C) 02 molL-1
(D) 2-0 mol L-1
42. Which one of the following does not
represent Arrhenius equation ?
(A) logk= log A Ea
(B) k= Ae-EaRT
2-303 RT

(C) lnk= Ea + ln A SD) k= AeEaRT
RT
0.S43.) Identify
the incorrect statement :
(A) Values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of
small order compared to
values of true solution.
(B) Tyndall effect is observed only when diameter of the
dispersed particles is not måch
smaller than wavelength of incident light.
(C) Colour of colloidal solution depends on the
wavelength of light scattered by the
dispersed particles.
(D) Brownian movement is due to balanced bombardment of
molecules of dispersion
mediumn on colloidal particles.
44. For the coagulation of positively charged hydrated
ferric-oxide sol, the flocculating power of
the ions is in the order :

(A) PO> so >CI > Fe(CN)I
(B) CI >So> P0> (Fe(CN)
4

(C) sO = C = PO-
4 = (Fe(CN)J
(D) [Fe(CN)J> PO > SO >

Space for Rough Work /d s Oz z

c A-z (6

45) Gold sol is not a:

(A) Macromnolecular colloid (B Lyophobic colloid
(C) Multimolecular colloid (D) Negatively charged colloid
D.s
46.) The incorrect statement about Hall-Héroult process is :
(A) Carbon anode is Oxidised to CO and CO,.
(B) NaAlF; helps to decrease the melting point of the electrolyte.
(C) CalF, helps to increase the conductivity of the electrolyte.
DY Oxidation state of Oxygen changes in the overall cell reaction.
Select the correct statement :

(A) Roasting involves heating the ore in the absence of air.
(B) Calcination involves heating the ore above its melting point.
(C) Smelting involves heating the ore with suitable reducing agent and
flux below its
melting point.
(DY Calcination of calcium carbonate is endothermic.

48.) NO, gas is:

(A) Colourless, neutral (B) Colourless, acidic
(C) Brown, acidic (D Brown, neutral

Q 492 Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause depletion of the
ozone layer.
(B) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of Sun.
(C) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its chemical
reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes.
D Ozone absorbs infrared radiation.

Space for Rough Work /d35 BOIE

C A-2 (18 )

50. The correct decreasing order of boiling point of hydrogen halides is :
tA) HF > HCI > HBr > HI (B) HI> HBr > HCI> HF
(C) HF > HI > HBr> HCI (D) HI> HF> HBr >HCI
51.
The synthetically produced radioactive noble gas by the collision of 249
98 Cf with 20 Ca is :

(A) Radon (B) Radiumn (C) Oganesson (D) Xenon

52. The transition element ( 5%) present with lanthanoid metal in Mischmetal is :
(A) Mg (B) Fe D) Co
53. Match the following:
I. Zn2+, i. d configuration
II. Cu2+ ii. colourless
III. Ni2+ ii. l=173 BM

Codes:
I II III

(A) i ii iii

B ii iii

(C) ii iii

(D) i iii ii

54. Which of the following statements related to lanthanoids is incorrect ?

(A) Lanthanoids are silvery white soft metals.
(B) Samarium shows + 2 oxidation state.

(C) Ce+ solutions are widely used as oxidising agents in titrimetric
analysis.
(DY Colour of Lanthanoid ion in solution is due tod-d transition.

Space for Rough Work / dt3s Bez z

A-2 (20 )

55. A metalloid is:
(A) Bi (B) Sb KC) P (D) Se
56. A pair of isoelectronic species having bond order of one is:
(A) No, CO (B) No, NO+ (D) C0, NO+
U:67 Ldentify the wrong relation for real gases :
Videal an2
(A) Z=
Pideal = Preal t
Vreal
(C) Vreal =ideal - nb (D) P+ |(v-b) = RT

58. From the diagram

A
AH, = +10 J
2B

AH, =+25J

A-H for the reaction C ’ A is :
(A) +35 J (B) - 15 J -35 J (D) + 15 J
59. For which one of the following mixtures is composition uniform throughout ?
(A) Sand and water
(B) Grains and pulses with stone
(C) Mixture of oil and water
(D)) Dilute aqueous solution of sugar
60. The energy associated with first orbit of Het is:
(A) 0J B) -8-72 x 10-18 J
(C) 4-58 × 10l8 J (D) -0-545 x 10-18 J

Space for Rough Work / d dOIE

C
A 22 ).

2C0419K24 (DAY-2, SECOND SESSION)
SUBJECT CODE TIME QUESTION BOOKLET

VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER

C 2.30 pm to 3.50 pm
A-2
Total Maximum Time for Maximum Total No. of
Duration Answering Marks Questions Mention your CET Number

80 Minutes 70 Minutes 60 60 2
DOs:

1. This question booklet is issued to you by the room invigilator after 2.30 pm.
2. Check whether the CET Number has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
3. The version code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles should also be
shaded completely.
4. The Version Code and Serial Number of this question booklet should also be entered on the Nominal Roll without any mistakes.
5. Compulsorily sign the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided.
DONTs:
1. THE TIMING AND MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHOULD NOT BE DAMAGED/MUTILATED/SPOLED.
2. The 3rd Bell rings at 2.40 pm, till then;
Do not remove the seal present on the right hand side of this question booklet.
Do not look inside this question booklet or start answering on the OMR answer sheet.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS.TO CANDIDATES
1. In case of usage of SIGNS AND SYMBOLS in the questions, the regular textbook connotation should be
considered unless stated
otherwise.
2. This question booklet contains 60 questions, each question will have one statement and
four different options/responses & out of
which you have to choose one correct answer.
3. After the 3rd Bell rings at 2.40 pm, remove the paper seal of this question
booklet and check that this booklet does not have any
unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet.
on the OMR answer sheet.
Read each item and start answering
4. Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a blue or black ink
ballpoint pen against the question number on the OMR
answer sheet.

Ba, Bard WRONG METHODS
CORRECT METHOD

A
5. Please note that even a minute unintended ink
dot on the OMR answer sheet will also be recognized
Therefore, avoid multiple markings of any kind on the OMR answer and recorded by the scanner.
sheet.
6. Use the space provided on each page of the
question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR
answer sheet for the same.

7 Last Bell will ring at 3.50 pm, stop
writing on the OMR answer sheet.
8 Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the
room invigilator as it is.
9 After separating the top sheet (Ofiice copy),
the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica
(Candidate's copy) to you.
NOTE : In case of any discrepancy in the English and
Kannada Versions, the English version will be taken as
final.
C A-2 (24 )
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