CUSAT CAT 2021 Question Paper Economics

ECONOMICS

1. A consumer’s demand curve can be obtained from
(A) Income-consumption curve
(B) Engel’s curve
(C) Price-consumption curve
(D) None of the above

2. An indifference curve is always
(A) Concave to the origin
(B) Convex to the origin
(C) A vertical straight line
(D) A horizontal straight line

3. The law of variable proportion comes under

(A) Short-run production function
(B) Long-run production function
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

4. A firm in monopolistic competition advertises in order to

(A) make its product more similar to its competitors’
(B) shift the demand curve for its product to the left
(C) make the demand for its product less price elastic
(D) reduce the industry’s price

5. A good is called a ‘Giffen good’ when the income effect is

(A) positive and is greater than the substitution effect
(B) equal to substitution effect
(C) less than the substitution effect
(D) negative and is greater than the substitution effect

6. The relationship between quantity supplied and its price is

(A) Directly related
(B) Inversely related
(C) No relation
(D) None of the above

7. The coefficient of elasticity of demand ranges from

(A) Zero to one
(B) Zero to infinity
(C) One to infinity
(D) None of the above

8. The law of equi-marginal utility is also known as

(A) Gossen’s first law
(B) Gossen’s second law
(C) Gossen’s third law
(D) None of the above

9. Price effect is equal to

(A) Substitution effect
(B) Income effect
(C) A+B
(D) A–C

10. Production function provides measurements of

(A) The marginal productivity of the factors of production
(B) The marginal rate of substitution and the elasticity of substitution
(C) The return to scale
(D) All of the above

11. With which of the theories of wages is the name of
John Stuart Mill associated?

(A) Marginal productivity theory of wages
(B) Wages-fund theory
(C) Subsistence theory of wages
(D) Iron law of wages

12. Who argued that pure profit can arise only in a dynamic economy?

(A) F.H. Knight
(B) J.B. Clark
(C) Bohm Bawerk
(D) Alfred Marshall

13. Which of the following best defines cost-push inflation?

(A) Price rising due to excessive growth in aggregate spending
(B) Price rising due to an increase in the price of a firm's inputs
(C) Prices rising due to an over rapid growth in the money supply
(D) Prices falling over a period of time

14. Keynesian theory of employment is based on the concept of

(A) Aggregate Demand
(B) Aggregate Supply
(C) Aggregate Demand and Supply
(D) None of the above

15. The investment which is undertaken independently of the level of
income is known as

(A) Autonomous Investment
(B) Induced Investment
(C) Public Investment
(D) Private Investment

16. The slope of the consumption function is called the

(A) autonomous consumption rate
(B) marginal consumption rate
(C) average propensity to consume
(D) marginal propensity to consume

17. Relative income theory of consumption has been given by

(A) J. M. Keynes
(B) J. S. Duesenberry
(C) Ando A. Modigliani
(D) Friedman

18. If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8 (80 %) then the multiplier will be

(A) 2.5
(B) 5.0
(C) 0.2
(D) 0.5

19. When interest payment is deducted from the fiscal deficit, it is called

(A) Budget deficit
(B) Revenue deficit
(C) Fiscal deficit
(D) Primary deficit

20. The Phillips curve shows that

(A) the business cycle has been eliminated
(B) an increase in inflation temporarily increases unemployment
(C) inflation and unemployment are unrelated in the short run
(D) a decrease in inflation temporarily increases unemployment

21. In Cobb- Douglas production function, the sum of its exponents measures

(A) Returns to Scale
(B) Factor intensity
(C) Marginal productivity of factors
(D) Elasticity of substitution

22. Cost functions are derived from

(A) Production function
(B) Demand function
(C) Supply function
(D) None of the above

23. When MC is falling, MC is

(A) Below AC
(B) Above AC
(C) Equal to AC
(D) All may be possible

24. Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFC) is also Known as

(A) Net Factor Income from Abroad
(B) National Income
(C) National Cost
(D) Net Indirect Tax

25. Real and nominal income is calculated respectively at

(A) Current price and Constant Price
(B) Constant price and Current price
(C) Current price and Current price
(D) Constant price and Constant price

26. Sum of all kinds of income received by the individuals
from all sources is called

(A) Personal Income
(B) Private Income
(C) Personal Disposable Income
(D) None

27. The consumption function shows the relationship
between consumption and

(A) Interest rate
(B) Saving
(C) Price level changes
(D) Disposable income

28. The relationship between consumer expenditures
and disposable income is the

(A) Savings function
(B) The tax rate function
(C) Disposable income function
(D) Consumption function

29. The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is the slope of the

(A) GDP curve
(B) Disposable income curve
(C) Consumption function
(D) Autonomous consumption curve

30. Net investment is equal to

(A) Gross investment plus replacement or depreciation
(B) Gross investment less replacement or depreciation
(C) Gross investment multiply by replacement or depreciation
(D) None of the above

31. The system of budget was introduced in India during the viceroyalty of

(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Elgin

32. The stationary state as envisaged by Adam Smith is marked by

(A) Low rate of profit
(B) Subsistence level wages
(C) High rent
(D) All of the above

33. Which of the following is not a part of the classical theory
of economic development?

(A) Labour supply would increase with rise in wages
(B) Stationary state
(C) Government interference
(D) Capital accumulation is the basic cause of growth

34. Which of the following models makes the assumption of constant
saving-income ratio?

(A) Kaldor model
(B) Leontief model
(C) Harrod-Domar model
(D) Joan Robinson model

35. The Heckscher-Ohlin approach to international trade provides
important insights, in

(A) Gains from trade
(B) Effect of trade on production and consumption
(C) Effect of trade on the incomes of production factors
(D) All of the above

36. Which of the following is known as long-run average cost curve?

(A) Learning curve
(B) Envelope curve
(C) Equal product curve
(D) Phillips curve

s
37. In the Harrod-Domar equation g  , v is defined as
v

(A) the value of the country’s capital stock
(B) the ratio of the country’s capital stock to its output
(C) the change in the country’s capital stock
(D) None of the above

38. Net exports equal

(A) Exports × Imports
(B) Exports + Imports
(C) Exports – Imports
(D) Exports of services only

39. Dumping refers to

(A) Buying goods at low prices abroad and selling
at higher prices locally
(B) Expensive goods selling at low prices
(C) Reducing tariffs
(D) Sale of goods abroad at low price, below their
cost and price in home market

40. Terms of trade of a country shows

(A) Ratio of goods exported and imported
(B) Ratio of import duties
(C) Ratio of prices of exports and imports
(D) Both (A) and (C)

41. The change in investment due to change in income is known as

(A) Consumption
(B) Multiplier
(C) Accelerator
(D) IS curve

42. With increase in investment, MEC

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Constant
(D) All of the above

43. An annual statement of the revenue and expenditure
by the government is known as

(A) Revenue budget
(B) Budget
(C) Capital budget
(D) Current budget

44. Which of the following is not a part of the W.T.O. Agreement on Agriculture (AOA)?

(A) Input subsidies
(B) Export subsidies
(C) Domestic support
(D) Market Access

45. According to M. Friedman, Quantity Theory of Money is the theory of

(A) Value of money
(B) Price determination
(C) Nominal income
(D) Demand for money

46. Market failure can occur because of

(A) Imperfect competition
(B) Externalities
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

47. Principle of maximum social advantage is concerned with

(A) Taxation only
(B) Public expenditure only
(C) Public debt only
(D) Both taxation and public expenditure

48. Which of the following goods is covered under GST in India?

(A) Electricity
(B) Liquified Petroleum Gas
(C) High Speed Diesel
(D) Petroleum Crude

49. Prebisch - Singer hypothesis relates to

(A) Balance of payments problem of developing countries
(B) Terms of trade of developing countries
(C) Prevalency of poverty among developing countries
(D) Inequality of income in developing countries

50. Which of the following is likely to be most inflationary in its impact?

(A) Repayment of public debt
(B) Borrowings from the public to finance a budget deficit
(C) Borrowings from banks to finance a budget deficit
(D) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

51. If the demand for a good is inelastic, an increase in its
price will cause the total expenditure of the consumers
of the good to

(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remains the same
(D) become zero

52. The offer curve introduced by Alfred Marshall helps us to understand
how the …………… is established in international trade.

(A) terms of trade
(B) equilibrium price ratio
(C) exchange rate
(D) satisfaction level

53. Which of the following is a union tax?

(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on agricultural income
(C) Capitation tax
(D) Land revenue

54. The difference between revenue expenditure and revenue receipt is

(A) Revenue deficit
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Budget deficit
(D) Primary deficit

55. Public finance has to do with all of the following activities of
government except?

(A) Government taxing activities
(B) Government’s direct competition with the private sector
(C) allocation of resources
(D) distribution of income

56. The relationship between the number of unfilled job
vacancies and the number of unemployed workers is
described by

(A) the Ramsey Principle
(B) the Laffer Curve
(C) the long-run Phillips Curve
(D) the Beveridge Curve

57. Which one of the following is NOT the objective of fiscal policy of
the government of India?

(A) Full employment
(B) Price stability
(C) Regulation of inter-state trade
(D) Economic growth

58. “Faster and more inclusive growth” was the objective of

(A) Tenth Five Year Plan
(B) Eleventh Five Year Plan
(C) Twelfth Five Year Plan
(D) Ninth Five Year Plan

59. Gross domestic capital formation is defined as

(A) the flow of expenditure devoted to increase or
maintain the capital stock
(B) expenditure incurred on physical assets only
(C) production exceeding demand
(D) net addition to stock after depreciation

60. The vicious circle argument points out the supply side connection between

(A) Productivity and Income
(B) Income and Population
(C) Investment and Technology
(D) Saving and Capital

61. Marginal Social Cost includes private cost and

(A) Sunk cost
(B) Depreciation
(C) External cost
(D) Average cost

62. Which of the following does not form part of the
foreign exchange reserves of India?

(A) Gold
(B) SDRs
(C) Foreign currency assets
(D) Foreign currency and securities held by the
banks and corporate bodies

63. Core inflation has been described as

(A) Headline inflation − food inflation
(B) Headline inflation − (food inflation + fuel inflation)
(C) Headline inflation − fuel inflation
(D) Food inflation + Fuel inflation

64. The case for progressive tax rates rests on

(A) Benefits received
(B) Cost of service
(C) Ability to pay
(D) None of the above

65. In Solow’s growth model, the output per capita is a function of

(A) Labour - Output ratio
(B) Capital - Output ratio
(C) Technical progress
(D) Capital - Labour ratio

66. Leibenstein in his critical minimum effort thesis
treats population as a factor that is

(A) Income – generating
(B) Investment – inducing
(C) Income – depressing
(D) Market – expanding

67. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’
ranking to the countries of the world?

(A) World Economic Forum
(B) UN Human Rights Council
(C) UN Women
(D) World Health Organization

68. Which of the following is a capital receipt in the Government budget?

(A) Interest receipts on loans given by the Government to other parties
(B) Dividend and profit of public enterprises
(C) Borrowings of the government from the public
(D) Property tax receipts

69. Keynesians are of the view that in order to promote capitalism

(A) Minimal government intervention in the market is required
(B) No government intervention is required in the market
(C) Government should play a role of assigning property rights only
(D) None of the above

70. Which among the following is not a characteristic of stagflation?

(A) High inflation
(B) High unemployment
(C) Low growth
(D) High employment

71. Which among the following are called “Breton Wood Twins”?

(A) IBRD and IMF
(B) IDA and IFC
(C) IDA and MIGA
(D) IMF and IDA

72. ‘Planning from below’ is known as

(A) Centralized planning
(B) Functional planning
(C) Decentralized planning
(D) Structural planning

73. Isoquants are right-angled only when

(A) Factors are perfect substitutes
(B) Factors are neutral
(C) Factors are perfect complements
(D) Factors are scarce

74. The Intellectual Property Rights regime is managed by

(A) I. M. F
(B) W. T. O
(C) RBI
(D) World Bank

75. The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
is a proposed free trade agreement between the members of

(A) SAARC
(B) ASEAN
(C) BRICS
(D) European Union

76. Let A and B be two sets such that A has 25 elements,
B has 20 elements and A∩B has 10 elements. Then
the number of elements in A∪B is

(A) 45
(B) 35
(C) 55
(D) 65

77. If 𝑥 3 − 2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 2 = 0, then the solution set is

(A) {1, 1, 2}
(B) {1, 1, 2}
(C) {1,1, 2}
(D) None of the above

1 0 2
78. The determinant of the matrix [2 1 4 ] is
5 0 10
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 20
(D) 10

79. The value of 12 + 22 + 32 + ⋯ + 302 is

(A) 9455
(B) 9465
(C) 9450
(D) 9454

80. Objective of the linear programming for an objective function is to

(A) Maximize only
(B) Minimize only
(C) Maximize or minimize
(D) Neutralise

81. In linear programming problem, objective function and constrains are

(A) linear
(B) quadratic
(C) cubic
(D) adjacent

1 1 1
82. If 𝑃(𝐴) = , 𝑃(𝐵) = and 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = , then 𝑃(𝐴|𝐵) is
4 3 6

(A) 1
(B) 0
1
(C)
12
1
(D)
2

83. The sum of the rational numbers –8/19 and –4/57 is

(A) –5/57
(B) 7/22
(C) –28/57
(D) 4/27

84. The pair of equations 3x – 5y =7 and 6x + 10y = 7 have

(A) a unique solution
(B) infinitely many solutions
(C) no solution
(D) two solutions

th
85. The n term of an arithmetic progression is given by an = 3 + 4n.
The common difference is

(A) 7
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1

86. If 62 = 34 + 4x, what is x?

(A) 10
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 3

3
87. Find the derivative of f(x) = 6x − 9x + 4
3
(A) 6x – 9
2
(B) 7x – 4
2
(C) 18x – 9
2
(D) 18x + 9

4 2
88. The absolute minimum value of x – x – 2x + 5

(A) is equal to 5
(B) is equal to 3
(C) is equal to 7
(D) does not exist

89. Transpose of a rectangular matrix is a

(A) rectangular matrix
(B) diagonal matrix
(C) square matrix
(D) scaler matrix

90. Two matrices A and B are multiplied to get AB if

(A) both are rectangular
(B) both have the same order
(C) number of columns of A is equal to columns of B
(D) number of rows of A is equal to number of columns of B

91. The number of non-zero rows in an echelon form is called?

(A) The rank of a matrix
(B) Cofactor of the matrix
(C) Reduced echlon form
(D) The conjugate of the matrix

92. If |A| = 0, then A is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) singular matrix
(D) non-singular matrix

93. What is the probability of 53 Thursdays in a non-leap year?

6
(A)
7
1
(B)
7
1
(C)
365
1
(D)
366

𝑑𝑦
94. The general solution of the differential equation + 3𝑦 = 𝑒 −2𝑥 is
𝑑𝑥

(A) y  e2 x  ce3x
(B) y  e2 x  ce3x
(C) y  e2 x  ce3x
(D) y  e2 x  ce3x

5𝑥
95. If 𝑥+5 = 4, then the value of 𝑥 is

(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40

96. Solve the system of simultaneous equations below

2a + 5b = 16
10a – 3b = –4

Which of the following is the solution for b?

(A) b = 2
(B) b = 3
(C) b = 4
38
(D) b =
11

97. Equations having a common solution are called

(A) linear equations
(B) simultaneous equations
(C) homogeneous equations
(D) None of the above

98. Statistics facilitates

(A) Comparison
(B) Collection of data
(C) Organization of data
(D) Disposal of data

99. The nature of statistical inference is

(A) Inductive
(B) Deductive
(C) Descriptive
(D) Optimum

100. The algebraic sum of deviations from mean is

(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) None of the above

101. Which of the following is not a mathematical average?

(A) Arithmetic Mean
(B) Geometric Mean
(C) Weighted A.M.
(D) Median

102. Histogram is used to find

(A) Mean
(B) Mode
(C) Median
(D) Range

103. The percentage lying between P10 and P90 is

(A) 100
(B) 80
(C) 10
(D) 90

104. Measures of dispersion is an indicator of the reliability of

(A) An average
(B) Variability
(C) Median class
(D) Model class

105. Paasche index is based on

(A) Base year quantities
(B) Current year quantities
(C) Average of current and base year
(D) None of the above

106. The circular test is satisfied by

(A) Simple aggregative index
(B) Paasche’s index
(C) Laspeyre’s index
(D) Kelly’s index

107. Which of the following satisfies time reversal
test but not factor reversal test?

(A) Laspeyre
(B) Marshall-Edgeworth
(C) Fisher
(D) Paasche

108. For samples of size greater than 30, the sampling
distribution of the rank correlation coefficient is
approximately which distribution

(A) t
(B) Binomial
(C) Chi – square
(D) Normal

109. For a symmetrical distribution skewness is

(A) 3
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2

110. Which of the following is not satisfied for
independence of two events A and B?

(A) P (A/B) = P(A)
(B) P (B/A) = P(B)
(C) P (A, B) = P(A) P(B)
(D) P (A, B) = P(A) + P(B)

111. Co-efficient of correlation is independent of which of the following?

(A) Change of origin only
(B) Change of scale only
(C) Change of origin and scale
(D) Unit of measurement

112. Which is not a sampling distribution?

(A) Student’s ‘t’ distribution
(B) Fisher’s ‘F’ distribution
(C) Poisson distribution
(D) χ2 (chi square) distribution

113. If in a distribution mean is 40, mode is 60 and the standard
deviation is 10, then the coefficient of skewness will be

(A) −2
(B) 2
(C) −20
(D) 5

114. Population value is called

(A) Statistic
(B) Parameter
(C) Variable
(D) Core value

115. The measure of location which is the most likely to be
influenced by extreme values in the data set is the

(A) Range
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Mean

116. An important application of the chi-square distribution is

(A) Making inferences about a single population variance
(B) Testing for the goodness of fit
(C) Testing for the independence of two variables
(D) All these alternatives are correct

117. Whenever using the t distribution in the estimation, we must assume that

(A) the sample size is at least 30
(B) the sampling distribution is approximately normal
(C) the population is approximately normal
(D) the finite population correction factor is necessary

118. Which one of the following is the best measure of central tendency?

(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Harmonic mean
(D) Geometric mean

119. Coefficient of correlation is the ratio of

(A) Variance / Covariance
(B) The covariance of XY / Variance of x and y
(C) The variance of x / Variance of y
(D) Variability

120. Coefficient of determination is the ratio of

(A) Total variation and Explained variation
(B) Explained variation and Unexplained variation
(C) Explained variation and Total variation
(D) Unexplained and Total variation

121. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Global warming is simply another term for greenhouse effect
(B) Global warming is an entirely natural phenomenon
(C) Global warming means melting down of glaciers
(D) Global warming is the rise in average temperature at earth’s surface

122. NITI Aayog was formed in 2015 by

(A) An ordinance promulgated by the President
(B) A resolution of the central government
(C) A law of the Parliament
(D) An amendment to the constitution under Article 368

123. In the Federation established by The Government of India Acts of 1935,
residuary powers were given to the

(A) Federal Legislature
(B) Governor General
(C) Provincial Legislature
(D) Provincial Governors

124. The Rowlatt Act was passed in

(A) 1905
(B) 1913
(C) 1919
(D) 1925

125. Who called the Government of India Act 1935 as a Charter of Slavery?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(D) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru

126. The mind of the makers of the constitution of India is reflected in

(A) The preamble
(B) The fundamental rights
(C) The directive principles of state policy
(D) The fundamental duties

127. The right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(A) Fundamental rights
(B) Natural rights
(C) Constitutional rights
(D) Legal rights

128. Mahatma Gandhi had launched his first Satyagraha
in India from which among the following places?

(A) Kheda
(B) Bardoli
(C) Champaran
(D) Sabarmati

129. The headquarters of IMF and World Bank are located at

(A) Geneva and Montreal
(B) Geneva and Vienna
(C) New York and Geneva
(D) Washington

130. “World Development Report” is an annual publication of

(A) World Bank
(B) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(C) World Trade Organisation
(D) International Monetary Fund

131. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?

(A) Bhutan
(B) India
(C) Thailand
(D) Maldives

132 The headquarters of World Trade Organisation is in

(A) Montreal
(B) Seattle
(C) Geneva
(D) The Hague

133. National Development Council was set up in

(A) 1952
(B) 1950
(C) 1949
(D) 1948

134. A “closed economy” is a kind of economy in which

(A) Only exports take place
(B) The money supply is fully controlled
(C) Deficit financing takes place
(D) Neither exports nor imports take place

135. Which one of the following is true with respect to
Fundamental Rights of Indian Constitution?

(A) Sovereignty of the people
(B) Equality of opportunity for all resident
(C) Limited government
(D) Democracy

136. The government had recently launched Central Equipment Identity
Register (CEIR) portal. It operates under which department?
(A) Department of Science and Technology
(B) Department of Telecom
(C) Department of Biotechnology
(D) Department of Public Enterprise

137. Which of the following are among the taxes levied exclusively
by the Central Government and are mentioned in the Union List
of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?

1. Corporation Tax
2. Taxes on advertisement in the newspapers
3. Taxes on Agricultural income
4. Taxes on consumption/sale of electricity

(A) Only 2
(B) Only 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 4

138. Which of the following literally means ‘We Command’?

(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Certiorari

139. The 8th schedule of Constitution of India, originally had how many languages?

(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 22

140. Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following group of Indian States?

(A) Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Manipur
(B) Rajasthan, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Mizoram
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand
(D) Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh

141. ‘The world beneath his feet’ is a Biography of

(A) Pulela Gopichand
(B) Nawab Pataudi
(C) Ajit Wadekar
(D) Sachin Tendulkar

142. Which among the following is NOT a subsidiary of RBI?

(A) National Housing Bank
(B) NABARD
(C) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited
(D) SIDBI

143. Expansion of CRIS?

(A) Comparative Rating Index for Sovereigns
(B) Cumulative Rating Index for States
(C) Comparative Rating Index for States
(D) Comparative Rating Index of Societies

144. World Mental Health Day is observed on

(A) First Saturday of October
(B) Second Saturday of October
(C) Third Saturday of October
(D) Fourth Saturday of October

145. Which organisation is termed as "a child of war"?

(A) UN
(B) League of Nations
(C) SAARC
(D) WHO

146. How many members does the Economic and Social Council have?

(A) 15
(B) 22
(C) 36
(D) 54

147. Lost Wax process is a technique related to

(A) painting
(B) sculpture making
(C) wall decoration
(D) pottery making

148. The book ‘I do what I do’ is written by

(A) P. Chidambaram
(B) R. Uma Maheswari
(C) Vinit Goenka
(D) Raghuram Rajan

149. Which gulf country has approved the issuance of
5-Year multi-entry tourist visa for people
belonging to all nationalities?

(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) Qatar
(C) UAE
(D) Oman

150. World Braille Day observed on

(A) January 1st
(B) January 2nd
(C) January 3rd
(D) January 4th

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 616 APPLIED ECONOMICS
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 A 61 C 91 A 121 D
2 B 32 D 62 D 92 C 122 B
3 A 33 C 63 B 93 B 123 A
4 C 34 C 64 C 94 A 124 C
5 D 35 D 65 D 95 B 125 D
6 A 36 B 66 C 96 B 126 A
7 B 37 B 67 A 97 C 127 D
8 B 38 C 68 C 98 A 128 C
9 C 39 D 69 D 99 A 129 C
10 D 40 C 70 D 100 C 130 A
11 B 41 C 71 A 101 D 131 C
12 B 42 B 72 C 102 B 132 C
13 B 43 B 73 C 103 B 133 A
14 C 44 A 74 B 104 A 134 D
15 A 45 D 75 B 105 B 135 B
16 D 46 C 76 B 106 D 136 B
17 B 47 D 77 A 107 B 137 C
18 B 48 B 78 B 108 D 138 B
19 D 49 B 79 A 109 B 139 B
20 D 50 C 80 C 110 D 140 B
21 A 51 A 81 A 111 C 141 A
22 A 52 A 82 D 112 C 142 D
23 A 53 A 83 C 113 A 143 A
24 B 54 A 84 C 114 B 144 B
25 B 55 B 85 C 115 D 145 B
26 A 56 D 86 B 116 D 146 D
27 D 57 C 87 C 117 C 147 B
28 D 58 B 88 B 118 D 148 D
29 C 59 D 89 A 119 B 149 C
30 B 60 A 90 C 120 C 150 D