CUSAT CAT 2021 Question Paper Food Science

FOOD SCIENCE

1. The freezing point for pure water is

(A) 10°F
(B) 28°F
(C) 15°F
(D) 32°F

2. Large quantities of Phytohaemagglutinin is present in

(A) rice
(B) egg
(C) kidney beans
(D) milk

3. Which one of the following Vitamins helps in normal blood clotting?

(A) C
(B) D
(C) A
(D) K

4. Sucrose is commonly referred to as

(A) salt
(B) table sugar
(C) carbohydrate
(D) glucose

5. Which polysaccharide is commonly added to food products?

(A) Water
(B) Glucose
(C) Salt
(D) Starch

6. The temperature employed for deep fat frying is

(A) 120-200°C
(B) 130-140°C
(C) 180-220°C
(D) 220-280°C

7. Major ingredient of carbonated soft drinks is

(A) Water
(B) Caffeine
(C) Corn syrup
(D) Flavouring

8. Which of the following acts as a Universal solvent?

(A) Water
(B) Soap
(C) Alcohol
(D) Aldehyde

9. Which micro mineral is essential for the production of thyroid hormones?

(A) Calcium
(B) Fluorine
(C) Iodine
(D) Magnesium

10. When food comes in contact with wood smoke, it is contaminated with

(A) Biaxin
(B) Chlorodiaxin
(C) Formalin
(D) None of the above

11. BIS stands for

(A) Board of Indian Standards
(B) Bureau of Indian Standards
(C) Bureau of International Standards
(D) None of the above

12. The botanical name for Kesari Dal is

(A) Cajanus cajan
(B) Cicer arietinum
(C) Vigna radiate
(D) Lathyrus sativus

13. Carbohydrates and proteins provide about …………… calories per gram.

(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 6

14. Which among the following is called as ‘animal starch’?

(A) Caramel
(B) Cellulose
(C) Dextrins
(D) Glycogen

15. Stripping solvent off a meal is called

(A) Toasting
(B) Buttering
(C) Gamming
(D) Milling

16. Mould and Yeast are classified as

(A) viruses
(B) parasites
(C) fungi
(D) bacteria

17. Vitamin B2 is also known as

(A) Thiamine
(B) Niacin
(C) Riboflavin
(D) Folic acid

18. Which of the following sweeteners has the highest glycemic index?

(A) Maltose
(B) Dextrose
(C) Maltodextrin
(D) Glucose

19. Which type of drying is commonly used for producing milk powder?

(A) Wet
(B) Heat
(C) Spray
(D) Air

20. Which Vitamin is used most commonly to control enzymatic browning in fruits?

(A) K
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

21. A common adulterant for black pepper is:

(A) Dried papaya seeds
(B) Poppy seeds
(C) Argimone seeds
(D) None of the above

22. Methemoglobinemia is caused due to …………… toxicity.

(A) Oxalate
(B) Phytate
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrobenzene

23. Which one of the following is a type of mushroom toxicity?

(A) Ergot
(B) Amatoxin
(C) Aflatoxin
(D) Fusarium

24. Favism is caused due to the lack of enzyme

(A) Amylase
(B) Protease
(C) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(D) Lipase

25. Tannins interfere with …………… absorption.

(A) Sodium
(B) Potassium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Iron

26. What is the expansion for HACCP?

(A) Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point
(B) Health Assessment and Critical Control Point
(C) Health Analysis and Committee for Critical Control Point
(D) None of the above

27. AGMARK refers to

(A) Agricultural Marketing
(B) Agricultural Trading
(C) Agricultural Testing
(D) None of the above

28. Which of the following is a fish poisoning?

(A) Patulin
(B) Citrinin
(C) Ciguatera
(D) Fusarium

29. GMO Stands for

(A) Genetically Modified Organism
(B) Genetically Manufactured Oranges
(C) Gross Moldy Oranges
(D) Genetically Malfunctioning Organism

30. Codex Alimentarius Commission is an inter-governmental joint commission of

(A) ICMR and NIN
(B) UNICEF and UNESCO
(C) FAO and WHO
(D) UNICEF and FAO

31. A more prominent chalaza indicates a …………… egg.

(A) staler
(B) healthier
(C) fresher
(D) rounder

32. One of the most common physical tests performed on fats is the determination of its

(A) Boiling point
(B) Cooling point
(C) Melting point
(D) Separating point

33. Candies such as rock candy, fondant and fudges are made from …………… sugars.

(A) Crystalline
(B) Non-crystalline
(C) Brown
(D) Sweet

34. Monoglycerides and diglycerides are used in a variety of foods as

(A) Emulsifiers
(B) Flavor
(C) Calories
(D) Color

35. Each gram of fat contains …………… kcal.

(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 6

36. The most widely known by-product of Corn is

(A) Glue
(B) Ethanol
(C) Paint
(D) Lotion

37. What happens when Fresh egg is placed in water?

(A) Floats
(B) Sinks
(C) Breaks
(D) None of the above

38. The sharp odor of fish is due to

(A) Trimethylamine
(B) Sulphur-di-oxide
(C) Ethyl chloride
(D) Methyl alcohol

39. Urea is added to milk to

(A) improve taste
(B) Improve flavor
(C) Increase shelf-life
(D) Increase nutritive value

40. FSSAI indicates

(A) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
(B) Food Science and Standardization Authority of India
(C) Food Science and Safety Association of India
(D) None of the above

41. Botulism is caused by

(A) Clostridium species
(B) Salmonella species
(C) Streptococcal species
(D) None of the above

42. Bulging or swelling of cans in canned foods indicates contamination with

(A) Salmonella species
(B) Streptococcus species
(C) Clostridium Botulinum
(D) None of the above

43. Fresh meat should be

(A) Bright red in colour
(B) Pink in colour
(C) Pale
(D) None of the above

44. Organoleptic evaluation is the other name for

(A) Objective evaluation
(B) Sensory evaluation
(C) Physiologic evaluation
(D) None of the above

45. Which part of the fish is cut lengthwise along one side parallel to the backbone?

(A) Steaks
(B) Nuggets
(C) Fillets
(D) Sticks

46. Gliadin is soluble in
(A) Salt
(B) Alcohol
(C) Dilute acid and alkali
(D) Sugar

47. Which of the following is a rapid pre-cooling method?

(A) Forced air Cooling
(B) Hydro Cooling
(C) Vacuum Cooling
(D) Evaporative Cooling

48. As the number of carbon atoms in a chain of fatty acid increases

(A) the boiling point will be higher
(B) the boiling point will be lesser
(C) the melting point will be higher
(D) the melting point will be lower

49. Nature of Gliadin is

(A) Viscous
(B) Elastic
(C) Extensive
(D) Tough

50. Which chemical is used for controlling sprouting of onion in storage?

(A) Maleic Hydrazide
(B) Ethylene
(C) Gallic acid
(D) Ascorbic acid

51. Carnauba wax is an example for

(A) Liquid wax
(B) Soft wax
(C) Hard wax
(D) Archaebacterial wax

52. The number of OH groups in fats can be expressed as

(A) Polenske number
(B) Reichert-Meissil number
(C) Acetyl number
(D) Iodine number

53. The degree of unsaturation of lipid can be measured as

(A) Saponification number
(B) Iodine number
(C) Polenske number
(D) Reichert-Meissil Number

54. Naturally occurring fats are

(A) L-types
(B) D-types
(C) An equi-molar mixture of L and D types
(D) Symmetric

55. Tomato fruits for canning are harvested at:

(A) Mature green stage
(B) Red ripe stage
(C) Immature green stage
(D) Half-ripe/pink stage

56. Which of the following amino acids will be absent in α (alpha) helix
structure of protein?

(A) Methionine
(B) Alanine
(C) Glutamic acid
(D) Proline

57. Benzoic Acid is most effective against

(A) Mould
(B) Yeast
(C) Bacteria
(D) Virus

58. What is the molecular formula of sucrose?

(A) C12H22O11
(B) C10H20O10
(C) C6H12O6
(D) C12H20O11

59. Saponification number is the number of milligrams of KOH required to saponify 1 g
fat. Which of the following statement is true about saponification number?

(A) The shorter the chain length of fatty acids, the higher will be the saponification
number
(B) The shorter the chain length of fatty acids, the lower will be the saponification
number
(C) The higher the chain saturation of fatty acids, the lower will be the
saponification number
(D) The lower the chain saturation of fatty acids, the higher will be the
saponification number

60. The enzyme abundantly distributed in adipocytes and germinating seeds is

(A) Protease
(B) Lipase
(C) Cellulase
(D) Nuclease

61. Rancidity of lipids in lipid-rich food stuffs is due to:

(A) Hydrogenation of unsaturated fatty acids
(B) Reduction of fatty acids
(C) Oxidation of fatty acids
(D) Dehydrogenation of saturated fatty acids

62. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, BHA, BHT, and sulfites are all

(A) Flavour enhancers
(B) Antimicrobial agents
(C) Additives
(D) Antioxidants

63. Which is the precursor of Ethylene?

(A) Tryptophan
(B) Methionine
(C) ABA
(D) IAA

64. Among the 20 standard protein coding amino acids,
which one occurs least in proteins?

(A) Glycine
(B) Alanine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Methionine

65. Double toned milk contains ……………% MF and ……………% MSNF.

(A) 1.5, 9.0
(B) 3.5, 8.5
(C) 3.0, 8.5
(D) 4.5, 8.5

66. Gluten is viscous and elastic in nature and is a combination of

(A) Gliadin and Glutenin
(B) Glutenin and Globulin
(C) Albumin and Globulin
(D) Globulin and Gliadin

67. Histones are rich in

(A) Lysine and Arginine
(B) Arginine and Histidine
(C) Histidine and Lysine
(D) Histidine and Glycine

68. Spinach is rich in

(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin E

69. Bacteria prefer to use the codon CGA instead of AGA to code for Arginine.
This is an example for

(A) Second genetic code
(B) Nullomers
(C) Transcriptional decoding
(D) Allomers

70. Which bean is used for the extraction of Guar gum?

(A) Broad bean
(B) Cluster bean
(C) French bean
(D) Hyacinth bean

71. Red Chillies are rich source of

(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A and C
(D) Vitamin E

72. The amino acid commonly used as an ingredient in the buffers of SDS PAGE, is

(A) Aspartic acid
(B) Glutamic acid
(C) Glycine
(D) Aspartic acid and Lysine together

73. Which one of the following is a Climacteric type of fruit?

(A) Banana
(B) Citrus
(C) Litchi
(D) Grape

74. An aldo hexose will have …………… stereoisomers.

(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 16

75. The term "three quarterful or full three quarter" is used to denote fruit maturity in
which of the following crops?

(A) Banana
(B) Mango
(C) Tomato
(D) Pineapple

76. Vacuum cooling is most suitable for:

(A) Fruits
(B) Tubers
(C) Leafy vegetables
(D) None of the above

77. Maltose is a disaccharide of

(A) Glucose and galactose
(B) Glucose and glucose
(C) Glucose and lactose
(D) Fructose and lactose

78. Bitterness in Citrus juice is due to

(A) Sugar
(B) Acid
(C) Limonin
(D) Vitamins

79. Bitterness in Peach is due to

(A) Sugar
(B) Malic acid
(C) Hydrocyanin
(D) Prunasin acid

80. Storage of fruits and vegetables, where the gas composition is changed from that
of normal atmosphere and a precise control is maintained over the atmospheric
composition during storage period, is known as:

(A) Controlled Atmospheric (CA) storage
(B) Modified Atmospheric (MA) storage
(C) Cold storage
(D) Hypobaric storage

81. Which of the following is an alpha lactone?

(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin K

82. Vitamin which is not found in Fruits and Vegetables is

(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B1
(C) Vitamin B6
(D) Vitamin B12

83. Which of the following is a ketotetrose?

(A) Erythrulose
(B) Xylulose
(C) Sorbose
(D) Psicose

84. During controlled atmospheric storage composition,
which of the following set of gases is controlled?

(A) CO2, O2, N2
(B) C2H4, N2, O2
(C) CO2, CH4 , O2
(D) None of the above

85. Which of the following sugars gives a positive result with Seliwanoff test?

(A) Sucrose
(B) Glucose
(C) Galactose
(D) Mannose

86. The pH at which fruits and vegetables are divided as acidic and non-acidic
for thermal processing is

(A) 4.5
(B) 5.5
(C) 6.5
(D) 7.5

87. Select the odd one from the following

(A) Xylulose
(B) Dihydroxyacetone
(C) Glyceraldehyde
(D) Ribulose

88. Calliper grade is the maturity measurement for:

(A) Apple
(B) Mango
(C) Banana
(D) Pineapple

89. In pre-cooling, water is mostly removed by:

(A) Convection
(B) Conduction
(C) Radiation
(D) None of the above

90. Honey is adulterated using

(A) Fat
(B) Molasses
(C) Juice concentrate
(D) Corn flour

91. What is the maturity index for Avocado?

(A) Sugar content
(B) Acid content
(C) TSS
(D) Oil content

92. Lye peeling is done at a temperature of

(A) 75°C
(B) 84°C
(C) 93°C
(D) 105°C

93. Cinnamon is adulterated with

(A) Bombax bark
(B) Soil
(C) Cassia bark
(D) Dried leaves

94. As fruits mature, the specific gravity will

(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remain constant
(D) fluctuate

95. In Onion, pink colour is due to

(A) Anthocyanin
(B) Carotene
(C) Xanthophyll
(D) Quercitin

96. Glutenin is soluble in

(A) Salt
(B) Alcohol
(C) Dilute acid and alkali
(D) Sugar

97. Which of the folliwng bacteria can grow in alkaline pH?

(A) Lactobacilli
(B) Vibrio cholera
(C) Salmonella
(D) Staphylococcus

98. Guava fruit is botanically known as a

(A) Drupe
(B) Sorosis
(C) Berry
(D) Pome

99. The microbial cause of spoilage of honey is

(A) Zygosccharomyces
(B) Azotobactor
(C) Fusarium
(D) Candida

100. Which of the following microorganisms is commonly known as ‘Pink Bread Mould’?

(A) Neurospora
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Mucor
(D) Rhizopus

101. What is the threshold level of ethylene in fruits and vegetables?

(A) 0.01 µL/L
(B) 0.02 µL/L
(C) 0.03 µL/L
(D) 0.04 µL/L

102. Which statement about the pyranose form of mannose is not correct?

(A) it exists as two anomeric stereoisomers
(B) it reacts with Tollens' reagent to give a silver mirror. (i.e. it is a reducing sugar)
(C) reaction with excess CH3I and AgOH gives a non-reducing penta-O-methyl
derivative
(D) it resists reduction with aqueous sodium borohydride

103. Which two of the following aldohexoses give the same osazone derivative?

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

104. MSG is used as

(A) colour enhancer
(B) thickening agent
(C) flavour enhancer
(D) emulsifier

105. Which of the following methods selectively cleaves a peptide at methionine residues?

(A) trypsin digestion
(B) cyanogen bromide
(C) chymotrypsin digestion
(D) Edman degradation

106. What is invert sugar, and why is it so named?

(A) The sugar mixture from hydrolysis of sucrose; fructose is isomerized to
glucose
(B) The sugar mixture from hydrolysis of sucrose; the optical rotation changes
from (+) to (–)
(C) The Sugar mixture from hydrolysis of starch; α-glycosidic bonds are changed
to β-glycosidic bonds
(D) The sugar mixture from hydrolysis of starch; glucose is isomerized to fructose

107. HIC is

(A) Hydrophilic Interaction Chromatography
(B) Hydrophilic Intermediate Chromatography
(C) Hydrophobic Interaction Chromatography
(D) Hydrophobic Intermediate Chromatography

108. The amino acid cysteine often forms a disulfide bond with another nearby cysteine.
This reaction is best classified as

(A) An addition
(B) A substitution
(C) An oxidation
(D) A reduction

109. Which of the following statements most correctly defines the isoelectric point?

(A) The pH at which all molecular species are ionized and that carry the same
charge
(B) The pH at which all molecular species are neutral and uncharged
(C) The pH at which half the molecular species are ionized (charged) and the other
half unionized
(D) The pH at which negatively and positively charged molecular species are
present in equal concentration

110. Which of the following is a general characteristic of those natural products classified
as lipids?

(A) They are generally insoluble in water and soluble in organic solvents
(B) They are generally soluble in water and insoluble in organic solvents
(C) They have the common structural feature of two or more fused carbon rings
(D) They generally have a high weight proportion of oxygen (> 40%)

111. The Michaelis-Menton equation relates the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction to
which of the following?

(A) Substrate concentration
(B) Product concentration
(C) Activation energy
(D) Inhibitor concentration

112. Which of the following statements is untrue about protein secondary structure?

(A) The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein
secondary structure
(B) The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is
important to secondary structure
(C) The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure
(D) The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to
secondary structure

113. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the conversion of

(A) Caseinogens into casein
(B) Trysionogen into trypsin
(C) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(D) Proteins into polypeptides

114. The formation of cystine occurs at

(A) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Cytosol
(D) Mitochondria

115. The device that helps to detect the odour and flavour of a food sample is

(A) electronic nose
(B) electronic detector
(C) electronic analyser
(D) electronic odour separator

116. Which of the following statements is false with respect to an enzyme's ability to
catalyse a reaction?

(A) An enzyme provides a reaction surface and a suitable environment for the
reaction to take place.
(B) An enzyme binds reactants such that they are positioned correctly and can
attain their transition-state configurations.
(C) An enzyme allows the reaction to go through a less stable transition state than
would normally be the case.
(D) An enzyme can weaken bonds in reactants through the binding process.

117. Which of the following is a group of proteolytic enzymes?

(A) Bromelin and Papain
(B) Cellulase and Myrosinase
(C) Maltase and Diastase
(D) Phosphatase and Chlorophyllase

118. Histidine is degraded to α-ketoglutarate and is described as a

(A) Gluco amino acid
(B) Glucogenic amino acid
(C) Ketogenic amino acid
(D) Keto-gluco acid

119. Identify the correct name of the following peptide.

(A) L-alanyl-L-phenylalanyl-glycine
(B) glycyl-L-phenylalanyl-L-alanine
(C) L-phenylalanyl-L-alanyl-glycine
(D) L-alanyl-glycyl-L-phenylalanine

120. Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving
the residue of the amino acid, serine.

(A) Ionic bond
(B) Hydrogen bond
(C) van der Waals interactions
(D) None of the above

121. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding transport proteins?

(A) They are present in cell membranes
(B) They serve to carry polar molecules across the hydrophobic cell membranes
(C) They are required to transport amino acids across cell membranes
(D) They are required to transport hydrophobic steroids across cell membranes

122. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids takes place at

(A) Peroxisomes
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Mitochondria and Peroxisomes
(D) Mitochondria, Peroxisomes and ER

123. ‘Solidity’ is the maturity index for

(A) Root vegetables
(B) Seed vegetables
(C) Leafy vegetables
(D) Cucurbits

124. Cider is the product obtained from

(A) Fermentation of Plum
(B) Fermentation of Peach
(C) Fermentation of Apple
(D) Fermentation of Rice

125. Bony armor fishes are

(A) Placoderms
(B) Ostracoderms
(C) Elasmobranchs
(D) None of the above

126. Which of the following fishes are viviparous?

(A) Chimeras
(B) Sharks
(C) Lamprey
(D) Salmons

127. Elasmobranchs remove Sodium Chloride through:

(A) Gills
(B) Rectal glands
(C) Liver
(D) Kidney

128. How many chambers are there in the heart of fishes?

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 2

129. Fishes that live in stagnant water are

(A) Protopterus
(B) Lepidosiren
(C) Neceratodus
(D) Sturecons

130. Placoid scales are present in

(A) Hag fishes
(B) Lamprey
(C) Salmons
(D) Sharks

131. Which among the following are cartilaginous fishes?

(A) Osteichthyes
(B) Chondrichthyes
(C) Acanthodians
(D) Placoderms

132. Which one of the following is a true fish?

(A) Cattle fish
(B) Star fish
(C) Jelly fish
(D) Dog fish

133. Migration of fishes from fresh water to marine water for reproduction is known as

(A) Catadromonous
(B) Potamodromous
(C) Amphidromous
(D) Anadromous

134. Dorsal fin erosion in fishes is due to the deficiency of

(A) Leucine
(B) Histidine
(C) Lysine
(D) Tryptophan

135. Beche-de-Mere is obtained from

(A) Sea cucumber
(B) Seafen
(C) Sea lily
(D) Sea turtle

136. The Indian edible oyster is

(A) Crassostrea madrasensis
(B) Vanma litterata
(C) Sepia aculeate
(D) Perna viridis

137. The chemical which is used to induce triploids in fishes

(A) Calcium oxide
(B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid
(D) Nitrous oxide

138. Sea weeds are rich sources of

(A) Protein
(B) Fat
(C) Carbohydrate
(D) Iodine

139. Biodrum refers to

(A) Weeder
(B) Cutter
(C) Biofilter
(D) Ozonizer

140. Lordosis and scoliosis are due to the deficiency of

(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin B complex
(D) Vitamin D

141. Seaweed, Nymphea produces

(A) Agar
(B) Caragenen
(C) Biotoxin
(D) Alginic acid

142. The national fish of India is

(A) Lebeo rohita
(B) Clarias batrachus
(C) Catla catla
(D) Rostrelliger kauagurta

143. ‘Induced breeding technique’ is used in

(A) Marine fishery
(B) Capture fishery
(C) Inland fishery
(D) Culture fishery

144. Smoking is used as a technique of

(A) Mushroom cultivation
(B) Pulses cultivation
(C) Pickle preservation
(D) Fish preservation

145. Identify the edible freshwater telcost

(A) Catla catla
(B) Rays and Skates
(C) Hilsa ilisha
(D) Sharks

146. The larva of lamprey is

(A) Tonaria
(B) Tadpole
(C) Trochophore
(D) Ammocoete

147. Which of the following fishes show aestivation?

(A) Lepidosiren
(B) Protopterus
(C) Neoceratodus
(D) None of the above

148. Expand AFD

(A) Accelerated Fish Drying
(B) Accelerated Frequency Drying
(C) Accelerated Force Drying
(D) Accelerated Freeze Drying

149. Phosphatase test is used in the analysis of

(A) milk
(B) tea
(C) water
(D) coffee

150. What is the reason for blanching vegetables prior to freezing?

(A) To denature enzymes
(B) To prevent microbial activity
(C) To improve texture
(D) To maintain colour

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 618 FOOD SCIENCE
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 D 31 C 61 C 91 D 121 D
2 C 32 C 62 D 92 C 122 B
3 D 33 A 63 B 93 C 123 C
4 B 34 A 64 C 94 A 124 C
5 D 35 B 65 A 95 D 125 B
6 C 36 B 66 A 96 C 126 B
7 A 37 B 67 A 97 B 127 B
8 A 38 A 68 C 98 C 128 D
9 C 39 C 69 B 99 A 129 C
10 B 40 A 70 B 100 A 130 D
11 B 41 A 71 C 101 A 131 B
12 D 42 C 72 C 102 D 132 D
13 B 43 A 73 A 103 B 133 D
14 D 44 B 74 D 104 C 134 D
15 A 45 C 75 A 105 B 135 C
16 C 46 B 76 C 106 B 136 A
17 C 47 B 77 B 107 C 137 A
18 C 48 C 78 C 108 C 138 C
19 C 49 A 79 D 109 D 139 A
20 C 50 A 80 A 110 A 140 A
21 A 51 C 81 A 111 A 141 D
22 D 52 C 82 D 112 D 142 D
23 B 53 B 83 A 113 B 143 D
24 C 54 A 84 A 114 A 144 D
25 D 55 B 85 A 115 A 145 A
26 A 56 D 86 A 116 C 146 D
27 A 57 B 87 C 117 A 147 A
28 C 58 A 88 C 118 B 148 D
29 A 59 A 89 B 119 A 149 A
30 C 60 B 90 B 120 B 150 A