CUSAT CAT 2021 Question Paper Forensic Science

FORENSIC SCIENCE

(PHYSICS)

1. The dimensional formula of stress is ……………
0 1 2
(A) [M L T ]
1 0 −2
(B) [M L T ]
1 −1 −2
(C) [M L T ]
1 −1 −1
(D) [M L T ]

2. The work done per unit volume in stretching the wire is equal to ……………

(A) stress × strain
(B) (1/2) stress × strain
(C) stress / strain
(D) strain / stress

3. The twisting couple per unit twist of a cylinder depends on

(A) Young’s modulus
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Modulus of rigidity
(D) Poisson’s ratio

4. The bending moment of a beam depends on only

(A) Young’s modulus
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Modulus of rigidity
(D) Poisson’s ratio

5. Let y is depression produced in the free end of cantilever when weight W is loaded at
other end of the beam. If the length of the beam is doubled, the depression y will be

(A) y/8
(B) 2y
(C) 8y
(D) None of the above

6. The upper end of a wire of radius 4 mm and length 100 cm is clamped and its other
end is twisted through an angle of 30°. Then angle of shear is:

(A) 12°
(B) 0.12°
(C) 1.2°
(D) 0.012°

7. At constant pressure velocity of sound is ……………

(A) independent of temperature
(B) inversely proportional to absolute temperature
(C) directly proportional to temperature in degree centigrade
(D) directly proportional to square root of absolute temperature

8. If the directions of wind and sound are the same then velocity of sound ……………

(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains unaffected
(D) becomes minimum

9. In Doppler’s effect there is a change in …………… due to relative motion between
observer and source of sound.

(A) amplitude of sound
(B) type of sound wave
(C) loudness of sound
(D) pitch of a note

10. The same notes being played on the sitar and veena differ in ……………

(A) pitch
(B) quality
(C) loudness
(D) frequency

11. …………… is a scalar quantity.

(A) Velocity
(B) Weight
(C) Temperature
(D) Acceleration

12.  
If D  B  C , then D is ……………

(A) perpendicular to B
(B) perpendicular to C
(C) perpendicular B and C
(D) parallel to B and C

13. If G is an operator corresponds to a physical quantity and H is its Hamiltonian, then
the commutator relation [G, H] =0 tells us that

(A) G is not a physical entity
(B) G is a constant of motion
(C) G is varies with time
(D) H is not a constant of motion

14. For a vector V , div(curl V )  ……………

(A) 0
(B) –1
(C) +1
(D) ∞

15. The relation between line integral and surface integral is given by ……………
theorem.

(A) Stokes
(B) Gauss
(C) Green’s
(D) Poisson

16. The maximum line integral per unit area enclosed by the path of integration is called
……………

(A) Gradient
(B) Divergence
(C) Curl
(D) Flux

17. …………… product is governed by the Right-Hand Screw Rule.

(A) Vector
(B) Scalar
(C) Simple mathematical
(D) None of the above

18. The time period of a compound pendulum is directly proportional to the square root of

……………

(A) I
(B) m
(C) g
(D) ℓ

19. The value of ‘g’ on the Earth is the greatest at …………… and the least at the

……………

(A) poles, equator
(B) equator, poles
(C) north pole, south pole
(D) south pole, north pole

20. If no external torque is acting on a particle, its …………… remain constant.

(A) angular momentum
(B) angular acceleration
(C) linear momentum
(D) angular velocity

21. These particles obey the Bose-Einstein statistics

(A) Neutrinos
(B) Pions
(C) Protons
(D) Quarks

22. The work done by a conservative force along a closed path is

(A) zero
(B) positive
(C) infinite
(D) negative

23. The force acting on a particle of charge ‘e’ in an electromagnetic field is ……………

(A) F  eE  ev  B
(B) F  eE  ev  B
(C) F  ev  B
(D) F  ev  B

24. The surface energy term in the nuclear binding energy is related to its mass number as
1/3
(A) A
2/3
(B) A
3/4
(C) A
2
(D) A

25. The cyclotron frequency of charged particle depends on ……………

(A) mass of the particle
(B) applied magnetic field
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) electric field

26. A car moving with a constant velocity represents …………… frame of reference.

(A) Einstein’s
(B) inertial
(C) non-inertial
(D) Newton’s

27. The Michelson-Morley experiment established the fact that the velocity of light is

(A) constant and dependent of the frame of reference
(B) constant and independent of the frame of reference
(C) variable and independent of the frame of reference
(D) variable and dependent of the frame of reference

28. In Lorentz transformation, time is …………… quantity.

(A) constant
(B) absolute
(C) relative
(D) conserved

29. A NaCl crystal is irradiated with a beam of X-ray of wavelength 0.3 nm and the first
Bragg reflection is observed at an angle of 30°. Then the atomic spacing of NaCl is

(A) 0.5 nm
(B) 0.4 nm
(C) 1.2 nm
(D) 0.3 nm

30. According to the law of Dulong and Petit, the molar hear capacity is related to the
universal gas constant (R) as

(A) R
(B) 2R
(C) 3/2 R
(D) 3R

CHEMISTRY
226
31. Half-life of Ra is 1580 years. The amount left undisintegrated from 1.0 g of the
isotope after 6320 years is

(A) 0.125 g
(B) 0.0625 g
(C) 0.0125 g
(D) 0.350 g

–31
32. The wavelength associated with an electron (me = 9.1 × 10 kg) moving with a
3
velocity of 10 m/sec is

(A) 7253 A°
(B) 7253 m
(C) 725.3 A°
(D) 8000 m

33. The oxidation numbers of chromium in K2Cr2O7, K2CrO4 and CrO2Cl2
respectively are

(A) 6, 4 and 4
(B) 4, 6 and 6
(C) 6, 4 and 6
(D) 6, 6 and 6

34. The concentration of the solution of tryptophan that has an absorbance of 0.54
at 280 nm in a 0.5 cm length cuvette (the absorbance coefficient of tryptophan is
3 –1 –1
6.01 × 10 Lmol cm ) is

(A) 0.000166 M
(B) 0.166 M
(C) 0.006 M
(D) None of the above

2+ 2+
35. The emf of the cell Cu/Cu (0.02 M) // Cu (0,04)/Cu at 25°C

(A) 0.89 v
(B) –0.0089 v
(C) –0.0069 v
(D) 0.0089 v

36. The rotational energy of H2O molecule is

(A) 3/2 KT
(B) ½ KT
(C) KT
(D) 2 KT

37. The t½ of the zero order reaction is 250 s. The t½ of the reaction if the initial
concentration increases twice is

(A) 250 s
(B) 500 s
(C) 125 s
(D) 400 s

14 –1
38. The rotational constant of N2 is 2 cm . The wave number of incident radiation
–1
in a Raman spectrometer is 20,487 cm . The wave number of first scattered
–1 14
Stoke line (in cm ) of N2 is
–1
(A) 20,479 cm
–1
(B) 20,475 cm
–1
(C) 20,499 cm
–1
(D) 20,495 cm

39. The equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution (λ∞) for sodium acetate, hydrochloric

acid and sodium chloride is 78, 384 and 109 respectively. The λ∞ of acetic acid
would be

(A) 187
(B) 493
(C) 353
(D) 571

40. Number of nodes in 1s, 2s and 2p respectively are

(A) 0, 1, 0
(B) 1, 0, 1
(C) 1, 0, 0
(D) 0, 0, 1

41. An organic compound of molecular formula, C3H8O (A) reacts violently with sodium
evolving hydrogen. Oxidation of this compound with PCC gives a compound that
gives a positive test with Tollens’ reagent. The characteristic spectral data of A are
–1
(UV: 210 nm; IR 3350, 2800-3000, 1480, 1075 cm ). A would be

(A) CH3CH2CH2OH
(B) CH3CH(OH)CH3
(C) CH3OCH2CH3
(D) All the above

42. The product formed by treating benzene with CH3Cl/AlCl3, followed by Cl2 in the
presence of sunlight and then with aqueous KOH is

(A) m-chlorotoluene
(B) o-methylphenol
(C) o-chlorotoluene
(D) benzyl alcohol

43. Treatment of ethylamine with CHCl3 in the presence of ethanolic KOH yields

(A) Propanal + KCl+ H2O
(B) Formic acid + KCl + CO2
(C) Propyl isocyanide + KCl + H2O
(D) None of the above

44. The order of carbonyl stretching frequency in IR spectra of acetone, acetamide and
acetic anhydride follows

(A) anhydride > amide > ketone
(B) ketone > amide > anhydride
(C) amide > anhydride > ketone
(D) anhydride > ketone > amide

45. The order of the rate of SN2 reactivity of the following compounds would be

I II III

(A) I > II > III
(B) III > II > I
(C) I > III > II
(D) II > III > I

46. Which statement is incorrect about ascorbic acid?

(A) enolic OH group is present and is not reduced by LiAlH4
(B) estimation of ascorbic acid is carried out by titration with
2,6-dichlorophenol-indophenol
(C) deficiency in the diet causes scurvy
(D) ascorbic acid contains two –COOH groups and the molecular
formula is C6H8O6

47. The relative order of stability of the conformers of 1,2-dimethylcyclohexane is

(A) trans(aa) > cis > trans(ee)
(B) trans(aa) > trans(ee) > cis
(C) cis > trans (aa) > trans (ee)
(D) trans (ee) > cis > trans(aa)

48. In a reaction of aniline that is given below, a coloured product, C was obtained.
Predict the structure of C.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

49. Primary amides may be converted into amines by the reaction that is named as

(A) Perkin reaction
(B) Claisen reaction
(C) Hoffmann reaction
(D) Kolbe reaction

50. The number of optical isomers of CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CHO is

(A) zero
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

51. The molarity of Na2CO3 solution which is obtained by dissolving 8 g of Na2CO3 in
100 ml water and the density of the solution is 1.08 g per ml is (Atomic weight of
Na = 23, C = 12, O =16)
(A) 0.8 M
(B) 0.75 M
(C) 0.075 M
(D) 0.008 M

2– 2–
52. The hybridization and geometry of [NiCl4] and [NiF6] respectively are
3 2 3
(A) sp , tetrahedral and d sp , octahedral
2 2 3
(B) dsp , square planar and d sp , octahedral
3 3 2
(C) sp , tetrahedral and sp d , octahedral
2 3 2
(D) dsp , square planar and sp d , octahedral

232
53. Number of alpha(α) and beta(β) particles emitted in the conversion of 90Th to
216
84Po are

(A) α = 3, β = 3
(B) α = 2, β = 4
(C) α = 4, β = 2
(D) α = 4, β = 6

54. The atomic weight of metal in the oxide with the formula, M2O3 that contains 30%
oxygen is

(A) 50
(B) 84
(C) 124
(D) 56

55. The compound that undergoes oxidative addition in presence of H2 is

(A) [Mn(CO)5]
(B) [(ƞ5-C5H5Mo(CO)3]
(C) [IrCl(CO)(PPh3)2]
(D) [(ƞ5-C5H5)ReH]

56. The spin only magnetic moment and ground state term symbol of manganese in
3–
[MnF6] ion respectively are
5
(A) 4.9 BM and D
5
(B) 4.9 BM and F
3
(C) 3.9 BM and D
4
(D) 4.9 BM and F

57. The biological functions of carbonic anhydrase and peptidase A respectively are

(A) gene regulation and hydrolysis of peptide
(B) interconversion of CO2 and carbonates, and hydrolysis of peptide
(C) gene regulation and interconvert of CO2 and carbonates
(D) None of the above

2–
58. The reaction of [PtCl4] with two equivalents of NH3 produces

(A) cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(B) trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(C) both cis and trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(D) trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl4]

59. The metal present in chlorophyll

(A) Mg
(B) Fe
(C) Zn
(D) Cu

60. The oxide which has normal spinel structure is

(A) Fe3O4
(B) NiFe2O4
(C) CoFe2O4
(D) ZnAl2O4

BIOLOGY

61. Which one of the following is NOT a property of active transport?
(A) Requires specific proteins
(B) Solute transported against its gradient
(C) Coupled to ATP hydrolysis
(D) Driven by movement of a cotransported ion down its gradient

62. The phylum in which animals are bilaterally symmetrical in the larval stage and
radially symmetrical in the adult stage.

(A) Coelenterata
(B) Mollusca
(C) Nematoda
(D) Echinodermata

63. Which of the following is a protooncogene?

(A) HER2
(B) APC
(C) RB
(D) BRCA-1

64. The FG-nucleoporins contain multiple repeats of short hydrophobic sequences rich in

(A) Phenylalanine and glycine
(B) Tryptophan and histidine
(C) Phenylalanine and glutamine
(D) Proline and serine

65. The parasite Onchocerca volvulus causes

(A) Scarlet fever
(B) Filarasis
(C) Schistosomiasis
(D) River blindness

66. Which of the following microbial recognition receptor mediate cytokine production
and induce adaptive immune response?

(A) Toll-like receptor
(B) CD14
(C) Mannose receptor
(D) Scavenger receptor

67. The first gymnosperms most likely originated in the

(A) Palaeozoic era
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Cenozoic
(D) Neoarchean

68. The pathway which is extremely important in the differentiation of blood cells, the
growth of limbs, and in the activation of casein gene during milk production

(A) JAK-STAT pathway
(B) RTK pathway
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) SYS pathway

69. The transport of water and the inorganic minerals in the plant in the upward direction
from the roots to the leaves

(A) Translocation
(B) Ascent of sap
(C) Suction
(D) Siphoning

70. The cleavage point of trypsin (bovine pancreas)

(A) Lys Arg(c)
(B) Asp glu(c)
(C) Met (c)
(D) Lys (c)

71. I-cell disease is caused by

(A) Lack of lysosomal enzymes
(B) Imbalance in chloride and sodium
(C) Mutation in LDL receptor
(D) Uncontrolled autophagy

72. Distributions of incomes or wages are often

(A) Negatively skewed
(B) Positively skewed
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neutral in nature

73. The shift in the relative timing of two developmental processes from one generation
to the next

(A) Heterometry
(B) Heterochrony
(C) Heterotypy
(D) Heterotopy

74. Principal CAMs or adhesion receptors in hemidesmosomes

(A) Integrin
(B) Cadherins
(C) Occludin
(D) Connexins

75. RNA polymerases I synthesis

(A) SiRNA
(B) tRNA
(C) Only pre-rRNA
(D) mRNAs and small nuclear RNAs

76. The first mammalian apoptotic gene to be cloned

(A) Caspase 3
(B) Apaf-1
(C) Bcl2
(D) CED 4

77. Human papillomavirus (HPV) encodes three oncogenic proteins. The protein that
activates the PDGF receptor

(A) E7
(B) E5
(C) E6
(D) E2

78. The dietary precursor of Coenzyme biocytin in mammals

(A) Riboflavin
(B) Biotin
(C) Pantothenic acid
(D) Folate

79. The hormone that break the dormancy of seeds and buds

(A) Cytokinins
(B) Abscisic acid
(C) Gibberellins
(D) Auxin

80. Powdery mildews in plants are caused by

(A) Bacteria
(B) Nematode
(C) Fungi
(D) Virus

81. Which one the following techniques enable us to observe the sample in its native
hydrated state without fixing or heavy metal staining?

(A) Cryo-electron microscopy
(B) Immunoelectron microscopy
(C) REM
(D) Both (A) and (B)

82. Which of the following is an example of neutral stain?

(A) Giesma stain
(B) Congo red
(C) Malachite green
(D) Basic fuschsin

83. Identify the stage of mitosis where daughter cell returns to the interphase

(A) Anaphase
(B) Telophase
(C) Metaphase
(D) Prophase

84. Difference in beak shape of Galapagos finches is a classic example of

(A) Divergent evolution
(B) Convergent evolution
(C) Co evolution
(D) Iterative evolution

85. Give an example for a cartilaginous fish

(A) Sardine
(B) Tuna
(C) Herrings
(D) Shark

86. Tay - Sachs disease is due to the deficiency

(A) Hexosaminidase A
(B) α Galactosidase A
(C) Arylsulfatase A
(D) Hexosaminidase B

87. Which phylum is commonly known as sponges?

(A) Cnidaria
(B) Porifera
(C) Platyhelminthes
(D) Echinoderms

88. Author of the Origin of Species

(A) Charles Darwin
(B) Dmitri Ivanovsky
(C) Mikhail A Fedonkin
(D) Ludmila Kuprianova

89. Erosion of genetic variation when a new population is established by a small number
of colonist

(A) Genetic drift
(B) Non adaptive evolution
(C) Iterative evolution
(D) Founder effect

90. Which one of the following is a symporter?

(A) Sodium calcium pump
(B) Sodium potassium pump
(C) Sodium hydrogen pump
(D) GLUT 1

FORENSIC SCIENCE

91. The primary duty of the crime scene investigator is to

(A) barricade the crime scene
(B) providing medical assistance to the injured at the crime scene
(C) photographing viable evidence
(D) collecting the evidence

92. In DNA extraction, …………… is included for chelating the …………… ions
needed for enzymes …………… to prevent degradation of DNA.
2+
(A) chelating agent, Mg , ribonuclease
2+
(B) EDTA, Mg , deoxyribonuclease
2+
(C) enzyme, Mg , deoxyribonuclease
2+
(D) EDTA, Ca , deoxyribonuclease

93. For the analysis of foetal drug exposure, which of the following matrix can be
preferred?

(A) Meconium
(B) Blood
(C) Vomit
(D) Colostrum

94. Which among the following is the earliest putrefaction change?

(A) Marbling
(B) Rigor mortis
(C) Greenish discoloration of right iliac fossa
(D) Nystagmus

95. In rifled firearms, the following types of grooves are seen

(A) Circular
(B) Straight
(C) Spiral
(D) Both (B) and (C)

96. X knows Y is suffering from a particular disease in which he can die if given a simple
blow. X causes a simple blow to Y with an intention to cause bodily injury. Y dies. X
is guilty of

(A) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(B) grievous hurt
(C) murder
(D) simple hurt

97. THC is a constituent of which of the following?

(A) Dhatura
(B) Nux Vomica
(C) Cannabis sativa
(D) Oleander

98. Arrange the test methods of blood in the correct order

1. Absorption elution
2. Benzidine
3. Takayama test
4. Visual examination

(A) 2, 3, 4, 1
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 4, 2, 3, 1
(D) 4, 2, 1, 3

99. Match the following.

a. TLC 1. Bullet
b. Gel electrophoresis 2. Petroleum products
c. GLC 3. Ink analysis
d. Comparison microscope 4. DNA

(A) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
(C) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(D) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

100. Vitriolage is a term associated with criminal throwing of harmful substances to
disfigure a person. Which of the following is most suitable with the term?

(A) Sulphuric Acid
(B) Nitric Acid
(C) Cashew nut Oil
(D) Any corrosive chemical

101. Which among the following CFSL is not under direct control of directorate of
forensic science services?
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Hyderabad

102. Cephalic index is used to estimate following parameter of identification

(A) age
(B) race
(C) sex
(D) stature

103. Interpolation is defined as

(A) extraction of something of different nature from something else
(B) extraction of something of similar nature from something else
(C) insertion of something of a different nature into something else
(D) insertion of something of similar nature into something else

104. Electrostatic development apparatus (EDSA) is used to study indented

(A) handwriting
(B) fingerprints
(C) foot prints
(D) tyre marks

105. To visualize invisible hand writing the property used is

(A) effervescence
(B) florescence
(C) luminescence
(D) None of the above

106. Gooping, Beaded appearance, Burr striations, skipping are terms used in relation to
writing with

(A) ball pen
(B) gel pen
(C) hi tech point pen
(D) ink pen

107. DNA fingerprinting uses

(A) eastern blot
(B) northern blot
(C) southern blot
(D) western blot

108. Denaturation, annealing and extension are integral steps of

(A) fingerprinting
(B) polymerase chain reaction
(C) superimposition
(D) None of the above

109. The diameter of a 12 bore gun is

(A) 0.723 ''
(B) 0.727 ''
(C) 0.729 ''
(D) 0.731 ''

110. Optical component of UV spectrometer is made up of

(A) glass
(B) quartz
(C) paper
(D) plastic

111. Which of the following survey method is used in investigation of air crash disaster?

(A) Strip method
(B) Spiral method
(C) Wheel method
(D) Zonal method

112. Confirmation of menstrual blood stain is done by

(A) Fibrin degradation product
(B) Isoenzyme marker
(C) Protein marker
(D) Restriction enzymes

113. Kerosene is analysed using standards as per

(A) IS 2796-2000
(B) IS 1459-1974
(C) IS 1460-2000
(D) IS 2796-1974

114. Tube test, press test, starch-iodine test, Phadebas reagents are used for testing stains
due to

(A) blood
(B) saliva
(C) semen
(D) urine

115. ‘Sankhya’ poisoning is due to

(A) aconite
(B) arsenic
(C) mercury
(D) strychnine

116. Gustafson’s method include all except

(A) attrition
(B) cementum apposition
(C) dentition
(D) root resorption

117. Which of the following fibre shows scales?

(A) Wool
(B) Cotton
(C) Linen
(D) Silk

118. The sequence of post-mortem changes in a cadaver includes

(A) rigor mortis, primary flaccidity, secondary flaccidity, marbling
(B) primary flaccidity, secondary flaccidity, rigor mortis, marbling
(C) marbling, secondary flaccidity, primary flaccidity, rigor mortis
(D) primary flaccidity, rigor mortis, secondary flaccidity, marbling

119. Seminal stains are not detected using

(A) Barberio’s test
(B) Florence Test
(C) Hematin test
(D) Acid Phosphatase test

120. The technique, which requires antibodies that bind tightly to the drug of interest and
only weakly or not at all to other substances

(A) Chromatography
(B) Immunoassay
(C) Micro diffusion test
(D) Spectroscopy

COMPUTER SCIENCE

121. The brain of any computer system is ……………

(A) Memory
(B) ALU
(C) CU
(D) CPU

122. Which one of the data structure in non-linear?

(A) List
(B) Stack
(C) Queue
(D) Graph

123. If x is an array of integer, then the value of &x[i] is same as

(A) &x[i – 1] + sizeof (int)
(B) x + sizeof (int) * i
(C) x+i
(D) None of the above

124. A one dimensional array A has indices 1....75. Each element is a string and takes up
three memory words. The array is stored starting at location 1120 decimal. The
starting address of A[49] is

(A) 1167
(B) 1164
(C) 1264
(D) 1169

125. The communication mode that supports two-way traffic but only one direction at a
time is

(A) simplex
(B) duplex
(C) half duplex
(D) multiplex

126. If digital data rate of 9600 bps is encoded using 8-level phase shift keying (PSK)
method, the modulation rate is

(A) 1200 bands
(B) 3200 bands
(C) 4800 bands
(D) 9600 bands

127. When a host knows its physical address but not its IP address, it can use ……………

(A) RARP
(B) ARP
(C) IGMP
(D) ICMP

128. In SQL, which command is used to select only one copy of each set of duplicable
rows

(A) SELECT DISTINCT
(B) SELECT UNIQUE
(C) SELECT DIFFERENT
(D) All of the above

129. DBMS follows the concepts of Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and ……………

(A) Dependency
(B) Durability
(C) Integrity
(D) Exchangeability

130. A …………… DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and a
network server.

(A) Network
(B) Relational
(C) Client Server
(D) Hierarchical

131. IPv6 provides …………… unique IP addresses
38
(A) 3.4 × 10
38
(B) 2.4 × 10
36
(C) 3.4 × 10
36
(D) 2.4 × 10

132. System implementation phase entails

(A) system checkouts
(B) pilot run
(C) parallel runs
(D) All of the above

133. The advantage of binary files over text files is that

(A) it is compact
(B) it can be accessed faster
(C) they are more reliable
(D) All of the above

134. If cat x. prints garbage. Then x is probably a

(A) data file
(B) binary file
(C) text file
(D) source file

135. The quality of an image depends on

(A) number of pixel used by image
(B) number of line used by image
(C) number of resolution used by image
(D) None of the above

136. In raster scan display, the frame buffer holds ……………

(A) line drawing commands
(B) scanning instructions
(C) image resolution
(D) intensity information

137. MYCIN is ……………

(A) a robot
(B) a natural language processing system
(C) an expert system
(D) a computer game

138. The initial value of the semaphore that allows only one of the many processes to enter
their critical sections, is

(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 16
(D) 0

139. Daisy chain is a device for

(A) connecting a number of devices to a controller
(B) connecting a number of controllers to a device
(C) interconnecting a number of devices to a number of controllers
(D) All of the above

140. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with

(A) deadlock prevention
(B) deadlock avoidance
(C) deadlock recovery
(D) mutual exclusion

141. A compiler for a high-level language that runs on one machine and produces code for
a different machine is called is

(A) optimizing compiler
(B) one pass compiler
(C) cross compiler
(D) multi-pass compiler

142. Which of the following tag is used to mark a beginning of paragraph?

(A) <TD>
(B) <br>
(C) <P>
(D) <TR>

143. A relation that is reflexive, symmetric and transitive is called …………… relation.

(A) closure
(B) positive
(C) equivalence
(D) associatively

144. …………… is utilized to transfer data between disks and memory.

(A) DMA
(B) MDA
(C) AMD
(D) ADM

145. …………… refers to inability of the operating systems to allocate portions of unused
memory.

(A) Hole
(B) Segment
(C) Page
(D) Block

146. Meta-data does not provide data about

(A) the storage format of each data item
(B) various constraints on the data
(C) structure of each file
(D) the size of the disk storage

147. Insert operation on relations can violate which of the following type of constraint?

(A) Key constraints
(B) Entity integrity
(C) Referential integrity
(D) All of the above

148. RAM is

(A) read/write memory
(B) non-volatile memory
(C) fixed memory
(D) only readable memory

149. White box testing is to test

(A) functionality
(B) structure
(C) input and output
(D) behavior

150. Garbage collection is used to

(A) allocate space
(B) keep track of space
(C) collect wastage
(D) reuse unwanted memory

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 625 MSc FORENSIC SCIENCE
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 B 61 D 91 B 121 D
2 B 32 A 62 D 92 B 122 D
3 C 33 D 63 A 93 A 123 A
4 A 34 A 64 A 94 C 124 C
5 C 35 D 65 D 95 D 125 C
6 B 36 A 66 A 96 C 126 B
7 D 37 B 67 A 97 C 127 A
8 B 38 B 68 A 98 C 128 A
9 D 39 C 69 B 99 C 129 B
10 B 40 A 70 A 100 D 130 C
11 C 41 A 71 A 101 B 131 A
12 C 42 D 72 B 102 B 132 A
13 B 43 C 73 B 103 A 133 D
14 A 44 D 74 A 104 A 134 B
15 A 45 C 75 C 105 C 135 A
16 C 46 D 76 C 106 A 136 D
17 A 47 D 77 B 107 C 137 C
18 A 48 B 78 B 108 B 138 B
19 A 49 C 79 C 109 C 139 A
20 A 50 D 80 C 110 B 140 B
21 B 51 B 81 A 111 C 141 C
22 A 52 A 82 A 112 A 142 C
23 B 53 C 83 B 113 B 143 C
24 B 54 D 84 A 114 C 144 A
25 C 55 C 85 D 115 B 145 A
26 B 56 A 86 A 116 C 146 D
27 B 57 B 87 B 117 A 147 D
28 C 58 A 88 A 118 D 148 A
29 D 59 A 89 D 119 C 149 B
30 D 60 D 90 B 120 B 150 D