CUSAT CAT 2021 Question Paper Life Science

LIFE SCIENCE

1. Which of the glycosidic linkages given below occurs between
the two glucose molecules of maltose?
(A) β1, 4
(B) α1, 4
(C) α1, 6
(D) β1, 6

2. In human beings, hyaluronic acid is present in
(A) Vitreous humor
(B) Adipose tissue
(C) Sperm
(D) Gall Bladder

3. Identify the sulphur containing non-essential amino acid among the following

(A) Methionine
(B) Proline
(C) Cysteine
(D) Serine

4. A tertiary protein lacks which of the bonds mentioned below

(A) Hydrogen Bond
(B) van der Waals force
(C) Ionic bond
(D) Hydrophilic interactions

5. Which of these are non-professional antigen presenting cells?

(A) Macrophages
(B) Dendritic cells
(C) Fibroblast
(D) B lymphocytes

6. How many Calcium ions can bind with the Calmodulin protein?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

7. Name the antibiotic which inhibits the synthesis of oligosaccharides?

(A) Tunicamycin
(B) Cephalosporins
(C) Penicillins
(D) Ofloxacin

8. Haematopoiesis process occurs in

(A) Spleen
(B) Bone marrow
(C) Lymph nodes
(D) Thymus gland

9. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Hapten?

(A) It is a complete antigen
(B) It is immunogenic when binds with a carrier lipid
(C) It cannot induce an antibody production by itself
(D) Paracetamol is a typical example for Hapten

10. Identify the bone producing cell

(A) Osteocyte
(B) Osteoblast
(C) Chondrocyte
(D) Chondroblast

11. In rDNA technology, competent cells are produced by using

(A) MgCl2
(B) MnCl2
(C) CaCl2
(D) FeCl2

12. Cyanide inhibits the action of which of the following enzymes?

(A) Malate dehydrogenase
(B) ATP synthase
(C) Cytochrome oxidase
(D) PEP Carboxylase

13. The causative organism of Peptic ulcer is

(A) Helicobacter pylori
(B) Yersinia pestis
(C) Bordetella pertussis
(D) Coxiella burnetii

14. The fungus responsible for Bengal famine is

(A) Cochliobolus miyabeanus
(B) Sphaerulina oryzina
(C) Pyricularia oryzae
(D) Xanthomonas oryzae

15. The sexual stage (teleomorph) of Aspergillus is called as

(A) Emericella
(B) Eurotium
(C) Gibberella
(D) Erysiphe

16. The term ‘meristem’ was first coined by

(A) Julius von Sachs
(B) Karl Friedrich Schmit
(C) Johannes von Hanstein
(D) Carl Wilhelm von Nageli

17. In older stems, the outer light coloured regions are called as

(A) Duramen
(B) Dendrum
(C) Alburnum
(D) Phellem

18. Which enzymes are responsible for the detoxification of organic compounds carried
out by the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

(A) Dehydrogenases
(B) Oxygenases
(C) Nucleases
(D) Ribonucleases

19. Most common local alignment search tool used in DNA databases is

(A) EMBOSS Needle
(B) BLAST
(C) PLAST
(D) MUSCLE

20. Standard deviation is the square root of

(A) Variance
(B) Range
(C) Frequency
(D) Regression

21. Which of the following green algae is parasitic on tea plants?

(A) Desmodesmus sp.
(B) Scenedesmus sp.
(C) Closterium sp.
(D) Cephaleuros sp.

22. Agar, a polysaccharide is obtained from the cell wall of

(A) Gelidiaceae
(B) Porphyra umbilicalis
(C) Coralline algae
(D) Euglenophytes

23. What is common to Polysiphonia (red algae) and Ectocarpus (brown algae)?

(A) Cell wall composition
(B) Pigment constitution
(C) Storage compound
(D) Haplo-diplontic life cycle

24. The storage compound of fungi is

(A) Starch
(B) Glycogen
(C) Chitin
(D) Lignin

25. Ascomycetes are called as ‘sac fungi’ because of

(A) Ascocarp (fruit body)
(B) Ascus (ascospore bearing structure)
(C) Ascospore (reproductive unit)
(D) Heterokaryotic mycelium (plant body)

26. Dolipore septum is present in the members of

(A) Phycomycetes
(B) Ascomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes

27. Identify the heterosporous form from among the following ferns

(A) Adiantum
(B) Nephrolepis
(C) Pteris
(D) Marsilea

28. The spore bearing structure of Psilotum is called as

(A) Sorus
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Synangium
(D) Strobilus

29. Sporophyte developing from gametophyte without the fusion of gametes is known as

(A) Syngamy
(B) Apogamy
(C) Polygamy
(D) Allogamy

30. Which of the following is called as a ‘living fossil’?

(A) Gnetum
(B) Pinus
(C) Ginkgo
(D) Cycas

31. The most common mode of pollination in gymnosperms is

(A) Hydrophily
(B) Anemophily
(C) Entomophily
(D) Zoophily

32. The common blue green algae found in the coralloid root of Cycas is

(A) Nostoc sp.
(B) Spirulina sp.
(C) Chroococcus
(D) Oscillatoria sp.

33. Which of the following types of inflorescence is present in Euphorbia?

(A) Hypanthodium
(B) Cyathium
(C) Helicoid cyme
(D) Capitulum

34. Interpetiolar stipules are very common in the family of

(A) Apocynaceae
(B) Asteraceae
(C) Rubiaceae
(D) Poaceae

35. The economically important plant of Anacardiaceae is

(A) Musa paradisiaca
(B) Mangifera indica
(C) Artocarpus heterophyllous
(D) Areca catechu

36. The activated feeding stage in the life cycle of some protozoans is called as

(A) Merozoite
(B) Sporozoite
(C) Trophozoite
(D) Tachyzoite

37. Which of the following is lacking in Poriferans?

(A) Water vascular system
(B) Circulatory system
(C) Spongocoel
(D) Calcareous spicules

38. Cnidarians reproduce asexually by the process of

(A) Fragmentation
(B) Budding
(C) Binary fission
(D) Amitosis

39. Bioluminescence is exhibited by

(A) Ctenophores
(B) Cnidarians
(C) Poriferans
(D) Protozoans

40. The intermediate host of Fasciola hepaticae is

(A) Pork
(B) Snail
(C) Chicken
(D) Beef

41. Which of these is the characteristic feature of annelids?

(A) Metacentric
(B) Metamorphism
(C) Metagenesis
(D) Metamerism

42. The absorptive surface of intestine is increased in earthworms by

(A) Caecum
(B) Gizzard
(C) Typhlosole
(D) Ileum

43. Book lungs are the common respiratory organ of the class

(A) Myriapoda
(B) Crustacea
(C) Insecta
(D) Arachnida

44. The primitive wingless insects without metamorphosis are represented in

(A) Exopterygota
(B) Apterygota
(C) Endopterygota
(D) Pterygota

45. The balancing organ present in Phylum Mollusca is

(A) Nematocyst
(B) Somatocyst
(C) Statocyst
(D) Blastocyst

46. Which of these is commonly called as shipworm?

(A) Siliqua patula
(B) Kuphus polythamia
(C) Laevicardium elatum
(D) Anomia simplex

47. Which of the following genera is called as ‘Basket star’?

(A) Ophioderma appressum
(B) Ophiothrix angulata
(C) Asteroporpa annulata
(D) Astrophyton muricatum

48. Identify the jawless vertebrate among the following

(A) Petromyzon
(B) Hippocampus
(C) Scoliodon
(D) Pristis

49. Amphioxus possesses light sensitive spots called

(A) Stigma
(B) Floaters
(C) Ocelli
(D) Stemma

50. The migration of adult fish from sea to fresh water for spawning is known as

(A) Catadromous
(B) Diadromous
(C) Monodromous
(D) Anadromous

51. Which of the following animals is ureotelic?

(A) Salamander
(B) Parrot
(C) Toad
(D) Lizard

52. Bones in reptiles are covered by

(A) Collagen
(B) Calcium
(C) Keratin
(D) Phosphorous

53. Which of the following reptiles is devoid of urinary bladder?

(A) Snake
(B) Chameleon
(C) Lizard
(D) Tortoise

54. The bone that helps in the strengthening of thoracic skeleton to withstand the rigors of
flight is

(A) Furculum
(B) Hollow
(C) Synsacrum
(D) Palatine

55. The mammalian muscles which help in breathing are

(A) Intercostal
(B) Diaphragm
(C) Abdominal
(D) Pulmonary

56. Which of the following Indian birds is not endangered?

(A) Sea Gull
(B) Himalayan Quail
(C) Indian Vulture
(D) White Bellied Heron

57. The angiosperm commonly used for genetic experiments is

(A) Mirabilis jalapa
(B) Pisum sativum
(C) Arabidopsis thaliana
(D) Lathyrus odoratus

58. The deficiency of Hexosaminidase A enzyme causes

(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Tay-Sachs disease
(C) Patau Syndrome
(D) Addison’s disease

59. Edwards’ syndrome is caused due to

(A) 18 trisomy
(B) 21 Trisomy
(C) 13 Trisomy
(D) 22 trisomy

60. Which of the following promotes somatic embryogenesis?

(A) Polyamines
(B) Abscisic acid
(C) Nicotinoids
(D) Triazines

61. Phytosiderophores are generally secreted by the plants of the family

(A) Palmae
(B) Cruciferae
(C) Graminae
(D) Orchidaceae

62. The endocrine pineal gland secretes

(A) Melatonin
(B) Melanocyte releasing hormone
(C) Calcitonin
(D) Aldosterone

63. Water in plants is transported by
(A) Xylem
(B) Epidermis
(C) Phloem
(D) Cambium

64. Which of the following is not a component of chlorophyll?

(A) Calcium
(B) Carbon
(C) Magnesium
(D) Hydrogen

65. Number of chromosomes in Down’s syndrome is

(A) 46
(B) 47
(C) 48
(D) 49

66. Human blood is a viscous fluid due to the presence of

(A) Platelets in plasma
(B) Protein in blood
(C) RBC and WBC in blood
(D) Sodium in serum

67. Which fungus is known as 'Green Mold'?

(A) Tricoderma sp.
(B) Rhizopus sp.
(C) Mucor sp.
(D) Penicillium sp.

68. Which tissue of plants conducts food in its body?

(A) Xylem
(B) Phloem
(C) Parenchyma
(D) Selerides

69. The constituent monosaccharide in Chitin is

(A) D-Glucose
(B) D-Xylose
(C) N-acetyl D-glucosamine
(D) D-Galactose

70. An example for aromatic amino acid is

(A) Methionine
(B) Valine
(C) Glycine
(D) Tyrosine

71. Which of these is not a true group of amino acids?

(A) NH2
(B) COOH
(C) CHO
(D) –SH

72. Co-enzyme A is derived from

(A) Thiamin
(B) Vitamin B12
(C) Pantothenic acid
(D) Pyridoxine

73. All steroids originate from

(A) Lanosterol
(B) Squalene
(C) Farnesal
(D) Cholesterol

74. Unit of distance in Linkage map is

(A) Centimeter
(B) Centimendel
(C) Centimorgan
(D) Centimuller

75. The core of the Nucleosome consists of

(A) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
(B) H2A, H2B, H3, H4
(C) H1, H2A, H2B, H3
(D) H1, H2A, H3, H4

76. A condition where one gene influences more than one trait is referred to as

(A) Phenocopy
(B) Pleiotropy
(C) Epistasis
(D) Linkage

77. In which of the following organisms, the environment does not influence
sex determination?

(A) Melandrium album (Plant)
(B) Bonellia viridis (Marine worm)
(C) Agama agama (Lizard)
(D) Chrysema picta (Turtle)

78. Holliday model of chromosome recombination during cross over is of

(A) Copy choice model
(B) Duplication theory model
(C) Torsion theory model
(D) Breakage and reunion model

79. Iojop (ij) gene is an example for maternal inheritance found in

(A) Yeast
(B) Corn
(C) Chlamydomonas
(D) Drosophila

80. The Ziehl–Neelsen staining technique is used for the detection of

(A) Endospores
(B) Capsule
(C) Flagella
(D) Cell wall

81. Which one of the given antibiotics inhibits synthesis of bacterial cell walls?

(A) Penicillin
(B) Rifampin
(C) Tetracyclines
(D) Streptomycin

82. Which is the Nitrogen fixing Cyanobacteria?

(A) Westiellopsis sp.
(B) Plectonema sp.
(C) Oscillatoria sp.
(D) Lynbya sp.

83. Caspases play essential role in

(A) DNA replication
(B) Mutation and recombination
(C) Apoptosis
(D) Antibody synthesis

84. An example for Gap gene is

(A) Evenskipped
(B) Kruppel
(C) Goose-berry
(D) Fushi-tarazu

85. The class of switch gene that controls muscle cell formation in both vertebrates and
invertebrates is

(A) SEP genes
(B) Myo D Genes
(C) Apetala
(D) Bicoid

86. Which sequence is the best to evaluate the phylogeny of the closely related mammals?

(A) Coding sequences
(B) Ribosomal proteins
(C) SINES and LINES
(D) Centromeric and telomeric regions

87. A particular allele can have different effects if it was inherited from a male rather than
a female. This phenomenon is known as

(A) Extranuclear inheritance
(B) Prader Willi syndrome
(C) Sex linkage
(D) Genome imprinting

88. Zinc fingers are classified as

(A) Blood clotting proteins
(B) RNA chaperons
(C) DNA binding proteins
(D) Protein – protein binding motifs

89. Split genes are

(A) Genes with intervening sequences
(B) Genes without intervening sequences
(C) Genes without regulatory sequences
(D) Genes with a part of the sequence on one chromosome and other part of the
gene sequence on another chromosome

90. The region where RNA polymerase binds to promoter in prokaryotes is called

(A) Hogness Box
(B) Pribnow Box
(C) Homeo Box
(D) Shine-Dalgarno Box

91. The absence of sigma factor (σ) in the RNA polymerase affects

(A) Elongation only
(B) Initiation only
(C) Both Initiation and Elongation
(D) Does not affect transcription

92. In lactose operon, which is not true?

(A) Regulator Gene --- Codes for inducer
(B) Operator Gene --- Binding site for RNA polymerase
(C) Structural Gene y --- Encodes permease
(D) Structural gene z --- Encodes β-galactosidase

93. Interaction of acrydine dyes with DNA causes

(A) Alkylation
(B) Intercalation
(C) Dimerization
(D) Cross linking

94. This mutation does not cause a change in any amino acid

(A) Frameshift
(B) Transition
(C) Transversion
(D) Silent

95. An open reading frame is that, which has

(A) No start and stop codons
(B) A start and a stop codon
(C) No start but stop codon
(D) A start but no stop codon

96. RAF protein is a

(A) Serine – threonine protein kinase
(B) Tyrosine kinase
(C) GTPase activity
(D) MAP Kinase

97. During photosynthesis, the process of splitting of water to release hydrogen and
electron occurs during

(A) light independent reactions
(B) light dependent reactions
(C) carbon fixation
(D) the regeneration of Rubilose bis phosphate(RuBP)

98. Which of the following activate Pyruvate carboxylase in gluconeogenesis?

(A) Acetyl CoA
(B) Fructose 2,6 bis phosphate
(C) ADP
(D) ATP

99. Mitochondria and Chloroplasts carry out Oxidative phosphorylation and
Photophosphorylation by

(A) Conformational coupling
(B) Sliding filaments
(C) High energy intermediate coupling
(D) Chemiosmotic coupling

100. Which of the transgenic animals have both knock-in and knock-out genes?

(A) Hamster
(B) Sheep
(C) Mouse
(D) Guinea Pig

101. The vector system which is suitable for cloning a DNA fragment larger than 100kb;

(A) pUC 19
(B) pBR 322
(C) bacterial artificial chromosome
(D)  phage

102. Transfer of RNA on to the nylon membrane is called

(A) Southern blotting
(B) Western blotting
(C) Northern blotting
(D) tRNA binding

103. The method used to identify the coding sequence of the gene is

(A) DNA sequencing
(B) cDNA sequencing
(C) Restriction mapping
(D) Linkage mapping

104. Which of the following metabolite intermediates is involved in the biosynthesis of
phenylalanine and tyrosine in bacteria?

(A) Chorismate
(B) Pantothenate
(C) Alpha ketobutyrate
(D) Indole 3- Phosphate

105. Attenuation was first discovered in

(A) Lac operon
(B) Arabinose operon
(C) trp operon
(D) Gal operon

106. The region of the chromosome which takes up stain strongly during Giemsa banding
technique is

(A) GC rich regions
(B) AT rich regions
(C) Whole chromosome
(D) Only centromeric region

107. The telomeric repeat sequence in humans is

(A) TTAAGG
(B) TTGGGG
(C) TTTAGG
(D) TTAGGG

108. Alkaptonuria is a condition due to the failure to produce the enzyme

(A) Tyrosinase
(B) Homogentisic acid oxidase
(C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(D) Alkaline phosphatase

109. The enzyme catalase occurs in

(A) Lysosome
(B) Sphaerosome
(C) Peroxisome
(D) Peroxisome and Glyoxysome

110. Glyoxisomes are predominantly present in

(A) Leaf cells
(B) Oil seeds
(C) Root
(D) Meristematic cells

111. Grana is present in

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Chloroplasts
(C) Golgi bodies
(D) Ribosomes

112. Cellulose microfibrils get bound to pectin of matrix through

(A) Hemicellulose
(B) Lignin
(C) Peptidoglycan
(D) Glycoprotein

113. In plant cells, the microbodies are known as

(A) Glycosomes
(B) Glyoxysomes
(C) Glycogenomes
(D) Glycogen granules

114. The non-condensed chromosomes which extend during interphase are called

(A) L-chromosomes
(B) Heterochromosomes
(C) M-chromosomes
(D) Euchromosomes

115. The first part of interphase is called

(A) Synthetic phase
(B) G1 phase
(C) G2 phase
(D) M phase

116. In human, mature sperms are stored in the

(A) Epididymis
(B) Seminiferous tubules
(C) Vas deferens
(D) Seminal vesicles

117. Oogenesis begins with a diploid germ cell called

(A) Ontogeny
(B) Karyogamy
(C) Isogamy
(D) Oogonium

118. After how many instars, the larva of Drosophila changes into pupa?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Six

119. Diagnostic restriction site can be introduced artificially by

(A) Matched PCR Primer
(B) Mismatched PCR Primer
(C) RADP
(D) AFLP

120. Comparative DNA sequencing is done by using

(A) Plasmid
(B) Ribosomal DNA
(C) Genomic DNA
(D) Phage DNA

121. ‘Steriotaxi’ strategy is used in

(A) Tumor gene therapy
(B) AAV gene therapy
(C) Cold treatment
(D) Retroviral gene therapy

122. The blood bank of human body is

(A) Liver
(B) Spleen
(C) Pancreas
(D) Heart

123. The pace maker in heart is called

(A) Papillary muscle
(B) Purkinje fibres
(C) Sio-atrial node
(D) Atrio-ventricular node

124. The length of human female urethra is about

(A) 2.1 to 3.5 cm
(B) 4.8 to 5.1 cm
(C) 8.2 to 9.2 cm
(D) 10 to 12 cm

125. Hassall’s corpuscles are found in

(A) Thymus gland
(B) Pineal gland
(C) Kidneys
(D) Skin

126. Which of these stimulates sertoli cells for spermiogenesis?

(A) FSH
(B) TSH
(C) ADH
(D) ACTH

127. Diabetes mellitus is related with

(A) Graafian follicles
(B) Peyer’s patches
(C) Islets of Langerhans
(D) Glisson’s capsules

128. Kala-azar is transmitted by

(A) Tse-tse fly
(B) Sandfly
(C) Aedes aegypti
(D) Culex pipiens

129. Pick up the correct combination features of B-DNA.
(A) 66% humidity, right handed, 11 base/turn helix, helix diameter 19
(B) 92% humidity, right handed, 10 base/turn helix, helix diameter 19
(C) 75% humidity, left handed, 9.3 base/turn helix, helix diameter 18
(D) 92% humidity, right handed, 12 base/turn helix, helix diameter 23

130. How many genetically different gametes can be made by an individual of genotype
AaBbccDDEe, assuming they are independently assorting?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 32

131. In prokaryotic cells, the ribosome binds to the 5’ end of the mRNA at a sequence
which is popularly known as

(A) Kozak sequence
(B) Shine-Dalgarno sequence
(C) Promoter region
(D) Polymerase enzyme binding site

132. Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disease caused by a single amino acid substitution in
each β chain of haemoglobin. So, the substitution is between which two amino acids?
6 6
(A) Gly -Lys
5 4
(B) Asp -Asn
6 6
(C) Glu -Val
4 5
(D) His -Lys

133. Plant shoot bends towards a light source as a result of

(A) The increased amount of food synthesized by the leaves facing the light
(B) An unequal auxin distribution in their shoot apex
(C) The necessity of light for transpiration
(D) Increased elasticity on the light-facing side

134. Which non-covalent bond is responsible for the high melting and boiling points of
water?

(A) H-bond
(B) Peptide bond
(C) Hydrophobic bond
(D) Van der Waals force

135. Malignant cancer cells have all of the following properties except

(A) Inhibition of angiogenesis
(B) Resistance to apoptosis
(C) Cellular immortality
(D) Unregulated cell division

136. Each individual antigenic determinants of the variable region of the antibody is
referred to as

(A) Idiotope
(B) Agretope
(C) Epitope
(D) Paratope

137. Amphibian metamorphosis is controlled by

(A) Thyroid hormone
(B) Oxytocin
(C) Vasopressin
(D) Gastrointestinal hormone

138. The Shannon-Wiener index is useful to measure

(A) Species diversity in an ecological community
(B) Rate of biomass transfer in food chain
(C) Visibility in smog polluted areas
(D) Wetland pollution levels

139. Adjacent plant cells communicate with each other through cytoplasmic connections
called

(A) Plasmodesmata
(B) Desmosome
(C) Gap junction
(D) Septate junction

140. Which cofactor is present in the enzyme glutathione peroxidase?

(A) Mo
(B) Se
+
(C) K
2+
(D) Zn

141. The component present only in the Ti plasmid and not in any other
binary vector system is

(A) Vir gene
(B) LB, RB
(C) Opine Gene
(D) Gus gene

142. Genetic disorder caused by mutation in the hexosaminidase enzyme A which
hydrolyzes the GM2 to GM3 during membrane lipid turnover leads to

(A) Tay-Sachs syndrome
(B) Fabryi disease
(C) Gauche’s disease
(D) Niemann-Pick disease

143. What is a sensitive technique to find out the number of template molecules originally
present in a PCR reaction?

(A) AP PCR
(B) Real time PCR
(C) Hot start PCR
(D) Reverse transcriptase PCR

144. A laboratory technique in Electrophysiology used to study ionic currents in individual
living cells

(A) ECG
(B) Patch clamp technique
(C) EEG
(D) Single neuron recording

145. The statistical test which can be utilized to validate the statement “People having high
cholesterol suffer more from hypertension”

(A) Students ‘t’ test
(B) Pearson correlation coefficient
(C) ANOVA
(D) Regression analysis

146. Among the following, which is responsible for nerve action potential?

(A) Out-flux of Na+ and K+ ion
(B) Influx of Na+ and outflux of K+
(C) Influx of Na+ and K+ ions
(D) Out-flux of Na+ and influx of K+ ions

147. Which mineral ion plays important role in functioning of photosystem II?

(A) Magnesium
(B) Molybdenum
(C) Iron
(D) Manganese

148. Muscular dystrophy, a devastating disease that cripple and kills children is caused by

(A) Mutation in dystrophin
(B) Mutation in band 3 protein
(C) Mutation in glycoprotein A
(D) Mutation in ankyrin

149. A Trickling filter is used for

(A) Antibiotic production
(B) Beer production
(C) Citric acid manufacturing
(D) Waste water treatment

150. Which of the following is used as a fusogen?

(A) Polyethylene glycol
(B) CaMV
(C) Sendai Virus
(D) Adenovirus

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 611 LIFE SCIENCE
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 B 61 C 91 B 121 A
2 A 32 A 62 A 92 B 122 B
3 C 33 B 63 A 93 B 123 C
4 D 34 C 64 A 94 D 124 B
5 C 35 B 65 B 95 B 125 A
6 D 36 C 66 B 96 A 126 A
7 A 37 B 67 D 97 B 127 C
8 B 38 B 68 B 98 A 128 B
9 C 39 A 69 C 99 D 129 B
10 B 40 B 70 D 100 C 130 C
11 C 41 D 71 C 101 C 131 B
12 C 42 C 72 C 102 C 132 C
13 A 43 D 73 B 103 B 133 B
14 A 44 B 74 C 104 A 134 A
15 A 45 C 75 B 105 C 135 A
16 D 46 B 76 B 106 B 136 D
17 C 47 D 77 A 107 D 137 A
18 B 48 A 78 D 108 B 138 A
19 B 49 C 79 B 109 D 139 A
20 A 50 D 80 D 110 B 140 B
21 D 51 C 81 A 111 B 141 C
22 A 52 C 82 A 112 A 142 A
23 D 53 A 83 C 113 B 143 B
24 B 54 A 84 B 114 D 144 D
25 B 55 B 85 B 115 B 145 B
26 C 56 A 86 B 116 A 146 B
27 D 57 C 87 D 117 D 147 A
28 C 58 B 88 C 118 C 148 A
29 B 59 A 89 A 119 B 149 D
30 D 60 A 90 B 120 B 150 A