CUSAT CAT 2021 Question Paper LLM

LLM
(FINAL)

PROFICIENCY IN ENGLISH AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Direction: Choose the word from the following which best
expresses the meaning of the word given in capital letters.

1. QUIESCENT
(A) Naughty
(B) Innocent
(C) Inactive
(D) Intelligent

2. HARBINGER

(A) Messenger
(B) Steward
(C) Forerunner
(D) Pilot

3. AFFABLE

(A) Friendly
(B) Cheerful
(C) Helpful
(D) Neutral

4. MITIGATE

(A) Increase
(B) Swim
(C) Lessen
(D) Drown

5. COMPUNCTION

(A) Wonder
(B) Regret
(C) Anger
(D) Confusion

Direction: Out of the four alternatives choose the one
which can be substituted for the given words/sentences

6. What is the study of insects?

(A) Entomology
(B) Zoology
(C) Phrenology
(D) Geriatrics

7. Animals that eat flesh are called

(A) omnivorous
(B) carnivorous
(C) amphibian
(D) herbivorous

8. A person who is bad in spelling is called

(A) cartographer
(B) philatelist
(C) cacographist
(D) numismatist

9. A person who opposes war or use of military force

(A) Fatalist
(B) Narcissist
(C) Pacifist
(D) Fascist

10. One who talks continuously?

(A) Impecunious
(B) loquacious
(C) Voracious
(D) Avaricious

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

The past decade has upset many preconceptions above development and this, more than
anything else, makes it difficult to be overly definite about what the next decade has in store.
But there are a few things that one can assert with some confidence. First, education, health
and productive employment are crucial both for growth and for equity. We have tendered to
assume that all of these are the consequences of rapid economic growth and that only growth
can generate the resources required for these purposes. But increasingly, it appears that these
are better seen as the causes rather than as consequences of development. Virtually every
case of successful development involves a prior improvement in literacy, technical skills,
health status and access to productive work.

Second, technological competence is the most important resource endowment and it explains
a far larger proportion of growth in output and trade than more conventional factors like
natural resources or capital accumulation. The competence required is not just in research. In
fact technological dynamism in the factory and farm is more important than the presence of
large research establishment.

Third, the environmental imperative can no longer be ignored. Today as an international
issue, it is second only to disarmament. Nationally, the developmental consequences of
environmental neglect are increasingly obvious.

In the Indian context there are at least two further factors which reinforce the above
propositions. The first is population growth. Given the pace of expansion of the population
and the workforce, human resource development acquires an added urgency. Population
growth is also one, but not necessarily the most important factor, which underlines
environmental stress in rural and urban areas. The second factor is that as a large country we
cannot carve out an independent position in the global system without building up a
substantial capacity for self-reliant growth. The acquisition of technical competences is
crucial for this purpose.

Until now, we have tended to treat human resource development, technology issues and
environment as subsidiary to the main task of planning. The thrust has been on: quantitative
expansion of infrastructure and production with the focus on production targets like tons of
steel, kWh of electricity etc, capacity target like road length, rail kilometer age; and coverage
targets like number of schools and students, number of villages electrified etc, catching with
known technologies, full use of natural resources, maximum mobilization of financial
resources.

11. What seems to be the purpose of the author in writing this passage?

(A) To appreciate the steps taken by our Government in the past and doubts
of future
(B) To show how the policy makers have failed
(C) A review of world affairs with special emphasis on developed countries
(D) Review of the past with a view to evolve positive directions for future

12. According to the author which of the following is a less important factor resulting in
environmental stress in rural and urban areas?

(A) Increase in capital accumulation
(B) Rapid economic growth
(C) Rate of growth of population
(D) Availability of productive employment

13. According to the author, at the national level, with passage of time the effects of
which of the following are being felt?

(A) Expansion of work force of high quality
(B) Lack of attention and action for protecting environmental wealth
(C) Reduction in growth rate of population
(D) Progressive degradation of technological competence in urban areas

14. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?

(A) Optimum self-reliance is the need of the day
(B) We will have bright future by only catching up of known technologies
(C) We have to now emphasize aspects of human resource development
(D) Technological competence has to be given due priority over more
conventional factors

15. What is crucial for building up a substantial capacity for self reliant growth?

(A) The acquisition of technical competence
(B) The acquisition of employability skills
(C) Providing subsidies to industry
(D) Developing agriculture

Direction: Fill in the blanks with the correct answer selected from the choice given
below.

16. He has no special liking …………… Mathematics.

(A) for
(B) about

(C) in
(D) on

17.

Direction: Fill in the blanks with the correct answer selected from the choice
given below.

He is suspicious …………… my motive.

(A) with
(B) of
(C) for
(D) about
18.

Direction: Fill in the blanks with the correct answer selected from the choice
given below.

Bandits quarrelled …………… the division of the booty.

(A) upon
(B) on
(C) over
(D) for

19.

Direction: Fill in the blanks with the correct answer selected from the choice given
below.

If you had informed me, I …………… cautious.

(A) would be
(B) had been
(C) would have been
(D) could have been

20.

Direction: Choose the word or set of words for each blank
that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

………… the death of one of the contestants, the election to the seat has been
……………

(A) Because of, conducted
(B) Inspite of, stopped
(C) Despite, postponed
(D) Owing to, countermanded

21. Direction: Choose the word or set of words for each blank
that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

If you feel …………… by your defect, you will not be able to …………… it.

(A) excited, succeed
(B) threatened, maintain
(C) angry, cure
(D) embarrassed, overcome

22. Select the correct form of passive voice.

Have they done the work?
(A) Have the work been done?
(B) Has the work been done?
(C) Have the work done?
(D) Have they finished work?

23. Select the correct question tag.

Dev didn’t bowl well, ……………?

(A) did he?
(B) didn’t he?
(C) doesn’t he?
(D) was he?

24. Three of four words given below are spelt wrongly.
Select the word that is spelt correctly.

(A) congregation
(B) cangregation
(C) congragetion
(D) congragation

25. Three of four words given below are spelt wrongly.
Select the word that is spelt correctly.

(A) indispensabel
(B) indispanseble
(C) indispensable
(D) indispenseble

26. The inexpensive and commonly used variety of glass is called soda glass.
It is called so because

(A) was used initially for making bottles of soda(carbonated drink)
(B) was initially used for storing sodium carbonate
(C) is made using soda(sodium carbonate)
(D) is made using soda lime

27. The Union Government has appointed a new committee to review the Income Tax
Act of 1961 which is headed by

(A) Arvind Subramanian
(B) Mansi Kedia
(C) Arbind Modi
(D) Girish Ahuja

28. What is the name of the latest satellite to be launched by ISRO in the following
GISAT Series?

(A) GISAT-1
(B) GISAT-3
(C) GISAT-7
(D) GISAT-11

29. What is the new brand name of India’s premium Cotton in the World Cotton Trade?

(A) Bharat Cotton
(B) Incredible Cotton
(C) Kasturi Cotton
(D) Maharaja Cotton

30. When was Patna Lawan renamed as Gandhi Maidan?

(A) During Quit India Movement
(B) During Anti-Simon Commission Rally
(C) During Champaran Satyagraha
(D) On the eve of Independence

31. As of 2020, how many languages in India are given the status of ‘Classical language’?

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

32. What is the theme of the 2021 National Science Day?

(A) Future of STI: Impact on Education Skills and Work
(B) Women in Science
(C) Science for the People, and People for the Science
(D) Science and Technology for a sustainable future

33. "Don't Laugh: We are Police", this book was compiled by

(A) K. P. S. Gill
(B) Bishan Lal Vohra
(C) Shanti Swaroop
(D) Kiren Bedi

34. The driest location on Earth is in which country?

(A) Kenya
(B) Chile
(C) Congo
(D) Libya

35. According to Marx 'the Dictatorship of the proletariat' signifies

(A) a transitional state
(B) an ideal state
(C) a liberal state
(D) an autocratic state

36. Who was the first Indian in space?

(A) Vikram Ambalal
(B) Ravish Malhotra
(C) Rakesh Sharma
(D) Nagapathi Bhat

37. Who was the first Indian scientist to win a Nobel Prize?

(A) C.V. Raman
(B) Amartya Sen
(C) Hargobind Khorana
(D) Subramanian Chandrashekar

38. Who was the first Indian woman to win the Miss World title?

(A) Aishwarya Rai
(B) Sushmita Sen
(C) Reita Faria
(D) Diya Mirza

39. Who was the first Indian to win the Booker Prize?

(A) Dhan Gopal Mukerji
(B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Aravind Adiga

40. Who is the first woman to head a public sector bank?

(A) Arundhati Battacharya
(B) Shikha Sharma
(C) Chanda Kochar
(D) Usha Ananthasubramanyan

41. Where is Bose institute?

(A) Dispur
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mumbai
(D) New Delhi

42. World Bank headquarters located at

(A) Switzerland
(B) Washington DC
(C) New York
(D) Paris

43. MUDRA bank is as

(A) to boost imports
(B) provide tax free interest to investors
(C) flush out black money from the economy
(D) encourage entrepreneurship in India

44. Who built the Delhi Jama Masjid?

(A) Jahangir
(B) Akbar
(C) Imam Bukhari
(D) Shah Jahan

45. Name the former ISRO scientist who was recently awarded the Padma Bhushan?

(A) Nambi Narayanan
(B) Vikram Sarabhai
(C) B Sreekumar
(D) Raman Srivastava

46. The Union Cabinet has recently approved what percent of reservation for
‘economically backward upper castes’ in government jobs?

(A) 15 percent
(B) 10 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 8 percent

47. Who is the Attorney General of India?

(A) K. K. Venugopal
(B) Gurdeep Singh
(C) Amar Abrol
(D) N.K. Singh

48. Who is the President, National Green Tribunal (NGT) of India?

(A) Justice B N Srikrishna
(B) Justice A. K. Goel
(C) Justice Ranjan Gogoi
(D) Justice R K Agrawal

49. Provision “Constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes” is
related with
st
(A) 101 Amendment
nd
(B) 102 Amendment
rd
(C) 103 Amendment
th
(D) 100 Amendment

50. Which city has emerged as the top city in the Ease of Living Index 2020 in the
Million+ category?

(A) Chennai
(B) Bengaluru
(C) New Delhi
(D) Mumbai

ANALYTICAL REASONING CAPABILITY

51. A trader mixes 30 kg of rice at Rs. 27 per kg with 35 kg of rice of other variety at
Rs. 38 per kg and sells the mixture at Rs. 38 per kg. His profit percent is (approx)

(A) 5%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 10%
(D) 15.5%

52. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks
more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks.
The marks obtained by them are

(A) 40 and 31
(B) 41 and 32
(C) 42 and 33
(D) 43 and 34

53. If a person walks at 18 km/hr instead of 8 km/hr, he would have walked 30 km more.
The actual distance travelled by him is

(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40

54. A library has an average of 590 visitors on Sundays and 260 on other days. The
average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is

(A) 350
(B) 425
(C) 375
(D) 315

55. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket
keeper is 3 years older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of
the remaining players is one year less than the average age of the whole team.
What is the average of the team?

(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 26

56. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age when she was born, while her mother
was 36 years old when her brother four years younger to her was born.
What is the difference between the ages of her parents?

(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

57. 14 men and 16 women take 5 days to complete a work and 12 men and
6 women take 10 days to complete the same work. In how many days
will 20 men and 10 women complete the work?

(A) 6 days
(B) 5 days
(C) 4 days
(D) 7 days

58. A farmer wishes to start a 100 sq. m. rectangular vegetable garden. Since he has only
30-meter barbed wire, he fences three sides of the garden letting his house compound
wall act as the fourth side fencing. Then find the dimension of the garden.

(A) 10 m × 5 m
(B) 15 m × 5 m
(C) 20 m × 5 m
(D) 25 m × 5 m

59. Find the missing term

165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ?

(A) 100
(B) 225
(C) 335
(D) 435

60. If MACHINE is coded as 20-8-10-15-16-21-12, how will you write AEROPLANE?

(A) 8-12-25-24-23-19-8-21-6
(B) 8-12-25-22-23-19-8-21-12
(C) 7-11-24-23-24-21-10-13-14
(D) 7-11-24-24-26-20-14-9-7

61. Fill the blank in the end of the series.

ZA5, Y4B, XC6, W3D, ...........

(A) VE5
(B) VE7
(C) E7V
(D) V2E

62. Look carefully at the sequence of symbols to find the pattern. Select correct pattern.

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 4

63. Which word could mean "wax statue"? If ,
‘godabim’ means kidney stones
‘romzbim’ means kidney beans
‘romzbako’ means wax beans

(A) godaromz
(B) lazbim
(C) wasibako
(D) romzpeo

64. Find the Missing letter.
L:O::D :?

(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z

65. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.

(A) 13
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

At a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives: CEO,
president, vice president, secretary, and treasurer with the spaces lined up in that order. The
parking lot guard can tell at a glance if the cars are parked correctly by looking at the colour
of the cars. The cars are yellow, green, purple, red, and blue, and the executive’s names are
Alice, Bert, Cheryl, David, and Enid. The car in the first space is red. A blue car is parked
between the red car and the green car. The car in the last space is purple. The secretary drives
a yellow car. Alice's car is parked next to David's. Enid drives a green car. Bert's car is parked
between Cheryl's and Enid's. David's car is parked in the last space.

66. Who is the secretary?

(A) David
(B) Alice
(C) Bert
(D) Cheryl

67. What colour is the vice president's car?

(A) Yellow
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Purple

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

There is a group of friends – Ramesh, Suresh, Ritesh, Paresh, Mitesh, Mangesh,
Dinesh studying in the same class. Each one of them speak a different language- English,
Marathi, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil and Malayalam. Each of them secured different
marks in the examination. Ritesh who scored second highest marks speaks neither English
nor Gujarati. Mitesh who secured the least marks speaks neither Tamil nor Marathi. Paresh
who speaks Hindi, secured more marks than Dinesh and Suresh. Suresh speaks Bengali.
Ramesh secured more marks than Paresh. Suresh’s marks are more than Mitesh but less than
Dinesh. Ramesh speaks Malayalam and has not scored the highest marks. The one who
speaks Gujarati has secured the highest marks. Ritesh does not speak Marathi.

68. In which language does Dinesh speak?

(A) Hindi
(B) Tamil
(C) English
(D) Marathi

69. In which language does Mitesh speak?

(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Gujrati
(D) None of the above

70. Who secured third lowest marks?

(A) Dinesh
(B) Ramesh
(C) Paresh
(D) Cannot be determined

71. Who speaks Gujarati?

(A) Ritesh
(B) Mitesh
(C) Paresh
(D) Mangesh

72. When all the students are arranged according to their marks in descending order,
what will be the position of Ramesh from the top?

(A) Fifth
(B) Sixth
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

th
73. In a class of 39 students the ratio of boys and girls is 2:1. Radha ranks 15 among
th
all the students from top and 8 among girls from bottom. How many boys are
there below Radha?

(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 14
(D) 15

74. Among the five students M is heavier than K and T. B is lighter than T and P. K is not
the lightest. Who among them is the lightest?

(A) K
(B) T
(C) M
(D) B

75. In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54, the missing number ‘X’ is

(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 32

76. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence?
9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 4

77. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040. They used
it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y?

(A) Rs. 290
(B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360
(D) Rs. 440

700
78. What is the remainder when 7 is divided by 100?

(A) 1
(B) 61
(C) 41
(D) 21

79. Some friends planned to contribute equally to jointly buy a CD player. However, two
of them decided to withdraw at the last minute. As a result, each of the others had to
shell out one rupee more than what they had planned for. If the price (in Rs.) of the
CD player is an integer between 1000 and 1100, find the number of friends who
actually contributed?

(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 44
(D) 46

80. Which of the following statements say the same thing?

(i) “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind)
(ii) “I am a teacher” (said by Binod)
(iii) “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father)
(iv) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister)
(v) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister)
(vi) “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy)
Choose the correct answer from the code given below.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (ii) and (vi)
(D) (v) and (vi)

Directions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

After facing yet another World Cup debacle, the Board of Cricket Control in India
(BCCI) is in search of a new coach for the team. It shortlisted five persons - Anshuman,
Buchanen, John ,Whatmore and Chappel. Each of them is from a different country among
Australia, India, Japan, Pakistan and Canada, not necessarily in that order. At present, each of
them is coaching the team of a different country among Australia, Bangladesh, China, Wales
and Bermuda, not necessarily in that order. The following details were also observed about
their particulars:

(i) For any person, each of his three particulars - his name, the name of the
country from which he is and the name of the country that he is coaching at
present, starts with a different letter.
(ii) Whatmore is coaching Australia and John is from neither Australia nor
Pakistan.
(iii) Buchanen is not coaching China and the person who is coaching Bermuda is
from Canada.
(iv) Anshuman is neither from Canada nor from Pakistan and also the person from
Pakistan is coaching Bangladesh.

81. Whatmore is from which country?

(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) Canada
(D) Cannot be determined

82. Who is the person from Australia?

(A) Buchanen
(B) John
(C) Whatmore
(D) Cannot be determined

Directions: The question given below is followed by two statements, I and II. Study the
information given in the two statements and assess whether the statements are sufficient to
answer the question and choose the appropriate option from among the choices given below:

83. Two of the three cricketers Pavan, Rajan and Tarun are selected to the national team.
Each of these three persons scored a different number of centuries and a different
number of runs. Further, among these three, Tarun scored the highest number of
centuries. Who among Pavan, Rajan and Tarun is not selected to the national team?
I. The person with the higher number of runs between Tarun and Pavan, is the
person who scored the lesser number of centuries between the two persons
selected.
II. The person with the least number of runs between Rajan and Tarun, is the
person who scored the higher number of centuries between the two persons
selected.

(A) The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot
be answered using the other statement alone
(B) The question can be answered by using either statement alone
(C) The question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be
answered using either statement alone
(D) The question cannot be answered even by using both statements together

84. Triangle ABC is right angled at B. What is the value of AB + BC?

I. Diameter of the circle inscribed in the triangle ABC is 10 cm.
II. Diameter of the circle circumscribing the triangle ABC is 27 cm.

(A) The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot
be answered using the other statement alone
(B) The question can be answered by using either statement alone
(C) The question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be
answered using either statement alone
(D) The question cannot be answered even by using both statements together

85. What percentage of the questions was attempted by Ramya in the exam?

I. 30% of the questions are attempted by both Ramya and Swathi.
th
5
II. The number of questions attempted by Ramya but not by Swathi is of the
8
total number of questions attempted by Ramya.

(A) The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by
the other
(B) The question can be answered by using either statement alone
(C) The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but
cannot be answered by using either statement alone
(D) The question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together

86. Each of Ankit and Bhanu belong to one of the tribes between truth tellers i.e., those
who always speak the truth, and liars i.e., those who always lie. Do both of them
belong to the same tribe?

I. Ankit : I am a liar, only if Bhanu is a truth teller.
II. Bhanu : I am a truth teller, only if Ankit is a liar.

(A) The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by
the other
(B) The question can be answered by using either statement alone
(C) The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but
cannot be answered by using either statement alone
(D) The question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together

87. There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E is below
A and book B is below E. D is above A. Which is at the bottom?

(A) E
(B) B
(C) A
(D) C

88. What will be the next term in the following series?
DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?

(A) AKPO
(B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ
(D) LMRS

89. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West
of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the
same gender. One man is facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to?

(A) East and West
(B) North and West
(C) South and East
(D) None of the above

90. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A – B means A is the brother B; A % B means
A is the father of B and A × B means A is the sister of B, which of the following
shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

(A) Q–N+M×P
(B) P+S×N–Q
(C) P–M+N×Q
(D) Q–S%P

91. In an area 2% families have 5 children each. But 8% have no children at all. Among
the rest of the families 18% have 4 children and 27% have only one child. How many
families live in the area, if 297 families have either 2 or 3 children each?

(A) 550
(B) 600
(C) 850
(D) 725

92. 3 birds fly along the circumference of a jungle. They complete one round in
27 minutes, 45 minutes and 63 minutes respectively. Since they start together,
when will they meet again at the starting position?

(A) 945 minutes
(B) 126 minutes
(C) 135 minutes
(D) 9 hours

th
5
93. A car travelling with of its actual speed covers 42 km in 1hr. 40 mins. 48 secs.
7
Find the actual speed of the car.

6
(A) 17 km/hr
7
(B) 35 km/hr
(C) 25 km/hr
(D) 30 km/hr

94. A cistern is filled by Pipe A and Pipe B together in 2.4 hours. Pipe A alone can fill the
cistern at the rate of 100 litres per hour. Pipe B alone can fill the cistern in 4 hours.
What is the capacity of the cistern?

(A) 1200 litres
(B) 600 litres
(C) 1000 litres
(D) 500 litres

95. Rohan's age is five times Ajay’s and seven-eighteenth of Meena’s age. The sum of the
ages of all three of them is 132 years. How much younger is Ajay to Meena?

(A) 56 years
(B) 83 years
(C) 27 years
(D) Cannot be determined

96. In a room there are 2 green chairs, 3 yellow chairs and 4 blue chairs. In how many
ways can Raj choose 3 chairs so that at least one yellow chair is included?

(A) 3
(B) 30
(C) 64
(D) 84

97. Pointing to Pooja in the photograph, Gita said, “Her daughter's father is son-in-law of
my mother.” How is Gita related to Pooja?

(A) Mother
(B) Aunty
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter in law

Direction : The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact
1, Fact 2, and Fact 3. Then, you are given three more statements (labelled I, II, and
III), and you must determine which of these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the
statements could be true; all of the statements could be true; or none of the statements
could be true. Choose your answer based solely on the information given in the first
three facts.
98.
Fact 1: All dogs like to run.
Fact 2: Some dogs like to swim.
Fact 3: Some dogs look like their masters.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a
fact?
I. All dogs who like to swim look like their masters.
II. Dogs who like to swim also like to run.
III. Dogs who like to run do not look like their masters.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) II and III only
(D) None of the above

99. Fact 1: All hats have brims.
Fact 2: There are black hats and blue hats.
Fact 3: Baseball caps are hats.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following
statements must also be a fact?
I. All caps have brims.
II. Some baseball caps are blue.
III. Baseball caps have no brims.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) II and III only
(D) None of the above

100. Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the
ball. Calvin is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenkins and Burton are side by side
behind Calvin. Zeller is behind Jenkins and Burton. Calvin tries for the tackle but
misses and falls. Burton trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver?

(A) Burton
(B) Zeller
(C) Jenkins

(D) Calvin

LAW RELATED

101. Which section of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 provides that the
guardianship of a child below 5 years of age shall ordinarily be with the mother?

(A) Section 5
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 7
(D) Section 8

102. A proclamation of financial emergency issued under Article 360 of the Constitution of
India shall cease to operate at the expiration of unless the same has been approved by
the resolutions passed by both the houses of Parliament.

(A) 1 month
(B) 45 days
(C) 2 months
(D) 3 months

103. Under which Article of the Constitution of India it has been provided that the
minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case
involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution
shall be five?

(A) Article 132
(B) Article 138
(C) Article 140
(D) Article 145

104. The short title of the Constitution of India is mentioned under

(A) Article 2
(B) Article 393
(C) Article 394
(D) Article 394 A

105. Which Chapter of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is titled ‘Of Certain Relations
Resembling Those Created By Contract’?

(A) Chapter IV
(B) Chapter V
(C) Chapter VI
(D) Chapter VIII

106. Which of the following section has been inserted
by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018?

i. Section 376 DA, IPC
ii. Section 376 DB, IPC
iii. Section 166 A, IPC
iv. Section 354 AB, IPC

(A) Only i and ii
(B) Only i, ii, and iii
(C) Only i, ii, and iv
(D) All of the i, ii, iii, and iv

107. Which of the following is correctly matched?

i. Basudev v. State of Pepsu [1956 AIR 488] – Voluntary intoxication
ii. R v. Govinda(1877) ILR 1 Bom 342 – Difference between Culpable Homicide
and Murder
iii. Section 331 IPC – Voluntarily causing grievous hurt to extort confession
iv. Section 399 IPC – Making preparation to commit dacoity

(A) Only i and ii
(B) Only iii and iv
(C) Only i, ii, and iv
(D) All of the i, ii, iii, and iv

108. Which of the following Acts was passed by the Parliament under
Article 252 (1) of the Constitution in pursuance of the resolutions
passed by various Legislative Assemblies?

(A) The Water (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act, 1974
(B) The Air (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act, 1981
(C) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(D) None of the above

109. Who is the author of “Mitakshara”?

(A) Jimutvahan
(B) Vigyaneshwar
(C) Mitra Mishra
(D) Vachaspati

110. Shariyat Act, 1937 in India is related with the

(A) Hindus
(B) Christians
(C) Sikhs
(D) Muslims

111. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in

(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Preamble

112. Who presides at a joint sitting of Parliament?

(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President of India

113. If at the time of election of President, the legislative assemblies
of two States were dissolved, the election of President is

(A) Valid
(B) Invalid
(C) Void ab initio
(D) Void, if challenged in a court

114. The fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of
the Indian Constitution does not include

(A) Right to Information
(B) Right to keep silence
(C) Right to freedom of the Press
(D) Right to call and enforce Bundh

115. In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper,
humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in

(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Preamble
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Fundamental Rights

116. Which of the following article empowers the High Court to issue writs for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

(A) Article 225
(B) Article 226
(C) Article 227
(D) Article 228

117. If municipality does not perform the cleaning of city,
which writ can be issued against it?

(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Quo-Warranto

118. A Private Limited Company commences business

(A) at any time
(B) after obtaining the certificate of incorporation
(C) after obtaining the certificate to commence business
(D) None of the above

119. The correct sequence in formation of a contract is

(A) Offer, Acceptance, Consideration, Agreement
(B) Offer, Consideration, Acceptance, Agreement
(C) Agreement, Consideration, Offer, Acceptance
(D) Offer, Acceptance, Agreement, Consideration

120. When is the communication of a proposal complete?

(A) When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
(B) Only when the proposal, acceptance or revocation of the proposal is
recorded in writing
(C) When the other party gives his assent or dissent to the proposal
(D) Only when a clear verbal communication of such proposal is made

121. Which of the following feature is not essential for a contract?

(A) It should be in writing only
(B) Free consent of parties competent to contract
(C) Lawful consideration and with a lawful object
(D) It should not be declared void expressly

122. Who among the following is not competent to contract?

(A) Person who has acquired the age of 18
(B) Person who has acquired the age of 16
(C) Person is of sound mind
(D) Person who is not disqualified from contracting by any law

123. Where the parties to a contract are under the mistake as to matter of fact
essential to the agreement, the agreement is?

(A) Voidable at the option of the party making the proposal
(B) Voidable at the option of the party accepting the proposal
(C) Considered valid
(D) Void

124. Contingent contract to do or not to do anything on the happening
of an uncertain future event

(A) is never enforceable
(B) is enforceable since the time of making it
(C) becomes enforceable in the immediate possibility of happening of that event
(D) becomes enforceable only on the happening of that event

125. An Agent’s authority can be created

(A) Only by expressly writing the terms thereof
(B) Only by implication
(C) Only by expressly writing the terms thereof and
registering the same with sub-registrar
(D) Either expressly or impliedly

126. What is the responsibility of the finder of goods?

(A) Same responsibility as a bailee
(B) Same responsibility as a trustee
(C) Same responsibility as a pledge
(D) Same responsibility as the owner

127. A standard form of contract is one in which

(A) the terms and conditions are fixed by the state to which the
contracting party belongs
(B) the terms are pre-determined by the custom of trade
(C) the terms on which mercantile transactions of common occurrence
are to be carried out
(D) the terms are fixed by one of the parties in advance and are open to
acceptance by any one

128. Consider the following statements with regard to “uberrimae feidei”

1. It falls within a class of cases which require utmost good faith
2. Every contract is a contract uberrimae feidei
3. A contract of insurance is an example of uberrimae feidei
Which of the statements is correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only

129. An agreement would be …………… if both the contracting parties believe in the
existence of the subject matter which did not exist.

(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Impracticable

130. Transfer of Spes Successionis is

(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) Either (A) or (B)

131. The basic ingredient of the doctrine of lis pendens is

(A) The suit should be collusive
(B) Property should have been transferred or otherwise dealt with
(C) A litigation should be pending in a court of competent jurisdiction
(D) The suit must not be related to a specific immovable property

132. A gift comprising both the existing and future properties in Transfer of property Act is

(A) Void as to the first part only
(B) Void as to the second part only
(C) Void as to both parts
(D) Not void at all

133. Who may sue for redemption under the Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Mortgagor
(B) Mortgagee
(C) Both of them
(D) None of them

134. Under Civil Procedure Code, pleading shall contains

(A) Only Law
(B) Material facts only
(C) Facts and Law both
(D) Evidence

135. Under Civil Procedure Code right to lodge Caveat is provided under the provision of

(A) Section 87-A
(B) Section 87-B
(C) Section 135-A
(D) Section 148-A

136. Principle of res-subjudice is contained in

(A) Section 10 of CPC
(B) Section 11 of CPC
(C) Section 12 of CPC
(D) Section 13 of CPC

137. The term ‘Res-judicata’ means

(A) Further proceeding
(B) A matter already adjudicated
(C) Stay of proceeding
(D) None of the above

138. According to Section 15, of C.P.C. every suit shall be instituted in the Court of

(A) Lowest grade competent to try it
(B) Highest grade competent to try it
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)

139. Section 304 of Cr. P.C. deals with

(A) Protection to accused against double prosecution for the same offence
(B) Withdrawal from prosecution
(C) Legal aid to the accused at State expenses
(D) Order to release on probation of good conduct

140. If First Information Report discloses an offence which is cognizable and other which
is non-cognizable, the whole case shall be deemed to be

(A) Cognizable
(B) Non-cognizable
(C) It is to be seen whether
(D) None of the above

141. Object of investigation is

(A) To punish accused
(B) To acquit accused
(C) To collect evidence
(D) To convict accused

142. The Law of Evidence consists of

(A) Ordinary rules of reasoning
(B) Legal rules of evidence
(C) Rules of logic
(D) All the above

143. Indian Evidence Act applies to

(A) Proceedings before tribunals
(B) Proceedings before the arbitrator
(C) Judicial proceedings in Courts
(D) All the above

144. A man who, in order to escape death from hunger, kills another for the purpose of
eating his flesh. In the light of the above facts and circumstances, which one of the
following statement is correct?

(A) He is guilty of culpable homicide
(B) He is guilty of no offence
(C) He is guilty of murder
(D) His act is of necessity

145. The Right of Private Defense

(A) is not a right of defense but a right of retribution
(B) is a right of defense but not a right of retribution
(C) is a right of defense as well as a right of retribution
(D) is neither a right of defense nor a right of retribution

146. Who has propounded the concept of “Social Engineering”?

(A) H. L. A. Hart
(B) John Salmond
(C) Roscoe Pound
(D) John Austin

147. “The movement of progressive society has hitherto been a movement
from status to contract”. This statement is of

(A) Hegal
(B) Puchta
(C) Savigny
(D) Henry Maine

148. In which of the following cases, the maxim “Injuria sine damno”
has been recognized?

(A) Mogul Steamship co. v. Mc Gregor
(B) Chasemore v. Rechards
(C) Ashby v. White
(D) Bradford Corporation v. Pickles

149. The rule of contributory negligence was, for the first time applied
in which of the following cases?

(A) Davis v. Mann
(B) Butterfield v. Forrester
(C) British Columbia Electric Rly. v. Loauch
(D) Jones v. Boyce

150. Which of the following is correct with respect to Section 5(i) of Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955?

(A) Neither party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage
(B) Neither party has living children at the time of the marriage
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 610 LAW (FOR LLM)
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 B 61 B 91 B 121 A
2 C 32 A 62 A 92 A 122 B
3 A 33 B 63 C 93 B 123 D
4 C 34 B 64 A 94 B 124 D
5 B 35 A 65 D 95 B 125 D
6 A 36 C 66 B 96 C 126 A
7 B 37 A 67 B 97 C 127 D
8 C 38 C 68 D 98 B 128 B
9 C 39 C 69 B 99 D 129 A
10 B 40 A 70 A 100 C 130 B
11 B 41 B 71 D 101 B 131 C
12 C 42 B 72 C 102 C 132 B
13 B 43 D 73 B 103 D 133 A
14 B 44 D 74 D 104 B 134 B
15 A 45 A 75 C 105 B 135 D
16 A 46 B 76 C 106 B 136 A
17 B 47 A 77 B 107 D 137 B
18 C 48 B 78 A 108 A 138 A
19 C 49 B 79 C 109 B 139 C
20 D 50 B 80 B 110 D 140 A
21 D 51 D 81 D 111 D 141 C
22 B 52 C 82 A 112 C 142 B
23 A 53 C 83 D 113 A 143 C
24 A 54 D 84 C 114 D 144 C
25 C 55 A 85 C 115 C 145 B
26 C 56 A 86 D 116 B 146 C
27 C 57 A 87 B 117 B 147 D
28 A 58 C 88 C 118 B 148 C
29 C 59 D 89 B 119 A 149 B
30 C 60 B 90 C 120 A 150 A