CUSAT CAT 2021 Question Paper M.Sc Integrated Biology Shift II

104 MSC INTEGRATED COURSE - BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
PHYSICS
1. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40 s. What will be
his displacement at the end of 2 min 20 seconds?
(A) 7R
(B) 2R
(C) 2 R
(D) 7 R

2. The phase difference between the displacement and velocity of a particle
executing SHM is

(A) /2
(B) 
(C) /4
(D) 0

3. The work done per unit volume in stretching a wire is
force × extension
(A)
2
stress × strain
(B)
2
(C) force × extension
(D) stress × strain

4. A capacitor connected to a cell of emf E is fully charged. If V is the potential
difference across the capacitor, then which one of the following is correct?

(A) V>E
(B) V=E=0
(C) V=E
(D) V<E

5. In a common emitter amplifier circuit using an n-p-n transistor, the phase difference
between the input and the output voltage will be

(A) 135
(B) 180
(C) 45
(D) 90

6. If λ is the decay constant, T½ is the half life and T is the mean life of a radioactive
element, then which of the following is true

1 𝑙𝑛2
(A) T½ = ,T=
𝜆 𝜆
𝑙𝑛2 1
(B) T½ = ,T=
𝜆 𝜆
1
(C) T½ = λ ln2 , T =
𝜆
𝜆 𝑙𝑛2
(D) T½ = ,T=
𝑙𝑛2 𝜆

7. Ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs

(A) radio waves
(B) infrared
(C) ultra violet rays
(D) X-rays

8. In a Rutherford experiment, for head-on collision of α- particles with a gold nucleus,
the impact parameter is
–14
(A) of the order of 10 m
–10
(B) of the order of 10 m
–6
(C) of the order of 10 m
(D) zero

–1
9. The speed of electromagnetic waves in free space is 3 × 108 ms . The frequency of a
radio wave of wavelength 150 m is

(A) 45 MHz
(B) 2 MHz
(C) 20 kHz
(D) 2 kHz

10. In a series resonant circuit, the AC voltages across R, L and C are respectively 5 V,
10 V and 10 V. The AC voltage applied to the circuit is

(A) 25 V
(B) 15 V
(C) 5V
(D) 20 V

11. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is

(A) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(B) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(C) A = 1, B =1, C = 0
(D) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

12. For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain

(A) is high at high and low frequencies and constant at middle frequency range
(B) constant at high frequencies and low at low frequencies
(C) remains constant at all frequencies
(D) is low at high and low frequencies and constant at mid frequencies

13. Frequency of revolution of an electron revolving in the nth orbit of H- atom is
proportional to

(A) n
1
(B)
𝑛3
1
(C)
𝑛2
(D) 𝑛2

14. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used?

(A) Induction furnace
(B) Magnetic braking in train
(C) Electromagnet
(D) Electric heater

15. The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend on

(A) mass of the particles
(B) position of the particles
(C) forces on the particles
(D) relative distance between particles

16. Vectors A and B have same magnitude. In addition, the magnitude of their resultant is
also equal to the magnitude of either of them. Then A and B are at an angle

(A) 120°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 45°

17. In a sample of radioactive material, what percentage of initial number of active nuclei
will decay during one mean life?

(A) 37%
(B) 63%
(C) 50%
(D) 69.3%

18. In a compound microscope, maximum magnification is obtained when the image

(A) is formed at infinity
(B) is formed at the least distance of distinct vision
(C) coincides with objective lens
(D) is at any finite distance

19. If P, Q and R are physical quantities having different dimensions, which one of the
following combinations can never be a meaningful quantity?

(A) PQ – R
PR  Q 2
(B)
R
P Q
(C)
R
PQ
(D)
R

20. Light of a certain frequency and intensity is incident on a photosensitive material
causing photoelectric effect. If both the frequency and intensity are doubled, the
photoelectric saturation current becomes

(A) unchanged
(B) doubled
(C) halved
(D) quadrupled

21. The phenomenon involved in the reflection of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to

(A) scattering of light by air particles
(B) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
(C) reflection of light by plane mirror
(D) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow

22. Gyromagnetic ratio of a nucleus is

(A) a vector
(B) a scalar
(C) a tensor
(D) zero

23. The following four wires of length L and radius r are made of the same
material. Which of these wires will have the largest extension, when the same
tension is applied?

(A) L = 50 cm, r = 0.25 mm
(B) L = 100 cm, r = 0.5 mm
(C) L = 200 cm, r = 1 mm
(D) L = 300 cm, r = 1.5 mm

24. Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of aerial velocity of a planet is a
consequence of conservation of

(A) energy
(B) mass
(C) linear momentum
(D) angular momentum

25. A hollow metal sphere carrying electric charge produces no electric field at the points
(A) outside the sphere
(B) inside the sphere
(C) on its surface
(D) at a distance more than its radius

26. When the force between two charges in vacuum is 0.6 N, then what will be the force
if vacuum is replaced by a medium whose permittivity is five times greater than that
of in vacuum?

(A) 0.30 N
(B) 0.12 N
(C) 8.33 N
(D) 4.165 N

27. In a thermocouple at one of the junction, the Peltier coefficient depends on

(A) the temperature of the junction
(B) the current in the junction
(C) the time for which the current flows
(D) the heat absorbed or evolved

28. An ideal voltmeter has

(A) zero resistance
(B) finite resistance
(C) infinite resistance
(D) resistance depends on the load

29. The intensity of the X-rays emitted in an X-ray tube can be increased by

(A) increasing the target potential
(B) increasing the filament current
(C) increasing the target resistance
(D) increasing the filament resistance

30. A photon having energy 15.2 eV will have the frequency
15
(A) 3.67 × 10 Hz
15
(B) 2.29 × 10 Hz
22
(C) 3.67 × 10 Hz
22
(D) 2.29 × 10 Hz

31. The wave number of the sodium vapour lamp having spectral line of
wavelength 5890 Å is,
6 –1
(A) 1.6978 × 10 m
8 –1
(B) 1.6978 × 10 m
6 –1
(C) 5.0933 × 10 m
8 –1
(D) 5.0933 × 10 m

32. Which part of the electromagnetic wave is used for the communication purpose?

(A) Radio waves only
(B) Microwaves only
(C) Infrared waves only
(D) Both radio waves and microwaves

33. If Ec and Es are the amplitudes of the carrier and signal waves, then the magnitude of
the upper side band and lower side band is

(A) m Ec / 2
(B) m Es / 2
(C) m (Ec + Es) / 2
(D) m (Ec – Es) / 2

34. A rectangular coil having 100 turns of size 5 cm × 2 cm is placed perpendicularly in a
2
magnetic field of induction 0.10 Wb/m . When the magnetic field of induction is
2
changed to 0.01 Wb/m in 0.1 second, then the emf induced is

(A) 0.09 V
(B) 0.06 V
(C) 0.03 V
(D) 0.003 V

35. The self-inductance of a long solenoid having N turns, length (Ɩ), area of cross
section A in air medium is

(A) L=Nφ
2
(B) L = µo N A / Ɩ
(C) L = µ oφ N A / Ɩ
(D) L=Nφ/Ɩ

36. Herapathite (iodoquinine sulphate) is a

(A) polarizer
(B) uniaxial crystal
(C) biaxial crystal
(D) reflector

37. Tyndall effect is due to the _____ of light.

(A) reflection
(B) refraction
(C) polarization
(D) scattering

38. From the Laue pattern, one can get information about the material

(A) crystal system
(B) Bravais lattice
(C) lattice constants
(D) crystal symmetry

39. A nuclear reactor is producing energy of 1000 MW. When the energy per fission is
200 MeV, then the number of fission per second is
19
(A) 3.125 × 10
19
(B) 5.000 × 10
19
(C) 6.250 × 10
19
(D) 9.375 × 10

40. The coolant materials used in the nuclear reactors have the characteristic
of _____ specific heat capacity and _____ boiling point.

(A) high, high
(B) high, low
(C) low, high
(D) low, low

41. One Curie is equal to _______ disintegrations per second.
8
(A) 3.7 × 10
9
(B) 3.7 × 10
10
(C) 3.7 × 10
12
(D) 3.7 × 10

42. The average binding energy per nucleon in the mass number region 20 to 80 is

(A) 8.7 MeV
(B) 5.8 MeV
(C) 6.9 MeV
(D) 7.8 MeV

43. Three resistances each of 1 Ω are connected to form a triangle. The resistance
between any two terminals is

(A) 2Ω
(B) 2/3 Ω
(C) 3/2 Ω
(D) 1/3 Ω

44. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature
to 89 K then the resistance of

(A) copper decreases and germanium increases
(B) copper increases and germanium decreases
(C) each of them decreases
(D) each of them increases

45. A sonometer wire vibrates with a frequency f Hz. It is replaced by another wire of
thrice the diameter. The frequency of vibration of the wire, when the tension and other
parameters remain constant, is

(A) 3f Hz
(B) f/3 Hz
(C) f/9 Hz
(D) 9f Hz

46. Sound waves are travelling in a medium whose adiabatic elasticity is E and isothermal
elasticity is E ' . Then the velocity of sound waves is proportional to

(A) E '
(B) E'
(C) E
(D) E

47. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the
lens is covered by an opaque screen

(A) half the image will disappear
(B) intensity of the image will increase
(C) complete image will be formed
(D) intensity of the image will remain same

48. The motion of the molecules of a monoatomic gas is

(A) vibratory
(B) rotatory
(C) translatory
(D) constant

49. When a charged particle absorbs radiant energy  in the time 2 𝜋 /ω, then the linear
momentum transferred to the particle in the same time is

(A)  c
(B) c
(C) c +
(D) c 

50. Which of the following is correct in terms of the relative strength of the four
fundamental forces of nature in their decreasing order?

(A) Gravitational, electromagnetic, electroweak and strong
(B) Strong, electroweak, electromagnetic and gravitational
(C) Strong, electroweak, gravitational and electromagnetic
(D) Strong, electromagnetic, electroweak and gravitational

51. The principle involved when we squeeze one end of a tube to get toothpaste out from
the other end is

(A) Archimedes principle
(B) Pascal's principle
(C) principle of reflection
(D) principle of superposition for forces

52. Of the following radiations, which one penetrates less through matter?

(A) Gamma
(B) Beta
(C) Alpha
(D) X-rays

53. The electric field intensity at the surface of charged conductor is

(A) perpendicular to the surface
(B) at 45° to the surface
(C) zero
(D) tangential to the surface

54. When milk is churned, cream gets separated due to

(A) centripetal force
(B) centrifugal force
(C) frictional force
(D) gravitational force

55. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of
their linear momenta will be

(A) 1:4
(B) 4:1
(C) 1:2
(D) 2:1

56. At which temperature, Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales are equal?

(A) 40 degrees
(B) 40 degrees
(C) 37 degrees
(D) 80 degrees

57. During melting of ice, its entropy

(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains same
(D) cannot change

58. The average acceleration in one time period in simple harmonic motion is

(A) A  2
(B) A  2 2
(C) A  2 2
(D) zero

59. Below the superconducting transition temperature, the material exhibits

(A) ferromagnetism
(B) super fluidity
(C) super capacitance
(D) diamagnetism

60. A 100 millihenry coil carries a current of 1 A. Energy stored in its magnetic field is

(A) 0.5 J
(B) 1J
(C) 0.05 J
(D) 0.1 J

61. When a drop of oil spread on a water surface, it displays beautiful colours in
daylight because of

(A) dispersion of light
(B) reflection of light
(C) polarization of light
(D) interference of light

62. The resistance R = V/I where V = 100 ± 5 volts and I = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the
total error in R?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 5.2%
(D) 5/2%

–1
63. A shell of mass 10 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 ms . Then it blasts and forms
st
two parts of mass 9 kg and 1 kg respectively. If the 1 mass is stationary, the velocity
nd
of the 2 is

(A) 1 m/s
(B) 10 m/s
(C) 100 m/s
(D) 1000 m/s

64. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational
attraction between them

(A) is doubled
(B) become four times
(C) is reduced to half
(D) is reduced to quarter

65. In a Carnot engine, when T2 = 0°C and T1 = 200°C, its efficiency is η1, and when
T1 = 0°C and T2 =  200°C its efficiency is ɳ2. Then η1/η2, is given by

(A) 0.577
(B) 0.733
(C) 0.638
(D) 1.577

66. Eight drops of mercury of equal radii combine to form a big drop. Then the radius of
bigger drop compared to each individual small drop is

(A) 8 times
(B) 4 times
(C) 2 times
(D) 32 times

67. The self inductance of a coil is 5 Henry. A current of 1 Amp changes to 2 Amp within
5 second through the coil. The value of induced e.m.f. will be

(A) 10 volt
(B) 0.10 volt
(C) 1.0 volt
(D) 100 volt

68. Relation between critical angles of water and glass is

(A) Cw > Cg
(B) Cw < Cg
(C) Cw = Cg
(D) Cw = Cg = 0

69. If the potential difference applied across X-ray tube is V volts, then approximately
minimum wavelength of the emitted X-rays will be

(A) 1227/√V Å
(B) 1240/V Å
(C) 2400/V Å
(D) 12400/V Å

70. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around the earth. A second
satellite is launched into an orbit of radius (1.01)R. The period of the second satellite
is larger than the first one by approximately

(A) 0.7%
(B) 1%
(C) 1.5%
(D) 3%

71. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle
is half way to its end point is

(A) E/2
(B) 2E/3
(C) E/8
(D) E/4

72. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the acceleration is

(A) maximum
(B) minimum
(C) zero
(D) g

73. A potential of V = 200√2 cos ωt is passed through a dc voltmeter. Its reading will be

(A) 200√2 V
(B) 200 V
(C) 100 V
(D) zero

74. Which of the following properties show light is a transverse wave?

(A) Interference
(B) Reflection
(C) Diffraction
(D) Polarization

12
75. The energy released when 1/12 carbon atom of 6C (or 1 amu) is converted
into energy is

(A) 931 MeV
(B) 939 MeV
(C) 935 MeV
(D) 938 MeV

CHEMISTRY

76. The packing efficiency of simple cubic unit cell is

(A) higher than that of ccp
(B) higher than that of bcc
(C) lower than that of both ccp and bcc
(D) equal to that of ccp and bcc

77. The density of a unit cell is

(A) higher than that of its crystal
(B) lower than that of its crystal
(C) same as that of its crystal
(D) None of the above

78. The conductivity of 0.001028 M acetic acid is 4.95 × 10 – 5 S cm–1 and its limiting
molar conductivity is 390.5 S cm2 mol–1. It is degree of dissociation is equal to

(A) 0.0012
(B) 0.1233
(C) 0.2233
(D) 0.0123

79. If a current of 500 ampere is passing for one second, it is equal to

(A) 0.000518 F per sec
(B) 0.518 F per sec
(C) 0.0518 F per sec
(D) 0.00518 F per sec

80. Freundlich adsorption isotherm of a gas on a solid surface is

(A) applicable only at high pressures
(B) applicable only at low pressures
(C) applicable only at moderate pressures
(D) applicable at low and moderate pressures

81. Zeolites are

(A) microporous crystalline alumino silicates
(B) non-porous crystalline alumino silicates
(C) amorphous alumino silicates
(D) microporous crystalline magnesium silicates

82. An azeotropic mixture at its boiling point

(A) can be separated into its components
(B) has different composition for the liquid and vapour
(C) cannot be separated into its components
(D) has different components for the liquid and vapour

83. The wrong statement of chemisorption is

(A) it is highly specific
(B) it is very exothermic
(C) it is reversible
(D) it involves formation of a strong bond

84. The unit cell edge of an element with the bcc structure is 288 × 10–10 cm. Its density is
7.2 g/cm3. The number of unit cells in 208 g of the element is equal to

(A) 10.01 × 1023
(B) 12.08 × 1023
(C) 14.04 × 1023
(D) 16.03 × 1023

85. The semiconductors are

(A) alkalimetal oxides
(B) alkaline earth metal oxides
(C) most of the transition metal oxides
(D) oxides of group IV elements

86. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, high temperature favours the formation of more
products at equilibrium, if the forward reaction

(A) Accompanied by decrease in number of gas molecules
(B) Accompanied by increase in number of gas molecules
(C) Is endothermic
(D) Is exothermic

87. The coordination of each particle in simple cubic, body centred cubic, face centred
and hexagonal cubic packing are

(A) 6, 8, 12, 12
(B) 6, 8, 12, 14
(C) 4, 8, 12, 12
(D) 6, 6, 6, 6

88. Vapour pressure of water at 296 K is 19.8 mm of Hg. 0.1 mole of glucose is dissolved
in 172.8 g of water. The vapour of the solution is

(A) 19.6 mm
(B) 16.9 mm
(C) 19.0 mm
(D) 18.9 mm

89. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture in water-ethanol is less than that of both
water and ethanol. This means that the mixture

(A) Shows negative deviation from Rauolt’s law
(B) Shows positive deviation from Rauolt’s law
(C) Shows no deviation from Rauolt’s law
(D) Is an ideal solution

90. A calculator batter provides a current of 10–5 A. The number of coulombs required to
operate 1000 hours is

(A) 1.0
(B) 10
(C) 0.010
(D) 36

91. The potential of half-cell consisting of zinc electrode in 0.01 M ZnSO4 solution at
25°C is (E° = –0.763 V)

(A) –0.704 V
(B) –0.822 V
(C) –0.382 V
(D) +0.704 V

92. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 s–1. The time taken to reduce the
initial concentration of the reactant to its 1/16th value will be

(A) 0.00462 s
(B) 0.462 s
(C) 0.0462 s
(D) 4.63 s

93. Standard free energies of formation (in kJ mol–1) at 298 K are –237.2, –394.4 and
–8.2 for H2O(I), CO2(g), and pentane(g), respectively. The value of E°cell for the
pentane-oxygen fuel cell is

(A) 1.968 V
(B) 2.0968 V
(C) 0.0968 V
(D) 1.0968 V

94. In what way the ionization energy varies in the 1st group elements?

(A) Increases down the group
(B) Decreases down the group
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) Variation is not regular

95. The set containing only amphoteric oxides is

(A) ZnO, K2O and SO3
(B) SnO2, Al2O3 and ZnO
(C) ZnO, P2O5 and Cl2O7
(D) PbO2, SnO2 and SO3

96. Which of the following has more than one unshared pair of electrons on the central
atom?

(A) BrF5
(B) ClF3
(C) NF3
(D) IF7

97. In metallurgical processes, aluminium acts as

(A) a reducing agent
(B) an oxidizing agent
(C) a flux
(D) a solder

98. Which of the following imparts violet colouration to the Bunsen burner non-luminous
flame?

(A) NaCl
(B) BaCl2
(C) CaCl2
(D) KCl

99. The complex, which exhibit optical isomerism, is

(A) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(B) [PtCl2(NH3)2]
(C) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(D) [Fe(ɳ5-C5H5)2]

100. Which of the following is ᴨ-acid ligand?

(A) NH3
(B) CO
(C) F–
(D) ethylenediammine

101. The magnetic moment of the complex ion, [MnF6]3–, is

(A) 1.73 BM
(B) 3.90 BM
(C) 4.90 BM
(D) 2.73 BM

102. Which of the following nuclides is most radioactive?
31
(A) P15
66
(B) Zn 30
37
(C) Cl17
108
(D) Ag 47

103. Which of the following is a not a green house gas?

(A) CO
(B) CO2
(C) Water vapour
(D) CH4

104. What type of orbital is designated for the set of quantum numbers: n = 4, l = 2,
ml = –2?

(A) 4p
(B) 4f
(C) 4d
(D) 4s

105. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not allowed?

(A) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –1
(B) n = 6, l = 2, ml = –1
(C) n = 4, l = 3, ml = –1
(D) n = 3, l = 0, ml = +1

106. Ionic size decreases in the order

(A) N3– > O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
(B) N3– > O2– > F– > Mg2+ > Na+
(C) N3– > F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+
(D) O2– > N3– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+

107. The t1/2 of a radioisotope is 15 min. What percent of radioactivity of that isotope will
remain after 45 min?

(A) 10%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 15%
(D) 17.5%

108. Water gas is a mixture of

(A) H2O + air
(B) CO + H2
(C) CO + CO2
(D) H2 + CO2

109. Which category of synthetic detergents is used in toothpaste?

(A) Zwitterionic detergent
(B) Anionic detergent
(C) Cationic detergent
(D) Non-ionic detergent

110. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
Br

OH

(A) 4-bromo-5-hydroxy-2-methylhexane
(B) 1,4,4-trimethyl-2-bromobutanol
(C) 2-bromo-2-isobutyl-1-methylethanol
(D) 3-bromo-5-methylhexan-2-ol

111. On complete combustion, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 0.30 g of carbon
dioxide and 0.10 g of water. The percentage compositions of carbon and hydrogen in
the compound are

(A) C = 32.73 and H = 4.44
(B) C = 30.73 and H = 5.33
(C) C = 34.36 and H = 5.33
(D) C = 36.36 and H = 4.44

112. The reagents P and Q in the following transformations are

P Q

(A) P = H2, Pd-CaCO3, Pb(OAc)2, quinoline & Q = Li, NH3( )
(B) P = H2, Ni & Q = Na, NH3( )
(C) P = H2, Pd-CaCO3, Pb(OAc)2, quinoline & Q = H2, Ni
(D) P = NaBH4 & Q = H2, Pd-CaCO3, Pb(OAc)2, quinoline

113. Which of the following alkenes forms acetone as the only product upon ozonolysis?

(A) 2-Methylpropene
(B) But-2-ene
(C) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
(D) 2-Methylbut-1-ene

114. When the nucleophile is changed from H2O to OH (OH is more powerful
nucleophile than H2O) in the nucleophilic substitution reaction of tert-butylbromide,
to give tert-butanol

(A) the rate of the reaction remains nearly unaffected
(B) the rate of the reaction increases substantially
(C) the rate of the reaction decreases
(D) mechanism of substitution changes from SN1 to SN2

115. Which among the following compounds undergoes fastest SN1 reaction?

Ph
Br
Br Br Br

P Q R S

(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S

116. Major product of the following reaction is

1) B2H6

2) H2O2, NaOH

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

117. The starting material P and product Q in the following reaction are:

1) NaOH
2) CO2 CO2H
(CH3CO)2O
P Q
3) H OH
H

(A) P = phenol and Q = aspirin
(B) P = benzoic acid and Q = aspirin
(C) P = phenol and Q = methyl salicylate
(D) P = benzoic acid and Q = methyl salicylate

118. An organic compound P with molecular formula C8H8O forms an orange-red
precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine and yellow precipitate on heating with
iodine in the presence of NaOH. It does not reduce Tollens’ or Fehling’s reagent and
it does not decolorize bromine water. When treated with zinc-amalgam and con. HCl,
it gives a compound Q with molecular formula C8H10. The compounds P and Q are

(A) P = acetophenone and Q = 1,2-dimethylbenzene (o-xylene)
(B) P = 2-phenylacetaldehyde and Q = ethylbenzene
(C) P = 4-methylbenzaldehyde and Q = 1,4-dimethylbenzene (p-xylene)
(D) P = acetophenone and Q = ethylbenzene

119. The products P and Q in the following reaction are

HO O HCHO
P + Q
HO OH
OH

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

120. Major product formed in the following reaction is

Br

KOH

EtOH

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

121. Major product formed in the following reaction sequence is

NH2
1) NaNO2, HCl

2) CuCN/KCN
3) H2, Ni

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

122. Consider the following reaction.

OH
N2Cl + OH N N OH

Here, benzene diazonium chloride acts as

(A) nucleophile
(B) electrophile
(C) Lewis base
(D) Bronsted base

123. The maximum number of dipeptides that could be made from the three different
amino acids is

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 8

124. Which one of the following is an example for biodegradable polymers?

(A) Nylon 6
(B) Nylon 6,6
(C) Glyptal
(D) Nylon 2-nylon 6

125. Which among the following is not a detergent?

(A) Sodium laurylsulphate
(B) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate
(C) cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
(D) calcium stearate

BIOLOGY

126. Choose the INCORRECT statement pertaining to universal rules of nomenclature

(A) Biological names are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their
origin
(B) Biological names are printed in italics to indicate their Latin origin
(C) Both the words in a biological name, when hand written are not underlined
separately
(D) The first word of binomial name denoting genus and the second word denoting
species

127. Which of the following is diploid (2n)?

(A) Male gametophyte
(B) Endosperm
(C) Megaspore
(D) Microspore mother cell

128. Match the following (column I with column II).
Column I Column II
(I) Chlorophyceae (a) Polytrichum
(II) Rhodophyceae (b) Dictyota
(III) Phaeophyceae (c) Porphyra
(IV) Mosses (d) Ulothrix
Choose the answer

(A) (I) - (a), (II) - (b), (III) - (c), (IV) - (d)
(B) (I) - (c), (II) - (a), (III) - (d), (IV) - (b)
(C) (I) - (d), (II) - (c), (III) - (b), (IV) - (a)
(D) (I) - (b), (II) - (d), (III) - (a), (IV) - (c)

129. Select the plant with half inferior ovary

(A) Brinjal
(B) Peach
(C) Cucumber
(D) Guava

130. The companion cells are specialized parenchymatous cells,
which are closely associated with

(A) Phloem parenchyma
(B) Bastfibres
(C) Sieve tube elements
(D) Tracheids

131. The body of Cockroach is segmented and divisible
into …………… distinct regions.

(A) five
(B) three
(C) four
(D) ten

132. The fact that ‘cells divided and new cells are formed from
pre-existing cells’ was explained by?

(A) Schwann
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Schleiden
(D) Leeuwenhoek

133. Cell membranes possess protein and lipids. Choose percentage of protein and lipid
present in the membrane of human erythrocyte.

(A) 56 and 42
(B) 54 and 40
(C) 52 and 42
(D) 52 and 40

134. The algal cell wall is made up of

(A) cellulose, pectins and proteins
(B) cellulose, hemicelluloses and galactans
(C) hemicellulose and mannans
(D) cellulose, galactans and mannans

135. The immunoglobulin related to allergy in human being is

(A) IgG
(B) IgA
(C) IgE
(D) IgD

136. Based on the nature of R group there are many amino acids. Which of the following
amino acids possesses hydrogen as R group?

(A) Valine
(B) Serine
(C) Glycine
(D) Alanine

137. The blood concentration of glucose in a normal healthy individual is

(A) 4.0 mmol/L - 5.1 mmol/L
(B) 4.2 mmol/L - 6.1 mmol/L
(C) 4.1 mmol/L - 5.2 mmol/L
(D) 4.1 mmol/L - 7.1 mmol/L

138. The behaviour of the plant cells (or tissues) with regard to water movement
depends on the surrounding solution. If the external solution is more dilute
than the cytoplasm, it is

(A) hypotonic
(B) isotonic
(C) hypertonic
(D) flaccid

139. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in C4 cycle is

(A) phosphoglyceric acid
(B) malate
(C) oxaloacetic acid
(D) aspartate

140. Formation of meristems such as, interfascicular cambium and cork cambium from
differentiated parenchyma cells is known as

(A) differentiation
(B) dedifferentiation
(C) redifferentiation
(D) histogenesis

141. Succus entericus is the name given to

(A) a junction between ileum and large intestine
(B) swelling in the gut
(C) appendix
(D) intestinal juice

142. The average volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle
per minute is …………… in a healthy individual.

(A) 3500 mL
(B) 4500 mL
(C) 4000-4500 mL
(D) 5000 mL

143. Choose parthenogenetically reproducing organism from the list

(A) Salmon
(B) House fly
(C) Honey bees
(D) Fruit fly

144. The zygote is formed

(A) outside the ovule
(B) within the style
(C) inside the ovule
(D) inside the megaspore mother cell

145. Two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are linked. In a dihybrid cross involving these two genes, the
F1 heterozygote is crossed with homozygous recessive parental type (aa bb). What
would be the ratio of offspring in the next generation?

(A) 1:1:1:1
(B) 9:3:3:1
(C) 3:1
(D) 1:1

146. Occurrence of colour blindness in male and female is

(A) 6 and 0.4%
(B) 4 and 0.4%
(C) 2 and 0.4%
(D) 8 and 0.4%

147. Environment (Protection) Act was passed by India in

(A) 1972
(B) 1976
(C) 1986
(D) 1947

148. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about

(A) ten million
(B) twelve million
(C) nine million
(D) seven million

149. The individual transitional communities are termed as

(A) pioneer community
(B) seral community
(C) climax community
(D) plant community

150. A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures, they are

(A) Mesotherms
(B) Stenothermal
(C) Eurythermal
(D) Microtherm

151. What is Emigration?

(A) The number of deaths in the population during a given period
(B) The number of births during a given period in the population that are added to
the initial density
(C) The number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat
from elsewhere during the time period under consideration
(D) The number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and
gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration

152. DNA fragments are

(A) positively charged molecules
(B) negatively charged molecules
(C) neutral molecules
(D) amphoteric molecules

153. Choose the CORRECT sequence

(A) Annealing-Denaturation-Extension-Amplified fragment
(B) Denaturation-Annealing-Extension-Amplified fragment
(C) Extension-Denaturation-Annealing-Amplified fragment
(D) Denaturation-Extension-Annealing- Amplified fragment

154. Which of the following is a free-living soil bacterium?

(A) Rhizobium
(B) Azospirullum
(C) Propionibacterium
(D) Anabaena

155. Sonalika and Kalyansona are varieties of

(A) rice
(B) sugarcane
(C) wheat
(D) millets

156. Bt toxin is an

(A) insecticidal lipid
(B) insecticidal glycerol
(C) insecticidal fatty acid
(D) insecticidal protein

157. In urine formation, the effective glomerular pressure which results
in ultra-filtration is at …………… mm/Hg.

(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 12

158. The cell which does not contain mitochondria is

(A) white blood cell
(B) red blood cell
(C) nerve cell
(D) sperm cell

159. The P wave of the standard ECG represents

(A) atrial depolarization
(B) ventricular repolarization
(C) ventricular depolarization
(D) atrial repolarization

160. Trisomic condition of chromosome 13 results in

(A) Klinefelters syndrome
(B) Pataus syndrome
(C) Downs syndrome
(D) Turners syndrome

161. Assertion: The corpus luteum will continue to produce progesterone during
early pregnancy
Reason: It supports the growth of the lining of the uterus

(A) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false
(D) Assertion is false but reason is true

162. Match the following.
Column I Column II
(1) Hemerythrin (i) Molluscs
(2) Haemoglobin (ii) Brachiopods
(3) Chlorocruorin (iii) Vertebrates
(4) Hemocyanin (iv) Leech

(A) (1) - (i), (2) - (ii), (3) - (iv), (4) - (iii)
(B) (1) - (iii), (2) - (ii), (3) - (iv), (4) - (i)
(C) (1) - (iv), (2) - (i), (3) - (ii), (4) - (iii)
(D) (1) - (ii), (2) - (iii), (3) - (iv), (4) - (i)

163. The genetically modified variety of herbicide tolerant crop
created by using barnase barstar technology is

(A) DMH-11
(B) Bt Brinjal
(C) Bt Cotton
(D) None of the above

164. The effect of rising CO2 tension decreases the affinity of Hb for O2, therefore the
increased concentration of CO2 in blood results in …………… breathing.

(A) shallower and slow
(B) slow and deep
(C) faster and deeper
(D) no effect

165. The calcification of arteries resulting in stiff and rigid structure is termed as

(A) Arteriosclerosis
(B) Arthritis
(C) Aneurysm
(D) None of the above

166. Choose the correct sequence of events in germinal stage.

(A) Fertilization  Implantation  Blastulation  Cleavage  Embryonic disc
(B) Fertilization  Cleavage  Blastulation Implantation  Embryonic disc
(C) Fertilization  Blastulation  Cleavage  Implantation  Embryonic disc
(D) Fertilization  Implantation  Blastulation  Embryonic disc  Cleavage

167. Whether the given statements are right or wrong.

Statement A: IgM is the antibody that can pass through the placenta.

Statement B: IgG is a passive immunity.

(A) A and B is Correct
(B) A is wrong and B is correct
(C) A and B is wrong
(D) A is correct and B is wrong

168. Order the features and functions of the following tissues and choose the correct answer.

(1) Composed of numerous fine fibrils, called myofibrils
(2) Absence of blood vessels
(3) Have greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions
(4) Secrete collagen or elastin

(A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
(B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(C) (3), (4), (2), (1)
(D) (4), (1), (3), (2)

169. Identify the correct statement about ‘antibiotics’.

(A) Antibiotics are produced by micro organisms
(B) The term was given by Waksman in 1943
(C) Antibiotics are capable of curing almost all the diseases
(D) They are allergic to some people

170. Scheibe-Lomakin equation is
n
(A) I=k×c
n
(B) k= I× c
n
(C) c=I×k
n
(D) k=c×I

171. The animals were classified based on the presence and absence of red blood cells by

(A) Carolus Linnaeus
(B) Aristotle
(C) Theophrastus
(D) Ernst Haeckel

172. Telocentric chromosome is not present in

(A) human
(B) mice
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

173. The urge to inhale in humans results from

(A) rising PCO2
(B) rising PO2
(C) falling PCO2
(D) falling PO2

174. Inulin is a polymer of

(A) amino acids
(B) glucose
(C) fructose
(D) None of the above

175. Which of the following animals belongs to Phylum Coelenterata?

(A) Sea horse
(B) Sea hare
(C) Sea pen
(D) Sea cucumber

176. Pseudocoelom is a characteristic feature of

(A) Annelida
(B) Arthropoda
(C) Platyhelminthes
(D) Aschelminthes

177. Mycorrhiza is the example of

(A) fungistasis
(B) amensalism
(C) antibiosis
(D) mutualism

178. The first human like hominid was called

(A) Homo habilis
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Homo sapiens
(D) Rama pithecus

179. Silver revolution is related to egg production. Silver fiber revolution is related to

(A) Jute
(B) Cotton
(C) Honey
(D) Cocoa

180. Good ozone is found in

(A) Mesosphere
(B) Troposphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Ionosphere

181. Genetic material of virus is

(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) DNA or RNA
(D) DNA and RNA

182. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

(A) diabetes mellitus
(B) chickenpox
(C) rheumatoid arthritis
(D) adenosine deaminase deficiency

183. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

(A) vitamin E
(B) vitamin B12
(C) vitamin A
(D) vitamin D

184. Which of the following is NOT an auto immune disease?

(A) Vitiligo
(B) Alzheimer’s disease
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis
(D) Psoriasis

185. The most significant trend in the evolution of Homo sapiens from his ancestors is

(A) shortening of jaws
(B) binocular vision
(C) increasing brain capacity
(D) upright posture

186. Balbiani rings are sites of synthesis of

(A) lipid
(B) nucleotide
(C) protein
(D) RNA

187. If a colour blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision,
the probability of their son being colour blind is

(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 1

188. The tight binding of H1 with a nucleosome indicates that

(A) transcription is occurring
(B) DNA replication is occurring
(C) the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fiber
(D) the DNA double helix is exposed

189. Presence of phycoerythrin is a characteristic feature of

(A) Blue green algae
(B) Green algae
(C) Brown algae
(D) Red algae

190. Myelin sheath is produced by

(A) Osteoclasts, Astrocytes
(B) Schwann cells, Oligodendrocytes
(C) Astrocytes, Schwann cells
(D) Oligodendrocytes, Osteoclasts

191. Alternate phyllotaxy can be seen in which of the following plants?

(A) Sunflower, Mustard
(B) Guava, Calotropis
(C) Calotropis, Sunflower
(D) Alstonia, Mustard

192. A closed collateral bundle refers to

(A) xylem and phloem occur on different radii
(B) xylem and phloem are separated by cambium
(C) collateral bundle without cambium
(D) collateral bundle with cambium

193. Identify the net products of glycolysis
+
(A) 2 pyruvic acid, 2 ATP, 2 NADH+H
+
(B) 1 pyruvic acid, 2 ATP, 2 NADH+H
+
(C) 2 pyruvic acid, 2 ATP, 1 NADH+H
+
(D) 2 pyruvic acid, 1 ATP, 1 NADH+H

194. The organ of corti is a structure present in

(A) external ear
(B) middle ear
(C) malleus
(D) cochlea

195. Match column I with column II regarding post fertilization changes;
and choose the correct answer.
Column I: Part of the flower Column II: Change
(a) Ovary wall (i) Pericarp
(b) Zygote (ii) Embryo
(c) Hilum (iii) Scar of the seed
(d) Micropyle (iv) Seed pore

(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

196. Which of the following is diploid?

(A) Secondary spermatocytes
(B) Spermatozoa and ova
(C) Spermatogonia, oogonia, primary spermatocytes
(D) Secondary oocytes

197. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answer.
Column I Column II
(a) Homologous organs (i) Potato and Sweet potato
(b) Analogous organs (ii) Tendril and thorn
(c) Adaptive radiation (iii) Fossils
(d) Paleontological evidence (iv) Australian marsupials

(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

198. pBR322, a cloning vector, contains the following antibiotic resistance genes, which
can be used as markers

(A) amikacin and tetracycline
(B) ampicillin and tetracycline
(C) streptomycin and tetracycline
(D) ampicillin and streptomycin

199. Which of the following is not an example for mutualism?

(A) Lichen
(B) Mycorrhiza
(C) Wasps present in fruits of fig
(D) Epiphytes

200. Eutrophication by sewage pollution refers to

(A) nutrient enrichment of freshwater bodies
(B) nutrient depletion of freshwater bodies
(C) toxic chemical accumulation in freshwater bodies
(D) biomagnification of pollutants

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 104 MSc FIVE YEAR INTEGRATED 18-S2
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 A 61 D 91 A 121 B 151 D 181 C
2 A 32 D 62 B 92 C 122 B 152 B 182 D
3 B 33 A 63 C 93 D 123 C 153 B 183 B
4 C 34 A 64 D 94 B 124 D 154 B 184 B
5 B 35 B 65 A 95 B 125 D 155 C 185 C
6 B 36 A 66 C 96 B 126 C 156 D 186 D
7 C 37 D 67 C 97 A 127 D 157 C 187 A
8 D 38 D 68 A 98 D 128 C 158 B 188 C
9 B 39 A 69 D 99 C 129 A 159 A 189 D
10 A 40 A 70 C 100 B 130 C 160 B 190 B
11 D 41 C 71 D 101 C 131 B 161 A 191 A
12 D 42 D 72 C 102 D 132 B 162 D 192 C
13 B 43 B 73 D 103 A 133 D 163 A 193 A
14 D 44 A 74 D 104 C 134 D 164 C 194 D
15 C 45 B 75 A 105 D 135 C 165 A 195 A
16 A 46 D 76 C 106 A 136 C 166 B 196 C
17 B 47 C 77 C 107 B 137 B 167 B 197 C
18 B 48 C 78 B 108 B 138 A 168 A 198 B
19 C 49 A 79 D 109 B 139 C 169 A 199 D
20 B 50 D 80 D 110 D 140 B 170 A 200 A
21 B 51 B 81 A 111 A 141 D 171 B
22 B 52 C 82 C 112 A 142 D 172 A
23 A 53 A 83 C 113 C 143 C 173 A
24 D 54 B 84 B 114 A 144 C 174 C
25 B 55 C 85 C 115 A 145 D 175 C
26 B 56 B 86 C 116 C 146 D 176 D
27 A 57 A 87 A 117 A 147 C 177 D
28 C 58 D 88 A 118 D 148 D 178 A
29 B 59 D 89 B 119 A 149 B 179 B
30 A 60 C 90 D 120 C 150 C 180 C