CUSAT CAT 2021 Question Paper Microbiology

MICROBIOLOGY

1. This combines with the 50S subunit ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
(A) chloramphenicol
(B) tetracycline
(C) streptomycin
(D) tyrocidine

2. In northern blotting
(A) RNA is in the gel
(B) DNA is in the gel
(C) Antibody is in the gel
(D) Protein is in the gel

3. In Swiss cheese, during ripening, the characteristic eyes are due to

(A) lactic acid production by L.bulgaricus
(B) gas production by Propionibacterium species
(C) high temperature lactic cultures like S. thermophilus
(D) lactic fermentation using S. cremoris

4. The precursor from CSL which is incorporated into penicillin to give
benzylpenicillin is

(A) phenylethylamine
(B) phenoxyacetic acid
(C) benzoic acid
(D) penicillanic acid

5. Plasmids are generally used as vectors, due to their

(A) ability to withstand high temperatures
(B) ability to multiply within the cell
(C) ability to get hydrolyzed quickly
(D) ability to hydrolyze RNA

6. This complexes with toxic metals and radionuclides, and thus is
used as detoxifying agent.

(A) Starch
(B) Acrylamide
(C) Alginic acid
(D) Gelatin

7. Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) bioassay is used to monitor for

(A) steroids
(B) endotoxins
(C) exotoxins
(D) squalene

8. The major factor responsible in the tissue rejection process is

(A) Polyclonal Ab produced against foreign Ag
(B) Monoclonal Ab produced against foreign Ag
(C) MHC protein present on the cells
(D) Cytotoxic T-cell reacting against the foreign Ag

9. The pH of a tissue culture medium was changed from 6 to 3, this change would

(A) Precipitate the proteins in the medium
(B) Increase the number of hydrogen ions thousand fold
(C) Dissolve all the salts
(D) Halve the concentration of the hydroxyl ions

10. In Bt cotton, the Bt protein

(A) Causes more cotton production
(B) Increases the protein content
(C) Stops egg laying by adult
(D) Prevents larvae from further feeding

11. A person without thymus will not be able to

(A) Develop an inflammatory response
(B) Reject a tissue transplant
(C) Produce antibodies
(D) Fight cold and cough

12. The Monod model relates

(A) the biomass produced to the substrate utilized
(B) the biomass concentration to the product concentration
(C) the specific growth rate to the substrate availability
(D) the specific growth rate to the biomass concentration

13. It’s a water-in-oil emulsion with the heat killed tubercle bacteria

(A) Freund’s complete adjuvant
(B) Freund’s incomplete adjuvant
(C) Complement
(D) None of the above

14. What is diauxie?

(A) Nothing really. The cells just start growing
(B) The stage wise uptake of nutrients
(C) A requirement for growth factors
(D) Microbiological die-off

15. This is prepared by cleavage of DNA polymerase with subtilisin, giving a large
enzyme fragment, which has no 5’ to 3’exonuclease activity, but which still acts as a
5’ to 3’ polymerase.

(A) Klenow fragment
(B) Okazaki fragment
(C) Telomerase
(D) Hind III

16. The analysis of a gene reveals that 30% of the nucleotides is G residues. Calculate the
values for A +T.

(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%

17. The enzyme used in the prevention of chill –haze in beer is

(A) Amylase
(B) Lipase
(C) Cellulase
(D) Papain

18. Removal of debris and coarse materials from waste waters that may clog the
equipment in the plant is known as

(A) Preliminary treatment
(B) Primary treatment
(C) Preparatory treatment
(D) None of the above

19. Which of the following appears first in the circulation on stimulation?

(A) IgM
(B) IgG
(C) IgD
(D) IgE

20. A protein having both structural and enzymatic properties is

(A) Actin
(B) Trypsin
(C) Myosin
(D) Collagen

21. The RBC is

(A) Rotating Biological Chain Reactor
(B) Rotating Biological Contactor
(C) Rotating Biological Centrifuge
(D) Round Biological Chamber

22. The single letter symbol for lysine is

(A) L
(B) K
(C) Y
(D) S

23. Advantages of trickling filters is

(A) Ponding occurs
(B) Bio-coenoses develop within the reactor
(C) Specific area of voidage is less
(D) The action is not filtration

24. The ratio of intensity of transmitted light to that of incident light is called

(A) absorbance
(B) transmittance
(C) reciprocal of transmittance
(D) logarithm of transmittance

25. One of the following is used in waste water treatment

(A) air lift reactors
(B) membrane bioreactors
(C) hollow fiber reactors
(D) continuously stirred tank reactor

26. The first discovered example of a positive regulation in bacteria was

(A) L-ara operon
(B) lac operon
(C) trp operon
(D) glu operon

27. In glycerol production, the inhibitor effect is

(A) glycerol -3-phosphate production is repressed
(B) conversion of glycerol -3-phosphate to glycerol is repressed
(C) conversion of glycerol-3-phosphate to DHAP is repressed
(D) acetaldehyde production is repressed

28. The repeat unit size in base pairs of the telomeres

(A) 8 base pairs
(B) 6 base pairs
(C) 4 base pairs
(D) 3 base pairs

29. 1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene is known as

(A) Edman’s reagent
(B) Sanger’s reagent
(C) Folin’s reagent
(D) Ninhydrin reagent

30. In an enzyme assay, when [S] is much less than the Km, the rate

(A) approaches Vm
(B) is independent of [S]
(C) is independent of [E]
(D) is proportional to [S]

31. The mannitol supplied in the incubation mixture of protoplast isolation,
functions primarily as

(A) source of energy
(B) buffer
(C) osmotic stabilizer
(D) N-source

32. In fluidized bed reactors

(A) Temperature gradients are very high
(B) Temperature is more or less uniform
(C) Hotspots are formed
(D) Segregation of solids occurs

33. An example of Gram positive plant pathogenic bacterium is

(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Erwinia
(C) Xanthomonas
(D) Corynebacterium

34. The different phases of the cell cycle are in the following order

(A) G1, S, G2, M
(B) S, G1, G2, M
(C) G2, S, M, G1
(D) M, G2, S, G1

35. When 20 Ci of radioactive elements were kept for 40 days, the radioactivity was
reduced to 5 Ci, then the half life of the radioactive element is

(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 30

36. In which component of a mitochondrion, ATP is synthesized

(A) Crista
(B) Matrix
(C) F0 – F1 complex
(D) Outer membrane

37. The function of penicillin in the production of glutamic acid by
Micrococcus glutaricus is

(A) increase glutamic acid production
(B) increase the purity of glutamic acid
(C) act as inducer
(D) increase cell wall permeability for glutamic acid release

38. In prokaryotes, ETC and oxidative phosphorylation occur

(A) in the cytosol
(B) attached to the cell wall
(C) in the plasma membrane
(D) in vacuoles

39. The kinetics of microbial cell death is

(A) arithmetic
(B) exponential
(C) logarithmic
(D) None of the above

40. In electrophoresis, if the pH is above the isoelectric pH of a protein, it will

(A) migrate to the anode
(B) migrate to the cathode
(C) remain stationary
(D) precipitate

41. While constructing genomic library, one of the following combinations of restriction
enzymes is most ideal. Recognize the combination

(A) EcoR1 and Sau3A1
(B) EcoR1 and BamH1
(C) BamH1 and Sau3A1
(D) BamH1 and HindIII

42. Type IV hypersensitivity is caused by

(A) IgE
(B) IgM
(C) Immunecomplex
(D) CMI

43. Oxygen demand increases when

(A) the carbon source concentration is more reduced
(B) the carbon source is more reduced
(C) the carbon source concentration is less reduced
(D) carbon source is less reduced

44. The inhibition of glycolysis by oxygen is called

(A) Hypochromic effect
(B) Bernoullii effect
(C) Pasteur effect
(D) Bohr effect

45. Methylated DNA has not been found in

(A) Drosophila
(B) E.coli
(C) Homo sapiens
(D) Arabidopsis thaliana

46. Growth of bacteria requiring p-amino benzoic acid is inhibited by

(A) pantothenic acid
(B) tetrahydrofolic acid
(C) folic acid
(D) sulfonamides

47. The chemical which induces premature polypeptide chain termination

(A) Actinomycin
(B) Streptomycin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Puromycin

48. SWL contains

(A) 1% sugar
(B) 1.5% sugar
(C) 2% sugar
(D) 2.5 % sugar

49. Under aerobic conditions, cellular yield coefficient is used to estimate

(A) Carbon requirements for biomass production
(B) Nitrogen requirements for biomass production
(C) Energy requirements for biomass production
(D) All the above

50. Which of the following is unchanged in the Lineweaver and Burk plot of an enzyme
by the presence of an uncompetitive inhibitor?

(A) X-intercept
(B) Y-intercept
(C) Slope
(D) None of the above

51. Origin of replication in E.coli is recognized by a complex of proteins called as

(A) Replisome
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) Primosome
(D) Ribosome

52. Chitin is a polymer of

(A) Glucosamine
(B) N-acetylglucosamine
(C) N-acetyl galactosamine
(D) Glucose and maltose

53. Which of the following is false about anaerobic waste water treatment processes?

(A) Less sensitive to upsets by toxicants
(B) Produce less sludge than aerobic process
(C) Slower than aerobic process
(D) All the above

54. Phosphorous accumulates inside the cells as polyphosphates under

(A) Microaerophilic conditions
(B) Anaerobic conditions
(C) Aerobic conditions
(D) Conditions of nutrient depletion

55. Eukaryotic cells contain …………..DNA polymerases.

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

56. Beet molasses

(A) is limiting in biotin for yeast production
(B) is 70-75% sugar
(C) best molasses ever
(D) is hydrol

57. The addition of antifoams in an aerated bioreactor will decrease oxygen transfer rates
because antifoams

(A) decrease bubble coalescence
(B) reduce surface tension of the liquid
(C) decrease bubble size
(D) increase substrate availability

58. In fermentor sterilization, the thermal death characteristics of which organism is used?

(A) Bacillus megaterium
(B) Bacillus macerans
(C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
(D) Coxiella burnetti

59. When Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a medium with a high concentration of
glucose, the cells will

(A) ferment only if the dissolved oxygen concentration is high
(B) ferment only if the dissolved oxygen concentration is low
(C) ferment regardless of the concentration of dissolved oxygen
(D) None of the above

60. Which of the following is best described as a secondary metabolite?

(A) Penicillin
(B) Glutamic acid
(C) Acetic acid from oxidation of alcohol
(D) Ethanol from fermentation of glucose

61. The region of the air lift reactor in which the air is sparged is called

(A) the down comer
(B) the air riser
(C) the disengagement zone
(D) flotsam

62. Antibiotic that damages the cytoplasmic membrane

(A) Chloramphenicol
(B) Polymyxin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Cycloserine

63. Identify the variety of surface ripened cheese

(A) Monterey
(B) Limburger
(C) Gouda
(D) Edam

64. The Orleans process is used in the manufacture of

(A) Interferon
(B) Dextran
(C) Vinegar
(D) 2,3-butanediol

65. Picornaviridae are

(A) Viruses composed of single stranded (+) type RNA
(B) Viruses composed of single stranded (-) type RNA
(C) Viruses composed of single stranded DNA
(D) Viruses composed of double stranded RNA

66. Negri bodies, inclusion bodies in Purkinje cells and cells of the hippocampus are
diagnostic of

(A) Vesicular stomatitis
(B) Mumps
(C) Rabies
(D) Influenza

67. Mammals cannot synthesize

(A) linoleate and linolenate
(B) palmitic acid and linoleic acid
(C) oleic acid and linoleic acid
(D) palmitic acid and oleic acid

68. The outer membrane of the Gram negative cell wall is anchored to the underlying
peptidoglycan by means of

(A) Pseudomurein
(B) Braun’s lipoprotein
(C) Teichoic acids
(D) Core polysaccharide

69. The resolving power of the unaided human eye is

(A) 10 micrometre
(B) 100 micrometre
(C) 1000 nanometre
(D) 1000 nanometre

70. MacConkey agar is modified according to need. Choose the correct answer from the
following

(i) If swarming of Proteus species is not required, sodium chloride is omitted.
(ii) Crystal violet at 0.0001% is included to inhibit Gram-positive bacteria.
(iii) MacConkey with sorbitol is used to isolate an enteric pathogen E. coli O157.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(B) (i), (ii) are correct, but (iii) is incorrect
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are all correct
(D) (i) and (iii) are incorrect, but (ii) is correct

71. When tryptophan is converted by tryptophanase, roseindol is formed by adding
Kovac’s reagent containing

(A) p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
(B) p-aminobenzoic acid and aldehyde
(C) tetramethylparaphenylene diamine dihydrochloride
(D) p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde

72. Identify this medium based on the composition- yeast extract, peptone, sodium
thiosulfate, sodium citrate, ox, gall, sodium cholate, saccharose, sodium chloride,
ferric citrate, bromothymol blue, thymol blue and agar.

(A) Simmon’s citrate agar
(B) TCBS agar
(C) EMB agar
(D) XLD agar

73. Select the correct choice for the statement-The redox indicator used in oxidase test

(i) hydrochloride salt of N,N,N′,N′-tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine
(ii) hydrochloride salt of p-dimethyaminocinnamaldehyde
(iii) Wurster's blue is the trivial name and the radical cation is a characteristic blue-
violet colour
(iv) It loses two electrons in one-electron oxidation steps

(A) (i) is correct, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are incorrect
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct, while (ii) is incorrect
(C) (i) and (ii) are correct, (iii) and (iv) are incorrect
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct, while (i) is incorrect

74. The Crystal® VC Rapid Diagnostic Test (RDT) Procedure is used for

(A) E.coli
(B) V.parahaemolyticus
(C) P.aeruginosa
(D) V.cholerae

75. Peroxisomes and glyoxysomes are

(A) energy transforming organelles
(B) membraneless organelles
(C) macrobodies
(D) microbodies

76. Indole acetic acid belongs to a group of hormones known as

(A) Cytokinins
(B) Gibberillins
(C) Auxins
(D) Abscisic acid

77. The flattened, bulb like structure, produced by the fungi, which allows them to
penetrate their host plants directly is known as

(A) appressorium
(B) propagule
(C) biotroph
(D) aecium

78. The openings on fruits, stems and tubers that are filled with loosely connected cells to
allow passage of air are known as

(A) Hydathodes
(B) Lenticels
(C) Porins
(D) Stomata

79. Cutin is an insoluble polyester of

(A) C12 and C20 hydroxy fatty acids
(B) C20 hydroxy fatty acids
(C) C12 hydroxy fatty acids
(D) C16 and C18 hydroxy fatty acids

80. The wild fire disease of tobacco is caused by

(A) Pseudomonas syringae
(B) Pseudomonas aeroginosa
(C) Pseudomonas putida
(D) Pseudomonas solanacearum

81. The disease caused by the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens is

(A) Corn smut
(B) Crown gall
(C) Banana wilt
(D) Root knot

82. When plants are infected with pathogens,

(A) The rate of respiration generally increases
(B) The rate of respiration generally decreases
(C) Transpiration is usually decreased
(D) Photosynthesis usually increases

83. The causative agent of smuts that cause the ears and grains to be transformed into
greenish black mass or soot is

(A) Puccinia
(B) Phytopthora
(C) Ustilago
(D) Fusarium

84. The saponins present in oats and which have antifungal membranolytic activity is

(A) Tomatine
(B) Avenacin
(C) Zeatin
(D) Lectin

85. The precursor of the wound hormone traumatin, that also acts as a signal transducer of
the defense reaction in plant-pathogen interactions is

(A) Jasmonic acid
(B) Gibberellic acid
(C) Indol acetic acid
(D) Glutamic acid

86. Phytoalexins

(A) Are produced during compatible biotrophic infections
(B) Are produced by healthy cells adjacent to the localized damaged and necrotic
cells in response to materials diffusing from the damaged cells
(C) Do not accumulate around both resistant and susceptible necrotic tissues
(D) Are not produced after stimulation by phytopathogenic microorganisms or by
chemical and mechanical injury

87. During drought conditions, plants produce a hormone known as

(A) Indole acetic acid
(B) Ethylene
(C) Abscisic acid
(D) Indole butyric acid

88. Cybrid cells

(A) contain the nucleus of one cell and the cytoplasm of the other cell
(B) contain the nuclei and the cytoplasm of both protoplast cells
(C) contain only the nuclei of both protoplast cells
(D) contain only the cytoplasm of both protoplast cells

89. Cauliflower mosaic virus is a

(A) ds DNA virus
(B) ss DNA virus
(C) ss RNA virus
(D) ds RNA virus

90. Bordeaux mixture used against downy mildew is a product of the reaction of

(A) Copper sulfate and calcium hydroxide
(B) Sodium sulfate and calcium hydroxide
(C) Calcium sulfate and calcium hydroxide
(D) Zincsulfate and calcium hydroxide

91. The pH of normal unpolluted rain is usually

(A) pH 7.0
(B) pH 6.0
(C) pH 5.6
(D) pH 4.5

92. Protoplasts are used for genetic engineering because

(A) they have diploid nucleus
(B) they have no cell wall
(C) they have no cell membrane
(D) they have intact cytoplasm

93. Ectomycorrhizae is an association of

(A) bacteria and plant
(B) cyanobacteria and fungi
(C) bacteria and fungi
(D) fungi and plant root

94. When sterilizing at 15 lbs pressure for 20 minutes, the temperature is

(A) 110°C
(B) 115°C
(C) 121°C
(D) 125°C

95. The fungus-like members of the kingdom Chromista that have elongated mycelium
containing cellulose but no cross walls are

(A) Myxomycetes
(B) Oomycetes
(C) Zygomycetes
(D) Plasmodiophoromycetes

96. Xanthomonas campestris is a seed pathogen that causes

(A) black rot of Cauliflower
(B) root rot of Barley
(C) anthracnose of French beans
(D) leaf blight of Carrot

97. Koch’s postulates-Which of the statements below is false?

(A) The microorganisms must not necessarily be found isolated with every
instance of disease
(B) The microorganism must be isolated and brought into pure culture and its
specific characters studied
(C) When the host is inoculated with the isolated microorganism under optimum
conditions, the disease should appear with characteristic symptoms
(D) The microorganism be reisolated and on comparison with the original culture,
must be found identical

98. A group of plant proteins that bind to specific carbohydrates

(A) Pectins
(B) Lectins
(C) Chitins
(D) Cutins

99. Haustoria are present in plants like

(A) Vanda
(B) Rhizophora
(C) Tinospora
(D) Mistletoe

100. Keefe’s solution

(A) is a medium for the preservation of green color in plant specimen
(B) is a nuclear stain
(C) is a fixative
(D) is a culture medium for bacteria

101. Loeffler’s alkaline methylene blue is

(A) Flagella stain
(B) Spore stain
(C) Acid fast stain
(D) Capsule stain

102. Process absent in virus or not virus mediated

(A) Replication
(B) Mutation
(C) protein synthesis
(D) energy liberation

103. Mycoplasma like organisms which have only cell membrane and lacking cell wall are
classified as

(A) Gracilicutes
(B) Firmicutes
(C) Mollicutes
(D) Proteobacteria

104. The change of a cell through uptake and expression of additional genetic material

(A) Conjugation
(B) Transformation
(C) Generalized transduction
(D) Specialized transduction

105. RNA dependent DNA polymerase is part of genome of

(A) Influenza virus
(B) Herpes virus
(C) Adenovirus
(D) Papilloma virus

106. Incorporation of 5-bromouracil into DNA will result in conversion of

(A) AT to GC
(B) GC to AT
(C) TA to AT
(D) CG to GC

107. The function of the sex (F) pilus of Escherichia coli involves

(A) transport of nutrients
(B) attachment of cells to inert surfaces
(C) movement of cells in a type of twitching motion
(D) transfer of DNA between bacteria during conjugation

108. In bacterial genetics, the term competence refers to a bacterium with

(A) ability to be transformed
(B) the F factor integrated into its chromosomal DNA
(C) susceptibility to lytic infection by bacteriophage
(D) ability to act as a DNA donor during transformation

109. Which of the following is an advantage that ectotherms have over endotherms of the
same size?

(A) They require much less food
(B) They are less vulnerable to predation during cold weather
(C) They can remain active in cold weather or on cold nights
(D) They have higher metabolic rates and grow more quickly

110. As an animal gets larger, which of the following occurs?

(A) Its surface area grows more rapidly than its volume
(B) Its volume grows more rapidly than its surface area
(C) Its volume and surface area increase in perfect proportion to each other
(D) Its volume increases, but its total surface area decreases

111. Cellulose is fermented in which of the following structures in rabbits?

(A) Small intestine
(B) Caecum
(C) Rectum
(D) Rumen

112. Which of the following brain regions is responsible for formation of new memories?

(A) Brain stem
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Frontal lobe
(D) Hippocampus

113. Which of the following classes of muscles is/are voluntary?

(A) Skeletal muscle
(B) Cardiac muscle
(C) Smooth muscle
(D) All of the above

114. Which of the following developmental processes is not controlled by hormones?

(A) The initial development of male and female gonads in mammals, soon after
fertilization
(B) Overall growth in vertebrates
(C) Moulting in insects and other invertebrates
(D) Metamorphosis in insects and other invertebrates

115. Which of the following modes of asexual reproduction describes the mode of
reproduction in Sea anemones?

(A) Fusion
(B) Fission
(C) Budding
(D) Parthenogenesis

116. What happens during cleavage?

(A) The neural tube forms
(B) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst begins dividing rapidly
(C) The zygote divides rapidly without growth, forming a mass of cells
(D) Massive movements of cells form the three germ layers

117. What is the most important difference between the innate and adaptive immune
responses?

(A) The innate response does not distinguish between pathogens, while the
adaptive response does
(B) Only the innate response is activated by antigens
(C) The adaptive response generates immunological memory and is more specific
than the innate response
(D) The innate response does not kill cells; the adaptive response does

118. What is one of the differences between CD4+ and CD8+ cells?

(A) CD4+ cells are immature, and CD8+ cells are mature
(B) CD4+ cells are activated, and CD8+ cells are not
(C) CD4+ cells activate cell-mediated responses, and CD8+cells activate humoral
responses
(D) CD4+ cells interact with Class II MHC proteins and CD8+cells interact with
class I MHC proteins

119. Which of the following is not found in the cells of higher plants?

(A) Plasma membrane
(B) Chromoplasts
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Centriole

120. A behaviour is considered adaptive if it increases an individual’s fitness. How is
fitness measured?

(A) Strength
(B) Speed
(C) Body size
(D) Number of viable offspring

121. A taxon is

(A) A group of related plants or animals
(B) A type of living organism
(C) A group of related families
(D) A taxonomic group of any rank

122. The pesticide DDT will be mostly concentrated in

(A) Tertiary consumers
(B) Primary decomposers
(C) Primary producers
(D) Secondary consumers

123. What does genetic diversity mean?

(A) The count of species in a territory
(B) Species interacting with the abiotic environment
(C) Abundance of each species present
(D) The complete genetic information of a population, species or a group of species

124. Blue-green algae belong to the kingdom

(A) Monera
(B) Protista
(C) Fungi
(D) Plantae

125. The group of vertebrates with the greatest capacity for gas exchange
across the skin is

(A) Fishes
(B) Amphibians
(C) Reptiles
(D) Mammals

126. Which of Mendel’s laws cannot be observed in a single-factor cross?

(A) Segregation
(B) Dominance
(C) Independent assortment
(D) Recessiveness

127. The enzyme that allows short segments of DNA to move from one location in the
genome to another is

(A) Transposase
(B) Restriction endonuclease
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) RNA polymerase

128. The movement of landmasses that have changed their positions, shapes, and
association with other landmasses is called

(A) Glaciation
(B) Pangaea
(C) Continental drift
(D) Biogeography

129. Neck is absent in frog. This helps frog in

(A) Jumping around
(B) Swimming in water
(C) Respiration
(D) Catching prey

130. In frog, the biggest bone of vertebral column is

(A) Pygostyle
(B) Uropyge
(C) Urostyle
(D) None of the above

131. Hepatic portal system starts from

(A) Digestive system to liver
(B) Kidney to liver
(C) Liver to heart
(D) Liver to kidney

132. Nissl granules are found in

(A) Internal ear
(B) Uriniferous tubules
(C) Bile juice
(D) Neuronal cell

133. Which of the following chromosomes are found in salivary glands of Drosophila?

(A) Normal
(B) Lampbrush
(C) Polytene
(D) Heterochromatic

134. In ecological sense, the desert animals are termed as

(A) Arboreal
(B) Cursorial
(C) Benthic
(D) Xeric

135. Animal species should be preserved mainly because

(A) They are lovely creatures
(B) They are useful to mankind
(C) Man cannot recreate a species of animals if it be destroyed
(D) Zoologists want to study them

136. Memory cells are produced by

(A) Only B-cells
(B) Only T-cells
(C) Mainly T-cells
(D) Both B - and T- cells

137. Helper T-cells

(A) Produce antibodies
(B) Stimulate antibody production by B-cells
(C) Produce B-cells
(D) Produce B-cells as well as Killer cells

138. Heterocysts are specialized for

(A) Aerobic respiration
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Nitrogen fixation
(D) Reproduction

139. Coprophilous fungi grow on

(A) Grasses
(B) Dung
(C) Animals
(D) Wood

140. Sorosis is the fruit that develops from an inflorescence like:

(A) Spike or Spadix
(B) Capitulum
(C) Racemose
(D) Cymose

141. Female sex organ of Rodophyceae is

(A) Carpogonium
(B) Archegonium
(C) Oogonium
(D) Sporogonium

142. In Pteridophytes, reduction division occurs when

(A) Prothallus is formed
(B) Sex organs are formed
(C) Spores are formed
(D) Gametes are formed

143. Lichens are ecologically important because

(A) They are associations of algae and fungi
(B) They can grow in highly polluted areas
(C) They are pioneers of vegetation in a lithosphere
(D) They are symbiotic with higher plants

144. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the

(A) formation of the product
(B) the pH of optimum value
(C) the Km value
(D) molecular size of the enzyme

145. When synapsis is complete all along the chromosome, the cell is said to have entered
a stage called

(A) Zygotene
(B) Pachytene
(C) Diplotene
(D) Diakinesis

146. The pathway of the movement of water through cell wall only is called

(A) Symplast pathway
(B) Plasmodesmata pathway
(C) Apoplast pathway
(D) Vacuolar pathway

147. Hevea brasiliensis belongs to the family:

(A) Fabaceae
(B) Lamiaceae
(C) Verbinaceae
(D) Euphorbiaceae

148. A mutually beneficial association which is necessary for the survival of both the
partners is called:

(A) Symbiosis
(B) Commensalism
(C) Parasitism
(D) Mutualism

149. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is

(A) PS II, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS I, ferredoxin
(B) PS I, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS II, ferredoxin
(C) PS I, ferredoxin, PS II
(D) PS I, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS II, ferredoxin

150. The chemiosmotic hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation process is that ATP is
formed because

(A) A proton gradient forms across the inner mitochondrial membrane
(B) There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane
towards ADP
(C) High energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
(D) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the inner membrane space

***********

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 623 MICROBIOLOGY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 A 31 C 61 C 91 C 121 A
2 A 32 B 62 B 92 B 122 A
3 B 33 D 63 B 93 D 123 C
4 A 34 A 64 C 94 C 124 A
5 B 35 C 65 A 95 B 125 B
6 C 36 C 66 C 96 A 126 C
7 B 37 D 67 A 97 A 127 A
8 C 38 C 68 B 98 B 128 C
9 B 39 B 69 B 99 D 129 B
10 D 40 A 70 C 100 A 130 C
11 B 41 C 71 A 101 C 131 A
12 C 42 D 72 B 102 D 132 D
13 A 43 B 73 B 103 C 133 C
14 B 44 C 74 D 104 B 134 D
15 A 45 D 75 D 105 A 135 C
16 B 46 D 76 C 106 A 136 D
17 D 47 D 77 A 107 D 137 B
18 A 48 C 78 B 108 A 138 C
19 A 49 A 79 D 109 A 139 B
20 C 50 C 80 A 110 B 140 A
21 B 51 C 81 B 111 B 141 A
22 B 52 B 82 A 112 D 142 C
23 B 53 A 83 C 113 A 143 C
24 B 54 C 84 B 114 A 144 C
25 D 55 C 85 A 115 B 145 B
26 A 56 A 86 B 116 C 146 C
27 D 57 B 87 C 117 C 147 D
28 B 58 C 88 A 118 D 148 D
29 B 59 B 89 A 119 D 149 A
30 D 60 A 90 A 120 D 150 A